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EPME Flashcards

1
Q

allows you, your
spouse, and dependents to register and vote absentee in Federal office
elections.

A

The Uniformed and Overseas Citizen Voting Act.

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2
Q

Use of GV in the transportation of a spouse.

A

Permissible for the transportation of an employee and spouse together to and from the duty location to an official function in which spouses were invited.

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3
Q

Unauthorized Use of Government Owned Vehicles

A

Luncheons and office functions, transportation of non-official passengers, Permissive TAD travel, Hitch-Hikers.

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4
Q

An ______, U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator’s
Identification Card, shall be issued when a member is required
to operate a vehicle or vehicle trailer combination that requires
special skills and experience.

A

OF-346

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5
Q

Operators shall report any motor vehicle accident/mishap and/ or
damage to vehicles and trailers, and/or loss of license plates, as soon
as possible to ______ ______ _____ and their supervisors.

A

Motor Vehicle managers

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6
Q

If you are the DRIVER of a government vehicle during an accident,
you MUST file a “motor vehicle accident report” form _____.

A

SF-91

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7
Q

If you are a PASSENGER in a government vehicle during an accident
you MUST fill out a “Statement of Witness” form _____.

A

SF-94

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8
Q

How many different types of discharge for characterized separations?

A

Five

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9
Q

How many different types of discharge for uncharacterized separations?

A

One

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10
Q

Honorable Discharge

A

Separation with honor

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11
Q

General Discharge

A

Separation with honorable conditions

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12
Q

Discharge Under Other Than Honorable Conditions

A

Separation under conditions other than honorable

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13
Q

Bad Conduct Discharge

A

Separation under conditions other than honorable

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14
Q

Dishonorable Discharge

A

Separation with dishonor

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15
Q

Uncharacterized Discharge

A

Separation for those members with less than 180 days in service

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16
Q

There are __ formal reasons a service member may be discharged
from the military

A

14

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17
Q

Member has shown proper military behavior and proficient
performance of duty with due consideration for the member’s
age, length of service, grade, and general aptitude.

A

Honorable Discharge

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18
Q

Member has shown proper military behavior and proficient
performance of duty with due consideration for the member’s
age, length of service, grade, and general aptitude.

A

Honorable Discharge

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19
Q

The member has been identified as a user, possessor, or

distributor of illegal drugs or paraphernalia.

A

General Discharge

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20
Q

The member has tampered with drug urinalysis samples,

supplies, or documentation.

A

General Discharge

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21
Q 
When Commander (CGPC –epm-1) directs issuing a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
discharge based on the individual’s overall military record or
the severity of the incident(s) which results in discharge.
A

General Discharge

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22
Q

Member poses or has created a security risk.

A

Discharge Other Than Honorable Conditions

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23
Q

When issued as a result of an approved sentence of a general or
special court-martial.

A

Bad Conduct Discharge

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24
Q

Only as a result of an approved sentence of a general courtmartial.

A

Dishonorable Discharge

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25
Q

Fewer than 180 days of active service and demonstrated poor
proficiency, conduct, aptitude or unsuitability for further
service, exhibited minor pre-existing medical issues not of a
disabling nature which do not meet the medical/physical
procurement standards.

A

Uncharacterized Discharge

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26
Q

is used for most recruit
separations, except for disability, prior service members
entering recruit training, or in cases when another type of
discharge may be appropriate.

A

Uncharacterized Discharge

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27
Q

An other than honorable separation from the Coast Guard could affect
a member’s ability to:

A

 Receive local, state or federal veteran’s benefits
 Re-enlist in military service
 Acquire a government job
 Acquire a security clearance
 Acquire employment with companies who receive government
contracts

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28
Q

Tattoos on the hand in the form of a ring may not to exceed ___ inch

A

1/4

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29
Q

Permanent eyeliner makeup in the form of cosmetic tattooing is
authorized for female members. The tattoo(s) shall not be brightly
colored, shall be no more then ___ inch wide, and must not extend past
the outer corner of the eye.

A

1/8

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30
Q

In regards to excessive tattooing, members are authorized tattoos with
no limitation on size or percentage of coverage. In the case of
branding no more than one brand, not to exceed ____, may appear
anywhere on the body.

A

4” X 4”

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31
Q

Must be located a sufficient distance away, approximately 50
feet, so as not to allow smoke to be drawn into the indoor
facility through door openings, windows, and air intake
units/vents.

A

Designated Tobacco use areas

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32
Q

The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning
Engineers (ASHRAE) have established that __ cubic feet per minute
per person of outside fresh air is required. The carbon dioxide (CO2)
level should not exceed _____ parts per million (PPM).

A

20; 1000

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33
Q

The use of all tobacco products (smoking and smokeless) are also
PROHIBITED in:

A

Bachelor living quarters
 Common areas
Defined as any space within a building that is common to
occupants and visitors.

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34
Q

The sale of tobacco products to anyone under the

age of __ years (__ years in Alaska) is prohibited.

A

18; 19

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35
Q

states “the Government
Travel Credit Card (GTCC) shall be used by all U.S. Government
personnel (military and civilian) to pay for all official travel
expenses.”

A

The Travel and Transportation Reform Act

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36
Q

Coast Guard military members (active and reserve) and all civilian
employees are required to obtain a GTCC if they anticipate traveling
more than _____ _______ a year.

A

Five times

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37
Q

Personnel traveling less than five times a
year shall not have a GTCC without written authorization by their __
or ________.

A

CO; Supervisor

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38
Q

The standard maximum credit limit for Government Travel and

Transportation Charge Cards (GTCCs) is _________.

A

$2500.00

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39
Q

The GTCC
Coordinators are authorized to increase credit limits to ______
(Approval from cardholders CO is required.)

A

$9,999

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40
Q

Individuals who possess a
GTCC and anticipate traveling less than five times a year shall have
their credit limit reduced to _____.

A

$1.00

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41
Q

If the duration of the PCS travel will exceed __ days, including leave,
compensatory absence, proceeds time and TAD in conjunction with
the PCS, the card shall not be used.

A

15

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42
Q

For both Temporary Assigned Duty (TAD) and Permanent Change of
Station (PCS), card use is optional for ____ and _______ ________
(M&IE) and other miscellaneous reimbursable travel expenses.

A

meals; incidental expenses

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43
Q

GTCC payments must be made in full, _____ __ _________, by the due date printed on the monthly statement.
Partial payments are not authorized.

A

Regardless of Reimbursement

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44
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:

Payment due date is __ calendar days from the statement date.

A

25

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45
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:
An account is classified as one day past due if the bank has not received payment by the ___ calendar day from the statement date.

A

30th

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46
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:

An account will be suspended when the account balance is __ calendar days past due.

A

36

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47
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind

:An account is classified as delinquent when the account balance reaches __ calendar days past due.

A

61

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48
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:

An account will be cancelled when the account balance reaches ___ calendar days past due.

A

101

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49
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:

The GTCC bank will notify commercial credit rating companies when an account reaches ___ days past due

A

120

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50
Q

GTCC payment information to keep in mind:

Accounts that reach ___ days past due will never be eligible for reinstatement.

A

180

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51
Q

GTCC billing cycle for the Coast Guard is the ____ of a month until the
___ of the following month.

A

13th; 12th

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52
Q

provides the right of the accused
to remain silent throughout the process and to not answer questions or
make any statement.

A

UCMJ, Article 31

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53
Q

Commanding officers have the authority, under UCMJ ______ __, to
impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) at captain’s mast.

A

Article 15

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54
Q

The right to appeal a punishment is waived after how many days?

A

5

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55
Q

If an
appeal has not been acted upon by the Commanding Officer within _
calendar days of receiving it, however, the member may request that
punishments involving restriction or extra duties be deferred until a
decision is made on the appeal.

A

5

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56
Q

court-martial consists of a

military judge and at least five members.

A

General Courts-Martial

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57
Q

court-martial consists of a military

judge and at least three members.

A

Special Courts-Martial

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58
Q

courts-martial consists of one
member, ranked LCDR or above. The member does not need to be a
judge. The accused member has the right to refuse trial by _______
court-martial.

A

Summary Courts-Martial

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59
Q

Romantic relationships between members are unacceptable when:

A

 Members have a supervisor and subordinate relationship
(including periodic supervision of duty section or watch standing
personnel)
 Members are assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60
members)
 Members are assigned to the same cutter
 The relationship is between chief petty officers (E-7/8/9) and
junior enlisted personnel (E-4 and below)
 The relationship is manifested in the work environment in a way
which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business

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60
Q

What is the SAPP rule?

A

Security, Accuracy, Policy, Propriety

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61
Q

is a federal
law that ensures the public has access to government records, and
spells out steps and procedures for providing information.

A

Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)

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62
Q

of sexual assaults to
activate both victims’ services and accountability actions is the
preferred method but, it is recognized that unrestricted
(complete reporting) represents a barrier for some victims in
accessing needed services.

A

An unrestricted (complete reporting)

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63
Q

reporting which does not activate
the official investigatory process until/unless the victim
chooses to request this option.

A

A restricted (confidential)

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64
Q

Sexual assault reporting procedures require what for all incidents of reported sexual assault

A

EAPC notification

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65
Q

Commands are also prohibited from taking any formal or informal
investigative action for what kind of sexual assualt reporting.

A

Unrestricted reporting

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66
Q

Service members who are sexually assaulted and desire

restricted reporting should report the assault only to:

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator
Sexual Assault Response Coordinator, Family Advocacy Specialist form the Health, Safety and Work-Life field office. Victim Advocate, Health Care Provider, Chaplain.

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67
Q

Members assigned to an afloat unit while underway or in a port other
than their homeport at the time the assault may report to whom?

A

A medical Officer, Independant Duty Health Services Technician, or Victim Advocate

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68
Q

Two types of Tags

A

Danger Tag

Caution Tag

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69
Q

Two types of Labels

A

Out of Commission Label

Out of Calibration Label

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70
Q

Who maintains the one tag-out log at most small cutters and station small boats.

A

Engineering Department

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71
Q

Who maintains the two Tag-out logs on Large cutters and boat?

A

Electricians Mates for Engineering Department

Electronic Technicians for the Operations Department.

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72
Q

prohibits operation of equipment
that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment,
systems, or components.

A

Danger Tag- red in color

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73
Q

It is used to provide temporary
special instructions or indicate that unusual caution must be exercised
to operate a particular piece of equipment

A

Caution Tag- yellow

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74
Q

It is used to identify instruments
that will not correctly indicate parameters, because the instruments are
either defective or isolated from the system.

A

Out of Commision label- red

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75
Q

It is used to identify
instruments that are out of calibration and will not accurately indicate
parameters.

A

Out of Calibration- orange

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76
Q

Hearing protective devices shall be worn by all personnel when they
enter or work in an area where the operations generate noise levels of:

A

 Equal to or greater than 85 dB(A) continuous sound pressure
level
 140 dB peak sound pressure level or greater

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77
Q

A combination of insert type and over ear type hearing protective
devices (double hearing protection) shall be worn in all areas where
noise levels exceed ___ dB(A).

A

104

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78
Q

Information requiring the highest degree of
protection The unauthorized disclosure of information could reasonably be expected to cause
exceptionally grave damage to the national security.

A

Top Secret

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79
Q

Information requiring a substantial degree of
protection. The unauthorized disclosure of information
could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the
national security.

A

Secret

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80
Q

Information requiring protection. The
unauthorized disclosure of information could
reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security.

A

Confidential

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81
Q

classification will be marked on the bottom and top of the

page

A

Document is only one page

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82
Q

classification marking will appear on the top and bottom of the
outside cover, the title page, and the outside back cover.

A

Documents containing more than one page

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83
Q

Spaces which contain classified material shall be designated as
a _____

A

Restricted Area

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84
Q

A continuous,
systematic process of identifying and controlling risks in all
activities according to a set of pre-conceived parameters by
applying appropriate management policies and procedures.

A

Operational Risk Management

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85
Q

The three main purposes of ICS include:

A

Ensure the safety of responders and others
Achievement of tactical objectives
Efficient use of resources

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86
Q

Four categories the Coast Guard expects of its leaders

A

Leading Self, Leading Others, Leading Performance and Change, Leading the Coast Guard

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87
Q

How many Coast Guard Leadership Competencies are there

A

28

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88
Q

A fitness plans should consist of all five components listed:

A 
 Cardio-Respiratory Endurance (CRE)
 Muscular strength (MS)
 Muscular endurance (ME)
 Flexibility (F)
 Body composition (BC)
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89
Q

What does suicide A.C.E stand for?

A

Ask. Care. Escort.

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90
Q

Seven Leading Competencies

A
  1. Accountability & Responsibility
  2. Followership
  3. Self-Awareness & Learning
  4. Aligning Values
  5. Health & Well-Being
  6. Personal Conduct
  7. Technical Proficiency
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91
Q

Leading others Competencies

A
  1. Effective Communications
  2. Influencing Others
  3. Respect for Others & Diversity Management
  4. Team Building
  5. Taking Care of People
  6. Mentoring
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92
Q

Approaches to Influencing Others

A

Directing, Coaching, Delegating

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93
Q

Levels of Diversity Management

A

Personal, Interpersonal, Organizational

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94
Q

Decision Making Methods

A

Leader made, Leader-made with input, Team made

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95
Q

Four stages of team development identified by Dr. Bruce Tuckman

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

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96
Q

Elements of Mentoring Relationship

A

Mutual respect, trust, caring, mutual support for growth

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97
Q

Types of Mentoring

A

Formal, Informal, Situational, Supervisory

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98
Q

five levels of Human Need

A

Self-actualization, Esteem, Love/Belonging, Safety, Physiological

99
Q

Five steps involved in planning a budget

A
  1. Identify your goals- both short term and long term.
  2. Record your income
  3. Determine your expenses
  4. 4Develop a savings plan
  5. Use the plan
100
Q

Substance Abuse Free Environment Program Goals

A

Reduce the total number of substance abuse incidents
Detect and separate members who abuses, traffic in, or unlawfully possess drugs
Facilitate identification, treatment and rehabilitation of members who are found to be chemically dependent on drugs.

101
Q

enlisted members who have not advanced beyond pay grade
E-2 and have more than two years of Coast Guard service shall
normally be separated by reason of ________ due to alcohol abuse.

A

Unsuitability

102
Q

Cadets graduate with one of
eight majors and are obligated to _____ _____ of active duty service upon
graduation.

A

Five years

103
Q

CG Academy Cadet age:

A

Be between 17 and 22 years of age

104
Q

OCS age:

A

21 and 26 years of age

105
Q

PPEP candidates must be in the age of:

A

21 and not yet 32 years of age

106
Q

PPEP candidates must be eligible to
complete at least ____ _____ additional continuous active duty
service following OCS graduation.

A

four years

107
Q

You must be
enrolled/accepted for enrollment in an accredited 4-year
college/university that is approved by Commandant (____). (PPEP)

A

G-PRJ

108
Q

SRDC program applicant must be between the ages of:

A

21 and 37 years old

109
Q

CWO requirements

A

Duty status, Be a member of the Coast Guard or Coast Guard
Reserve with at least eight years total active service in the U.S.
Armed Forces

110
Q

RFMCs maintain open communications with their rating through:

A

Force notes
Field visits
Direct contact with individual members

111
Q

when
you want to provide them with information that does not require their
involvement or response to your e-mail.

A

Courtesy or Carbon Copy (Cc)

112
Q

If you would like to send a message that can’t be seen by other e-mail
recipients or will not be included in replies to the original e-mail

A

Blind Carbon or Courtesy copy (Bcc)

113
Q

Another, more efficient, way to send your message to a group of
people is to use a distribution list, also referred to as a _______

A

bang list

114
Q

S.M.A.R.T

A 
Specific
Measurable
Achievable
Relevant
Time-Bound
115
Q

Attainable attributes

A

Attitude
Ability
Skill
Financial Resources

116
Q

Types of Communication

A

Verbal
Vocal
Visual

117
Q

What are the five elements of a Message

A 
Sender
Receiver
Message
Transmission Medium
Feedback
118
Q

Barriers to Communication

A

Physical
Psychological
Space

119
Q

L.E.A.P.S in effective listening stands for?

A 
Listen
Empathize
Ask
Paraphrase
Summarize
120
Q

Three Roles of the Coast Guard

A

Maritime Safety
Maritime Security
Maritime Stewardship

121
Q

When was the Coast Guard established by law as an armed service?

A

1915

122
Q

Maritime Safety roles

A

Marine Safety Mission

Search and Rescue Mission

123
Q

Maritime security roles

A

o Drugs Interdiction Mission
o Undocumented Migrants Interdiction Mission
o Defense Readiness Mission
o Ports, Waterways, and Coastal Security Mission

124
Q

Maritime Stewardship roles

A 
o Living Marine Resource Mission
o Marine Environmental Protection Mission
o Fisheries Mission
o Aids to Navigation Mission
o Ice Operations Mission
125
Q

The Coast Guard has been responsible for the security of the
ports and waterways of the United States during times of war
since the enactment of the __________________. After World
War II, the ____________ assigned the Coast Guard
an ongoing mission to safeguard U.S. ports, harbors, vessels,
and waterfront facilities from accidents, sabotage, or other
subversive acts.

A

Espionage Act of 1917; Magnuson Act of 1950

126
Q

designated
Coast Guard Captains of the Port as the Federal Maritime
Security Coordinators.

A

Maritime Transportation Security Act of 2002

127
Q

In ____, Congress passed what is now known as the
Magnuson- Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management
Act.

A

1976

128
Q

The Coast Guard focuses on three

high-threat areas for illegal foreign incursions:

A

the United
States—Mexican border in Gulf of Mexico, the United
States—Russian Maritime Boundary Line in the Bering Sea,
and the eight non-contiguous Exclusive Economic Zones in the
Western/Central Pacific.

129
Q

Coast Guard
SELRES members are generally authorized __ paid Inactive Duty
Training (IDT) drills and at least __ paid Active Duty for Training
(ADT) days per fiscal year.

A

48; 12

130
Q

only open to members of the Reserve

A

Investigator rating

131
Q

The U.S. Coast Guard Auxiliary is the uniformed volunteer
component of the United States Coast Guard. Created by an Act of
Congress in ____

A

1939

132
Q

Auxiliary directly supports the Coast Guard in

all missions, except _______ and ___ _________ actions

A

military; law enforcement

133
Q

The Homeland Security Act of ____ was signed into law on
_______ ___ ____ resulting in the establishment of the Department
of Homeland Security (DHS).

A

2002; November 25, 2002

134
Q

The DHS is comprised of seven major divisions or directorates and
various critical agencies. The major divisions include:

A 
 Transportation Security Administration
 U.S. Customs and Board Protection
 U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
 U.S. Immigration enforcement
 U.S. Secret Service
 Federal Emergency Management Agency
 U.S. Coast Guard
135
Q 
On \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_ \_\_\_\_\_, the Coast Guard transferred from the Department
of Transportation (DOT) to the DHS.
A

March 1, 2003

136
Q

In May of 2008 this relationship was captured in an agreement
between the Secretaries of Defense and Homeland Security which
formalized the use of Coast Guard components and resources in
support of the National Military Strategy and other national-level
defense and security strategies. These capabilities include:

A 
 Maritime interception and interdiction
 Military environmental response
 Port operations, security, and defense
 Theater security cooperation
 Coastal sea control
 Rotary wing air intercept
 Combating terrorism
 Maritime Operational Threat Response support
137
Q

The rate of

petty officer became official in ____

A

1808

138
Q

Petty officers in the Navy acquire their first rate insignia
when they begin wearing a sleeve device showing an eagle perched
on an anchor.

A

1841

139
Q

The specialty or rating marks become official, though petty

officers used them for several years.

A

1866

140
Q

The Navy recognizes its three classes of petty officers: First,
Second, and Third. The rating badges were approved by the
Secretary of the Navy on ________

A

July 1, 1885

141
Q

Petty officers wear rate insignia of chevrons with the points
down under a spread eagle and rating mark. The eagle faces left
instead of right as it presently does.

A

1886

142
Q

The Navy establishes the Chief Petty Officer rate and issues
the insignia of three chevrons with an arc and eagle. 1st, 2nd, and
3rd class petty officers begin wearing the present insignia.

A

1893

143
Q

The Coast Guard comes into existence when Congress
combines the Revenue Cutter Service with the U.S. Life Saving
Service.

A

1915

144
Q

During World War I, the rates in the Coast Guard become

the same as those in the Navy.

A

1917

145
Q

Insubordinate Conduct Toward an Officer.

A

Article 91

146
Q

Apprehension Commissioned officers, warrant officers, petty
officers, and noncommissioned officers have authority to quell
quarrels, frays and disorders among persons subject to the Uniformed
Code of Military Justice and to apprehend persons who take part in any
of these events.

A

Article 7

147
Q

Failure to Obey Order or Regulation

A

Article 92

148
Q

In accordance with 14 USC, Section 89, Petty Officers have the
authority to:

A

Search the vessel and question personnel on board
Examine the ship’s documents and papers
Arrest persons violating the law, when warranted
Seize contraband if necessary
Inspect to ensure Recreational Boating Safety (RBS) Carriage
Requirements are met
Inquire about compliance prior to boarding

149
Q

Coast Guard personnel who do NOT have authority under this

standard are:

A 
 Non-petty officer enlisted members
 Auxiliarists
 Academy Cadets
 Officer Candidates who are not prior-enlisted Coast Guard
petty officers
 Reservists not on orders
150
Q

Types of measures in CGBI

A

People
Training
Equipment
Infrastructure

151
Q

Different Views in CGBI

A

Enterprise, Unit, Personal and Cubes& Reports

152
Q

is intended to cover the cost

of meals.

A

BAS

153
Q

Reservists called or ordered to active duty for __ or fewer days are
authorized BAH-RC (Reserve Component.)

A

30

154
Q

If a member is called or ordered to active duty status for
___ days or more but not authorized a house hold goods transfer, they
receive BAH/OHA based on the member’s principal residence (at the
time called/ordered to active duty).

A

140

155
Q

may be authorized when a
separation results from military orders and not because of personal
choices of the member and dependents.

A

Family Separation Housing

156
Q

is authorized when a member with dependents is
transferred to a new permanent duty station where
transportation of dependents is not authorized at government
expense and the dependent(s) do not live at or near the
member’s permanent duty station or homeport.

A

FSA-R

157
Q

is authorized when a member is permanently assigned
to a ship that is away from its homeport continuously for more
than 30 days. Dependents are not required to reside in the
vicinity of the homeport.

A

FSA-S

158
Q

is authorized when a member is Temporally Assigned
Duty (TAD/TDY) away from the permanent station, including
TAD/TDY aboard a ship, continuously for more than 30 days,
and the dependents do not reside at or near the TAD/TDY
location.

A

FSA-T

159
Q

Establishing a method for the evaluee to provide input on his
or her performance, these “bullets” should be submitted to the
supervisor no later than __ days before the end of the marking
period.

A

14

160
Q

Routing the completed employee review to the Marking
Official no later than ____ _____ prior to the period ending date,
including supporting comments for any recommended
supporting remarks.

A

nine days

161
Q

Marking official is responsible for routing the completed employee review to the Approving Official not later than ____ days after the employee review period ending date.

A

five

162
Q

The Approving official is responsible for Ensuring the completed employee review, with support
remarks (if applicable) are processed in sufficient time to
permit them to be reviewed by the evaluee through Direct
Access no later than __ days following the end of the marking
period.

A

30

163
Q

The Appeal Authority is responsible for reviewing and acting on the appeal within __ calendar days after receiving it.

A

15

164
Q

The CO is responsible for Endorsing and sending the appeal letter to the Appeal
Authority within __ calendar days of receiving it from the
member.

A

15

165
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ admirals (Vice Admirals) lead the Atlantic Area and the Pacific
Area.
A

Three-Star

166
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ admirals (Rear Admirals), who are under the general
direction and supervision of the Area Commander, lead MLCs.
A

One- or two-star

167
Q

Services provided by the MLC include

A

civil engineering, electronics
systems, naval engineering, health and safety, legal, finance, personnel,
and inspection.

168
Q

Atlantic Area has ____ district offices,

and Pacific Area has ____ district offices.

A

five; four

169
Q

A “cutter” is basically any CG
vessel __ feet in length or greater, having adequate accommodations for
crew to live on board.

A

65

170
Q

Until the Department of the

Navy was established in 1798, the Coast Guard was the only ______ _______ ______.

A

armed force afloat

171
Q

France, distressed over the U.S. trading with its British enemies, seized
American ships on the high seas. On ___ ___ ____

A

May 28, 1798

172
Q

Cutters captured __ prizes unaided and assisted in the capture of two
others. (Quasi-war)

A

18

173
Q

The cutter ________ captured 10 prizes, one of which carried 44 guns
and 200 men, three times her own force.

A

Pickering

174
Q

Another noteworthy cutter, the Eagle, recaptured the American vessels
_____ and _______ in a memorable fight in 1799 with the French
privateer, _______.

A

Nancy; Mehitable; Revenge

175
Q

The Coast Guard’s role of augmenting the Navy with shallow-draft craft
evolved out of the ___ __ ____ with England.

A

War of 1812

176
Q

The cutter ________

captured the first prize of this war.

A

Jefferson in the War of 1812

177
Q

Congress declared war with Mexico on
___ __ ____. Mexico’s declaration of war with the U.S. occurred on
___ ____.

A

May 13, 1846; May 23rd

178
Q

During the Civil War (________), the men of the Revenue Marine faced
the same dilemma as their compatriots in other military services.

A

1861-1865

179
Q

Spain declared war on the U.S. on _____ ___ ____, a consequence of our
intervention in the Spain/Cuba crisis.

A

April 24, 1898

180
Q

On____ ___ ____ in Cardenas Bay, Cuba, the cutter Hudson and torpedo
boat USS Winslow were engaged in battle with Spanish gunboats and
shore batteries.

A

May 11, 1898

181
Q

After German submarines deliberately sunk three American vessels, the
U.S. entered World War I on _____ __ ____.

A

April 2, 1917

182
Q

In August and September 1917, six Coast Guard cutters ______ ______ ______ _____ _____ ______, were deployed to Gibraltar,
constituting Squadron 2 of Division 6 of the Atlantic Fleet’s patrol forces.

A

Ossipee, Seneca,

Yamacraw, Algonquin, Manning, and Tampa,; World War I

183
Q

Following the outbreak of war in Europe in 1939, the Coast Guard began
carrying out neutrality patrols on ________ __ ____. On June 22, 1940,
port security began.

A

September 5, 1939

184
Q

On ______ __ ____, the Coast Guard was given responsibility for coldweather
operations in Greenland.

A

April 9, 1941

185
Q

The cutter _______ took the Norwegian trawler Boskoe

into “protective custody” and captured three German radiomen ashore.

A

Northland

186
Q

_____ forced the surfacing of a
German submarine. With just a 3-inch deck gun, the submarine
was forced to surrender.

A

Icarus

187
Q

In early 1943, after a sharp gun battle, the cutter _______ sank an
enemy submarine by ramming it

A

Campbell

188
Q

In the latter part of 1943, the cutter _______ tracked a submarine
through a convoy. This was accomplished with such skill that the
action report became part of antisubmarine force policy.

A

Spencer

189
Q

On ________ ___ ____, Munro was

instrumental in rescuing a group of marines near the _______ River.

A

September 27, 1942; Matanikau

190
Q

The Coast Guard returned under the jurisdiction of the Treasury
Department on _______ __ ____.

A

January 1, 1946

191
Q

a Coast Guard
team was sent to Seoul, Korea to organize, supervise, and train a South
Korean Coast Guard.

A

Korean War

192
Q

This operation was named “Market

Time,” with the Coast Guard having a major role.

A

Shallow-draft warships and operating expertise in coastal waters were
needed for the interdiction of trawlers being used by North Vietnam for
infiltration and resupply activities.

193
Q

In ____, twenty-six 82-foot Coast Guard cutters were deployed to
Vietnam for Operation Market Time. To avoid being easy targets in
the moonlight or flare light, the white cutters were repainted gray.

A

1965

194
Q

In ____, the first ocean-going cutters augmented the Navy and
Coast Guard surveillance forces already in Vietnam.

A

1966

195
Q

When it was obvious that Saddam would not withdraw, Desert Shield
became Desert Storm on ______________

A

January 17, 1991

196
Q

a Federal lifesaving service began to take shape

in ____.

A

1848

197
Q

Following the war, in 1871, the Life-Saving Service was “reborn” under
the leadership of ______ __ _______, assisted by Revenue Marine Captain
John Faunce.

A

Sumner L. Kimball

198
Q

The largest number of migrants rescued from a single vessel in Coast
Guard history occurred on November 24, 1995 when ___ _______
rescued 578 migrants from a grossly overloaded 75-foot coastal
freighter.

A

CGC Dauntless

199
Q

The Coast Guard’s mission to protect the environment had its beginnings
in 1822 when Congress created a _____ _____ for the Navy.

A

Timber reserve

200
Q

The purchase of Alaska in ____ greatly expanded the Coast Guard’s
environmental responsibilities.

A

1867

201
Q

Metula in the Straits of Magellan

A

August 1974

202
Q

Showa Maru in the Straits of Malacca

A

January 1975

203
Q

Olympic Games in the Delaware River

A

December 1975

204
Q

Argo Merchant on the Nantucket Shoals.

A

December 1976

205
Q

Exxon Valdez on Bligh Reef in Alaska’s Prince William

Sound

A

March 1989

206
Q

On ______ ___ _____, more than 1,500 lives were lost when the RMS Titanic
struck an iceberg in the North Atlantic Ocean and sank.

A

April 15, 1912

207
Q

______ ___ ____, the RCS was tasked with

maintaining the International Ice Patrol.

A

February 7, 1914

208
Q

In ____, fog bells went into service.

A

1852

209
Q

In ____, a mechanical striking bell was used.

A

1869

210
Q

In ____, a fog trumpet was sounded.

A

1872

211
Q

In ____, an air siren provided the warning.

A

1887

212
Q

who served 38 years at the Matinicus Rock and White

Head Light Stations Maine while simultaneously caring for her family.

A

Abbie Burgess

213
Q

who served 39 years at the Lime Rock Lighthouse, saving

18 lives.

A

Ida lewis

214
Q

who served at the Cape Elizabeth Light. He is
probably the only man in history to have been awarded both the Medal
of Honor and the Gold Lifesaving Medal.

A

Marcus Hanna

215
Q

In 1995, the Coast Guard national defense missions were:

A
  • Maritime interception operations
  • Military environmental response operations
  • Port operations, security, and defense
  • Peacetime military engagements
  • Coastal sea control operations.
216
Q

The volunteer organization, known today as the Coast Guard Auxiliary,
was created on ____ ___ _____ by the Coast Guard Reserve Act of 1939.

A

June 23, 1939

217
Q

Training in five branches is available to Auxiliarists:

A
  • Seaman (Boatswain’s Mate, Coxswain)
  • Artificer - Radio
  • Artificer - Engine Room Force
  • Aviation (Pilot and Machinist’s Mate)
  • Special Branch (Yeoman, Storekeeper, and Pharmacist’s Mate).
218
Q

Today’s Auxiliary is organized into four units:

A
  • Flotilla
  • Division
  • District Regions
  • National.
219
Q

On _____ __ ____, the U.S. Coast Guard was officially transferred to
DHS.

A

March 1, 2003

220
Q

The Coast Guard’s homeland security role includes the following:

A 
Safeguard
Maintain
Ensure
Protect
Coordinate
221
Q

Twin sisters Genevieve and Lucille Baker of the Naval Coastal
Defense Reserve become the first uniformed women to serve in the
Coast Guard.

A

1918

222
Q

The first five African-American females enter the SPARs
(Semper Paratus Always Ready Women’s Reserve):
4 Olivia Hooker
4 D. Winifred Byrd
4 Julia Mosley
4 Yvonne Cumberbatch
4 Aileen Cooke.

A

1945

223
Q

On November 1, Master Chief Yeoman Jack Kerwin becomes

the first Coast Guard E-9.

A

1958

224
Q

Alex P. Haley retires as Chief Journalist after serving in World
War II and Korea.

A

1959

225
Q

Master Chief Yeoman Pearl Faurie becomes the first SPAR E9.

The Pearl Faurie Leadership Award is established in her honor

A

1962

226
Q

On August 1st, BMCM Charles L. Calhoun was instated as the

First Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard (E-10).

A

1969

227
Q

The first women’s Reserve Enlisted Basic Indoctrination
classes are established. Four ratings are available:
4 Yeoman
4 Storekeeper
4 Radioman
4 Hospital Corpsman.

A

1972

228
Q

The following events occur in ____:
4 Legislation ends Women’s Reserve
4 Women are integrated into active duty and Coast Guard Reserve.
4 Women are admitted to Officer Candidate School for the first time.
4 Combat exclusion for women ends.
4 The first SPAR to be sworn into the regular Coast Guard is Alice
Jefferson.

A

1973

229
Q

All officer career fields and enlisted ratings are open to women.

A

1978

230
Q

Enlisted women are assigned to isolated units.

A

1981

231
Q

The Chief Petty Officer Academy Class I consists of ___
MCPOs and ____ SCPOs who lead the way for future generations of
CPOs to attend the Coast Guard’s premier enlisted leadership
institution.

A

1982; 6; 4

232
Q

Master Chief Boatswain’s Mate Donald H. Horsley, USCG
retires in January. He serves on active duty for 44 years, four months,
and 27 days. His career spans three wars, and sees service on board 34
vessels.

A

1987

233
Q

The first enlisted woman is assigned to Officer-in-Charge afloat
billet: Dianne Bucci. The first African-American female and first
female engineer to advance to E-7 is Pamela Autry. The first Asian
American female Warrant Officer is appointed: Grace Parmalee.

A

1988

234
Q

The first enlisted woman is assigned as Officer-in-Charge

ashore: Krystine Carbajal.

A

1989

235
Q

Operation Desert Shield begins with 14 women Reservists

serving in the Persian Gulf.

A

1990

236
Q

The first Hispanic American female is advanced to E-7: Sonia

Colon.

A

1992

237
Q

The history of the Coast Guard actually begins on August 4, 1790 with the
ten cutters

A

Vigilant, Active, General Green, Massachusetts, Scammel,

Argus, Virginia, Diligence, South Caroline, and Eagle

238
Q

The revenue Cutter Service and the U.S. Life Saving Service merged on
_______ ___ ____, creating today’s Coast Guard.

A

January 28, 1915

239
Q

was a two-time winner of the Gold Lifesaving

Medal.

A

Frederick Hatch

240
Q

single-handedly rescued ten people from the

grounded ship, Priscilla, on August 18, 1899.

A

Surfman Rasmus S. Midgett

241
Q

A Report of Survey is prepared on Form

A

CG-5269

242
Q

A micro purchase for the acquisiotn of

supplies shall not exceed _________

A

$3,000.00

243
Q

A micro purchase for the

acquisition of services shall not exceed $______

A

2500.00

244
Q

PRs for construction requests are

limited to $_______.

A

$2,000

EPME (1 decks)

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