Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPME > EPME > Flashcards

EPME Flashcards

1
Q

What is Article 7?

A

Apprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Article 15?

A

Impose NJP by CO/OINC, also has 5 days to appeal punishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three types of court-martials?

A

General (Judge and 5 members)
Special (Judge and 3 members)
Summary (One member, LCDR or above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Article 31?

A

Right to remain silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Article 91?

A

Insubordinate conduct towards an officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Article 92?

A

Failure to obey an order or regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When standards of conduct come into question, what are the three categories that your limitations and responsibilities fall into?

A
  1. EMI (not be used as a substitute for CM or NJP) – or deprive a person of entitled liberty hours
  2. Withholding of privileges 3. Search and seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When may search and subsequent seizure of items occur?

A

A. When probable cause exists

B. When probable cause is not required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does court-martial 315 limit?

A

Puts limitations on search and seizure procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In order to perform probable cause searches, what duties must a petty officer be doing?

A

MP, Guard, Shore Patrol, Investigative duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Under 315, who must grant a search authorization?

A

Commanding Officer or judge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is court-martial law 314?

A

Enlisted personnel must be in the performance of military law enforcement duties in order to conduct searches and seize property or evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is court-martial law 316?

A

Any evidence obtained as a result of these searches is admissible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many formal reasons for discharge?

A

14 reasons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Standards of conduct are described in?

A

5 C.F.R Part 2635

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Under Article 15 how many days does a member have to appeal punishment?

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who has the authority to assign EMI after normal working hours?

A

Commanding Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many leadership competencies are there?

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four leadership competencies?

A

Leading Self Leading Others Leading Performance and Change Leading the Coast Guard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 7 competencies for Leading Self?

A
  1. Accountability & Responsibility
  2. Followership
  3. Self-Awareness
  4. Aligning Values
  5. Health and Well-Being
  6. Personal Conduct
  7. Technical Proficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 6 competencies for Leading Others?

A
  1. Effective Communications
  2. Influencing Others
  3. Respect for Others & Diversity Management
  4. Team Building
  5. Taking Care of People
  6. Mentoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 6 competencies for Leading Performance and Change?

A
  1. Customer Focus
    2. Management and Process Improvement
  2. Decision Making and Profile Solving
    4. Conflict Management
    5. Creativity and Innovation
    6. Vision Development and Implementation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 9 competencies for Leading the Coast Guard?

A

“1. Stewardship
2. Technology Management
3. Financial Management
4. Human Resource Management
5. Partnering
6. External Awareness
7. Entrepreneurship
8. Political savvy
9. Strategic thinking
“

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three levels of diversity management?

A

Personal Interpersonal Organizational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Maslow’s Hierarchy of Human Needs?

A 
"Self-Actualization 
Esteem
Love/Belonging
Safety
Physiological
"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 7 administrative remarks for CG-3307?

A
  1. Accession
    2. Assignment and transfer
    3. Advancement and Reduction
  2. Performance and Discipline (33 types)
    5. Separation
  3. Selective Reenlistment Bonus
  4. SELRES Enlisted Bonus Programs
    “
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens to the original CG-3307?

A

It is filed in the PERSRU PDR and a copy is mailed to CDR (CGPC-adm-3) for electronic imagining into HQ PDR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Supervisors must counsel evaulee no later than how many days beyond end of marking period?

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many days does a member have to appeal marks?

A

15 Calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Marks must go from the supervisor to the marking official in how many days?

A

No later than 9 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Within how many days must the supervisor council the subordinate?

A

Within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Marks must be submitted how many days before the end of the marking period?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Unsatisfactory conduct marks, or 1,2,7, must be supported by what?

A

Must be supported by an adverse remarks entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unsatisfactory conduct marks must be assigned for any member who is_____?

A

Awarded NJP, convicted at court martial, convicted in civil court, financially irresponsible, not supporting dependents, involved in alchol incident, fails to comply with civilian and military rules/regs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an approving official’s decision on advancement?

A

An AO decision on advancement is final and cannot be repealed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When are E-2 evaluations done?

A

January-July

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When are E-3 evaluations done?

A

February- August

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When are E-4 evaluations done?

A

March - September

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When are E-5 evaluations done?

A

April - October

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When are E-6 evaluations done?

A

May - November

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When are E-7 evaluations done?

A

September

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

From E2 to E5, how much time must a member spend in each paygrade?

A

Six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

From E5 to E6, how much time must a member spend in rate?

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

From E6 to E7, (and then to E8 and E9), how much time must a member spend in rate?

A

Two years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the minimum active service requirement for an E8?

A

Ten years, minimum active service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the minimum active service time for E-9?

A

Twelve years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When is a special employee review required?

A

Regardless of the time since the last employee review, a special employee review is done on the date a member is awarded a NJP or convicted by courts-martial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three Reserve Component Categories?

A

Ready Reserve
Standby Reserve
Retired Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the Ready Reserve consist of?

A

The Ready Reserve consists of reservists who are liable for immediate recall to active duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the Ready Reserve include?

A

Selected Reserve (SELRES)
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
Standby Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What manual contains all information and requirements concerning the enlisted advancement?

A

CG Personnel Manual - Chapter 5, Section C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the CG Personnel Manual cover on enlisted advancement?

A

Policy, procedures, and requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

For authorized traditional college courses less than 18 weeks in length, when is tution paid?

A

Tuition is paid up front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

For courses, 18 weeks or more, when is tuition paid?

A

Tuition is reimbursed upon completion of the course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who is eligible for the CG Foundation Enlisted Education Grant program?

A

Active duty, pay grades E-3 to E-9 > two years AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the CG Foundation Enlisted Education Grant program cover?

A

Tuition costs not covered by TA. (assessment fees, application fees, admin/book fees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why should you ensure accuracy in Direct Access?

A

Selection panels for command screenings, CWO promotion boards, CC selection panels, Block 14 of the DD-214 Certificat of Release from AD lists all the military education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is SEAS II?

A

Search, Examine, Arrest, Seize, Inspect, Inquire - 14 U.S.C., Section 89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What cites that the U.S Coast Guard is a military service?

A

Title 14, USC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the 7 steps of ORM?

A 
"1. Define mission tasks.
2. Identify hazards. (equipment, environment, personnel) (PEACE)
3. Assess - (SPE risk = severity x probability x exposure) (GAR)
4. Identify options. (STAAR)
5. Evaluate risk vs. gain
6. Execute decision.
7. Monitor situation.
"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many degrees is the CG Racing Stripe?

A

64 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is in the PDE?

A
  1. CO Recommendation 2. Awards received 3. Evaluations 4. Sea Time 5. TIS, TIR 6. EOC results 7. Eligibility 8. Competency codes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why was the Justification for Other than Full and Open Competition (JOTFOC) written?

A

To restrict competition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If “sole source” procurement is the only way to meet the CG’s needs, what needs to accompany the PR?

A

Justification for Other than Full and Open Competition (JOTFOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is required if the product costs more than $3000?

A

Provide single source of supply and price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the micro purchases for PRs?

A

Construction $2000 Services $2500 Supplies $3,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A report of survey (CG Form 5269) is not required for property less than?

A

$500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is CG Form 5269?

A

Report of Survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Speed of Service message What is Routine ( ) ? How many minutes?

A

SOS Routine (R) - 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Speed of Service message What is Priority ( ) ? How many minutes?

A

SOS Priority (P) - 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Speed of Service message What is Immediate ( ) ? How many minutes?

A

SOS Immediate (O) - 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Speed of Service message What is Flash ( ) ? How many minutes?

A

SOS Flash (Z)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is SMART?

A

Specific Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is LEAPS? (Effective Communications)

A

Listen Empathize Ask
Paraphrase Summarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is SAPP?

A

Security
Accuracy
Policy
Property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When is a member never eligible for reinstatement on their GTCC?

A

180 days past due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

After how many days is a GTCC account cancelled?

A

101 days past due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When is the GTCC account suspended?

A

61 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

At 31 days, what is the status of the GTCC account?

A

Account is delinquent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When is the GTTCC account classified as past due?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a confined space?

A

Tanks, voids and unvenilated spaces are classified as confined spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the three characteristics of a classified space?

A
  1. Limited or restricted means for entry or exit. 2. Not designed for continous human occupancy. 3. Large enough for an employee to enter and perform work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When is double hearing protection required?

A

Noise levels above 105 db are present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Whose permission do you need for working over the side?

A

Commanding Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Who must clear a confined space prior to entry?

A

Gas free engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the USCG’s traditional wartime role?

A

Augment the U.S Navy with cutters and manpower, embark on special missions utilizing CG skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When were all lighthouses federalized and funds were appropriated for lighthouses, beacons and buoys?

A

August 7, 1789; the Lighthouse Service was under the Department of Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When was the Quasi War with France?

A

May 28, 1798

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When did the Petty Officer rate become official in the Navy?

A

1808

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What Revenue Cutter participated in the War of 1812?

A

Revenue Cutter Jefferson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Who captured the first war prize in the War of 1812?

A

Revenue Cutter Jefferson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When did the CG first use shallow draft craft?

A

War of 1812

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When did Congress first create a timber reserve for the Navy?

A

1822

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When was the Petty Officer rate assigned a rate insignia with a sleeve device?

A

1841

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When did Congress declare war on Mexico?

A

May 13, 1846

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When did Mexico declare war on the U.S?

A

May 23, 1846

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When did specialty and rating marks become official?

A

1866

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When did the U.S purchase Alaska and why?

A

1867, to enforce seal hunting regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When was the Life-Saving Service reborn, and under whom?

A

1871; Sumner L. Kimball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When did the U.S Navy begin to recognize 3 classes of Petty Officers?

A

1885

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When did Petty Officers begin to wear rate insignias with chevrons pointed down under a spread eagle and rating mark?

A

1886

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What cutter made the first recorded narcotics seizure, and when?

A

U.S Revenue Cutter Wolcott, August 31, 1890

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When did the U.S Navy establish the Chief Petty Officer rate?

A

April 1st, 1893

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When did Spain declare war on the U.S?

A

April 24, 1898

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What lead to the Refuse Act of 1899?

A

Environmental protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What two agencies were charged with the enforcement of the Refuse Act of 1899?

A

Army Corp of Engineers and Revenue Cutter Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What did Surfman Rasmus S. Midgett receive for rescuing ten people from the grounded ship, Priscilla?

A

Gold Lifesaving Medal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What missions are a part of Maritime Security?

A

Drug Interdiction, Migrant Interdiction, Defense Readiness, PWCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the three fundamental roles of the Coast Guard?

A

Maritime Security, Maritime Safety, Maritime Stewardship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the two missions that fall under Maritime Safety?

A

Search and Rescue

Marine Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the five missions that fall under Maritime Stewardship?

A 
Ice Operations
ATON
Marine Environmental Protection
Living Marine Resources 
Other law enforcement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Where was Ida Lewis a lighthouse keeper?

A

Lime Rock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Who was the U.S President when the Lifesaving Service merged with the Revenue Cutter Service?

A

President Woodrow Wilson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

When was the U.S Coast Guard transferred to the U.S Navy?

A

WWI, 1917

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

During the War of 1812, what was the first prize captured?

A

British Merchant vessel Patriot, captured by Revenue Cutter Jefferson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

During the War of 1812 the nation’s revenue cutters primary wartime mission was to ___________________.

A

Supporting and augmenting the Navy with its shallow-draft cutters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the characteristics of a Class A mishap?

A

Reportable property damage $2,000,000 or greater.
A missing CGC, or abandoned.
Fatality or permanent total disability.
CG small boat has reportable property value of $100,000 or more and is missing or abandoned, recovery is impossible or beyond economic repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which two mishaps are most serious and warrant a formal Mishap Analysis Board?

A

Class A and Class B mishaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which mishaps are less serious and do NOT warrant a formal Mishap Analysis Board?

A

Class C and Class D mishaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the characteristics of a Class B mishap?

A

Reportable property damage is less than 2,000,000, but greater than $500,000.
Permanent partial disability
Five or more personnel are “in-patient” hospitalized.
CG small boat incurs repairable damage of $100,000 or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the characteristics of a Class C mishap?

A

Reportable damage greater than $50,000, less than $500,000.
Nonfatal injury that results in loss of time from work.
CG small boat incurs repairable damage of more than $50,000, but less than $100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are the characteristics of a Class D mishap?

A

Cost of non-aviation property damage is greater than $5,000, but less than $50,000.
Aviation mishaps where cost of property is less than $50,000.
Nonfatal injury that does not meet the criteria for class C mishap.
Man Overboard, accidental firearm discharge, electric shock that doesn’t meet the criteria of higher classification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Why are mishap investigations conducted?

A

To determine why a mishap occurred in order to prevent similar mishaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Who appoints Class A and B mishap analysis boards?

A

Commandant (CG-113)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How are Class C and D mishap analysis boards normally conducted?

A

At the unit level with a Unit Safety Board.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What dollar value is each mishap?

A

A – 2 million or higher
B – $500,000 or more, but less than 2 million
C - $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000
D - $5,000 or more, but less than $50,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

When was the Homeland Security Act implemented?

A

November 25, 2002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is an E-8 in the Marines?

A

Master Sergeant or First Sergeant

129
Q

What is an E-8 in the Army?

A

Master Sergeant or First Sergeant

130
Q

What is an E-7 in the Marines?

A

Gunnery Sergeant

131
Q

What is an E-7 in the Army?

A

Sergeant First Class

132
Q

When was the Department of Navy established?

A

1798

133
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service captured 18 prizes and assisted in 2 others during which war?

A

Quasi War

134
Q

Which CGC forced the surfacing of a German submarine using depth charges and a 3” deck gun?

A

CGC Icarus

135
Q

Which CGC sank an enemy submarine by ramming it, causing severe damage to the CGC?

A

CGC Campbell

136
Q

In late 1943, which CGC tracked a submarine through a convoy?

A

CGC Spencer

137
Q

German submarines deliberately sank 3 American vessels propelling the U.S into which war?

A

WWI

138
Q

What year did the U.S Coast Guard absorbed the Lighthouse Service?

A

1939

139
Q

Where is the only manned lighthouse located?

A

Boston Harbor Light

140
Q

During the Quasi War, the RCS captured 18 prizes, which cutter is credited with 10 of those captures?

A

Pickering

141
Q

Which cutter ran aground when battling the British vessel Dispatch and continued to fight from shore?

A

CGC Eagle

142
Q

In which war did the CGC Eagle recapture the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable from the French?

A

Quasi War

143
Q

In Aug-Sep 1917, what were the six CGC to deploy to Gibraltar?

A 
Ossipee
Seneca
Yamacraw
Algonquin
Manning 
Tampa
144
Q

What cutter was torpedoed by a German sub on Sept. 26, 1918?

A

CGC Tampa

145
Q

In which war was a higher percentage of CG personnel killed than any other service?

A

WWI

146
Q

When was the Coast Guard given responsibility for cold-weather operations in Greenland?

A

April 9, 1941

147
Q

When did the Coast Guard make the first naval capture of WWII? And which cutter did it?

A

September 12th, 1941 made by CGC Northland

148
Q

How did the CGC Northland happen to make the first naval capture of WWII?

A

On April 9, 1941, the Coast Guard was given responsibility for coldweather
operations in Greenland. This function continued throughout the
war. The Coast Guard made the first U.S. naval capture of the war on
September 12th. The cutter Northland took the Norwegian trawler Boskoe
into “protective custody” and captured three German radiomen ashore.
The Germans were attempting to set up weather stations in Greenland.

149
Q

The present day CG was established in what year?

A

1915

150
Q

What event prompted the creation of the International Ice Patrol?

A

Titantic

151
Q

The bulk of men’s hair can be no longer than how many inches?

A

1.5 inches

152
Q

What is the first ORM task?

A

Define mission task.

153
Q

What is the second ORM task?

A

Identify hazards.

154
Q

What is the third ORM task?

A

Assess risk.

155
Q

What is fourth ORM task?

A

Identify Options.

156
Q

What is the fifth ORM task?

A

Evaluate Risk vs. Gain

157
Q

What is the six ORM task?

A

Execute decision.

158
Q

What is the seventh ORM task?

A

Monitor situation.

159
Q

What is the only competency on EERs that is not a number?

A

Conduct

160
Q

What did they called the community leader that lead the lifesaving service stations?

A

Wreckmaster

161
Q

How many CG districts are there?

A

9

162
Q

In what year did the Coast Guard transfer from DOT to DHS?

A

2003

163
Q

How many HQ units are there in the field?

A

35

164
Q

The petty officer rate became official in what year?

A

1808

165
Q

In what year did petty officers begin wearing a rate insignia on their sleeve?

A

1841

166
Q

Coast Guard SELRES members are generally authorized how many paid IDT drills and ADT days per fiscal year?

A

48 IDT drills/12 ADT days

167
Q

Which Reserve component consists of individuals who have previously served on active duty?

A

Individual Ready Reserve

168
Q

Are IRR members required to meet the same IDT and ADT training requirements as Selected Reservists?

A

No

169
Q

What does the Standby Reserve consist of?

A

Reservists who are not in the Ready Reserve or the Retired Reserve, but are liable for involuntary recall to active duty.

170
Q

What are SELRES and IRR?

A

Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reserve

171
Q

Who is required to train for mobilization as prescribed in 10 USC 10147?

A

Members within the Ready Reserve

172
Q

10 USC 10147 states that the Ready Reserves are required to do what?

A

Train for mobilization

173
Q

I was the first commissioned officer
in the Revenue Cutter Service. I received my commission from President Washington on 21 March
1791. I was the Master of Revenue Marine Cutter (RMC) Scammel. The sister ship to the Scammel was the RMC Massachusetts which
was the first cutter built. Who am I?

A

Captain Hopley Yeaton

174
Q

I was a member of the U.S Life-Saving Service in a town called Hull, MA. During the last 13 years of my life, I participated in rescues that saved 540 lives. I was 76 when I died and was buried in a surfboat. Who am I?

A

Joshua James

175
Q

I was the co-pilot of the U.S. Navy’s NC4
(which was an old Curtiss #4), which was one of four planes that made the first transatlantic
flight, from the U.S. to Europe, in 1919. My transatlantic trip was not a solo or non-stop
flight; Charles Lindbergh has that claim, but it was the first flight across the Atlantic. I also pioneered CG aviation search and rescue during WWI. Who am I?

A

LT Elmer Stone

176
Q

Who was the first SPAR?

A

Captain Dorothy C. Stratton

177
Q

How many battle streamers does the CG have, and where are they displayed?

A

43 battle streamers are on the CG Standard

178
Q

When did the CG Seal/Emblem become official?

A

1927

179
Q

The CG Emblem evolved into a simplification of what?

A

CG Seal

180
Q

What is used
for official documents and records of the Coast Guard? It is also used on
invitations, programs, certificates,
diplomas and greetings.

A

CG Seal

181
Q

It evolved into a simplified version of the seal and was created as a visual identifier for the CG. It is used on the CG ensign.

A

CG Emblem

182
Q

The CG adopted battle streamers in 1968 following the practice established by what military service?

A

U.S Marines

183
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the CG Standard to replace what?

A

Cords & tassels

184
Q

What do the 13 stars and 13 stripes on the CG Shield represent?

A

The original 13 colonies.

185
Q

Which CG units may display a complete set of battle streamers?

A

Major HQ commands

186
Q

What does the presence of a Commissioning Pennant mean?

A

Its presence indicates that a CG cutter is under the command of a commissioned or warrant officer.

187
Q

When was the commissioning pennant created and where is it flown from?

A

1799 and it is flown from the main mast 24/7.

188
Q

What items can the CG Seal be used on?

A

Official documents, and records. Also invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas and greetings.

189
Q

Where is the CG emblem used?

A

The emblem is used on the Coast Guard Ensign.

190
Q

Where is the CG Racing stripe used?

A

Ships, boats, aircraft, stations, vehicles, signs and forms.

191
Q

When did the CG Racing stripe become official?

A

6 April 1967

192
Q

When was the first CG Seal/Emblem created?

A

1927

193
Q

In what year did the CG Emblem become separate from the CG Seal and begin to appear on the CG Ensign?

A

1957

194
Q

What is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S laws?

A

CG Ensign

195
Q

Give four characteristics of the CG Ensign.

A
  1. Never carried as a parade or ceremony standard.
  2. Created in 1799
  3. On CGC, flown 24/7, in port or underway.
  4. Flown from the Main Mast.
196
Q

When the American Flag is flown from a vessel or facility what is it called?

A

National Ensign

197
Q

When the American flag is carried by foot, what is it called?

A

Colors

198
Q

When was the CG’s commissioning pennant created?

A

1799, same time as the CG Ensign.

199
Q

What does the CG commissioning pennant mean?

A

Its presence indicates that a CGC is under the command of a commissioned or warrant officer.

200
Q

What appears on the CG Racing stripe?

A

CG Emblem

201
Q

The rectangular blue part of the U.S flag containing the stars in the form of a flag is what?

A

Union Jack

202
Q

When a vessel is moored or at anchor, what two flags are flown from 0800 to sunset?

A

National Ensign (from the stern) and Union Jack (from the bow)

203
Q

What allows you and your dependents to register and vote absentee in federal elections?

A

Uniformed and Overseas Citizen Voting Act

204
Q

What Work-Life specialists are available to consult in suspected cases of family violence or child neglect?

A

Family Advocacy Specialist

205
Q

Who can assist a member and their dependents in voting registration and materials?

A

Unit voting officer

206
Q

Can you make monetary contributions to a political organization or committee favoring a particular candidate?

A

Yes

207
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-1?

A

Second LT

208
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-2?

A

First LT

209
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-3?

A

Captain

210
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-4?

A

Major

211
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-5?

A

LT Colonel

212
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-6?

A

Colonel

213
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-7?

A

Brigadier General, one star

214
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-8?

A

Major General, two star

215
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-9?

A

LT General, three star

216
Q

Army, AF, Marines O-10?

A

General, four star

217
Q

Army, E-1 and E-2?

A

Private

218
Q

Army, E-3?

A

Private 1st Class

219
Q

Army, E-4?

A

Corporal

220
Q

Army, E-5?

A

Sergeant

221
Q

Army, E-6?

A

Staff Sergeant

222
Q

Army, E-7?

A

Sergeant First Class

223
Q

Army, E-8?

A

Master Sergeant/First Sergeant

224
Q

Army, E-9?

A

Sergeant Major

225
Q

Marine, E-2?

A

Private First Class

226
Q

Marine, E-3?

A

Lance Corporal

227
Q

Marine, E-4?

A

Corporal

228
Q

Marine, E-5?

A

Sergeant

229
Q

Marine, E-6?

A

Staff Sergeant

230
Q

Marine, E-7?

A

Gunnery Sergeant

231
Q

Marine, E-8?

A

Master Sergeant/First Sergeant

232
Q

Marine, E-9?

A

Master Gunnery Sergeant/Sergeant Major

233
Q

A Master Sergeant in the Army is equivalent to what rank in the CG?

A

Senior Chief

234
Q

Why did Congress create a timber reserve for the U.S Navy?

A

To protect the environment, and the cutting of live oaks on public lands, the President used the Revenue Cutter Service.

235
Q

What rank is the U.S Surgeon General?

A

Vice Admiral

236
Q

What does Part V of the Manual for Courts Martial state about mast reps?

A

Mast reps may do the following:

  1. Question witnesses
  2. Submit questions to ask witnesses
  3. Make statements geared to the CO.
  4. Make a plea for leniency.
  5. Mast rep may solicit and submit statements regarding member’s reputation, extenuating or mitigating circumstances.
237
Q

What does CG Policy say about communications between mast reps and the accused?

A

Communications between the accused and mast rep are privileged in the same way communications are between attorney and client.

238
Q

What is a Preliminary Inquiry Officer (PIO)?

A

A member of the command designated by the XO to conduct an inquiry based on offenses alleged on a CG-4910.

239
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Preliminary Inquiry Officer? (PIO) (PG E7-27)

A
  1. Make sure the CG-4910 is completed.
  2. Review the suspected offenses.
  3. Question witnesses and collect any documents or other evidence.
  4. PIO should obtain written statements from each witness.
  5. Complete the PIO report on the CG-4910.
240
Q

What happens to the completed CG-4910?

A

Forwarded to the XO.

241
Q

What recommendations may the PIO suggest?

A
  1. Captain’s Mast (NJP)
  2. Trial by court-martial
  3. Dismissal
  4. Administrative Action - negative 3307 entry.
242
Q

What are the 3 goals of the CG Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A
  1. Reduce alcohol and substance abuse by CG members.
  2. Detect and separate those who abuse drugs.
  3. Facilitate rehab for those who may remain on active duty.
243
Q

Where are Addiction Prevention Specialists assigned?

A

Maintenance and Logistics Commands (MLC)

244
Q

In regards to alcohol/substance abuse, who receives the Prevention-based Education Program?

A
  1. Recruits
  2. Officer candidates
  3. Direct commission officers
  4. Cadets
245
Q

What is an alcohol situation?

A

An occurrence where alcohol is involved or present, but is not the causative factor for a member’s undesirable behavior or performance.

246
Q

An alcohol incident may include any of the following behaviors:

A
  1. Member is unable to perform duties
  2. Brings discredit upon the Uniformed Services
  3. Is a violation of the UCMJ, Federal, State or local laws.
247
Q

What must happen for something to be considered an alcohol incident?

A

Alcohol must be consumed to be considered an alcohol incident.

248
Q

What happens after the first incident disposition?

A

Member will be screened.

249
Q

What happens after the second incident disposition?

A

Member must be screened and the command may commence discharge procedures if the following applies:

  1. It is a 2nd incident
  2. Diagnosed as alcoholic and drinks after receiving treatment.
  3. Violates aftercare plan.
250
Q

What are the three levels that the CG provides on alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation?

A

Level 1: Awareness Education
Level 2: Outpatient/Intensive Outpatient
Level 3: Residential Rehabilitation Programs

251
Q

What is Antabuse?

A

A nontoxic drug that interferes when the body metabolizes alcohol. When Antabuse users drink alcohol, they experience flu-like symptoms.

252
Q

When are romantic relationships between members unacceptable?

A

Members are assigned to the same unit with less than 60 members.

253
Q

What kinds of units are under LANT/PAC AREA?

A

MLC, Districts, Cutters

254
Q

How many HQ units are there?

A

35 units

255
Q

What is an example of an alcohol situation?

A

Someone purchases alcohol for a minor.

256
Q

What is it called when alcohol is involved or present but not cause of undesirable behavior?

A

Alcohol situation

257
Q

Which flag does the CG Ensign fly under on a vessel’s mast?

A

Commissioning Pennant

258
Q

What are the dimensions of the Commissioning Pennant?

A

2 1/2” x 72”

259
Q

When is the Union Jack flown aboard cutters?

A

When the cutter is anchored is moored.

260
Q

An alcohol incident occurs when the CO determines that the use or abuse of alcohol is a significant or causative factor resulting in at least one of what three things?

A
  1. Loss of ability to perform duties.
  2. Discredit upon the Coast Guard.
  3. Any violation of the law.
261
Q

Who is responsible for establishing unit prevention plans and giving annual alcohol awareness training?

A

Command Drug & Alcohol Rep (CDAR)

262
Q

What actions are taken in response to an alcohol situation?

A

Members are counseled concerning their abuse of alcohol and receive a CG-3307 in the member’s PDR.

263
Q

What 3 requirements must members meet for residential rehabilitation?

A
  1. Are formally evaluated and diagnosed as alcohol dependent by an MD.
  2. Require rehabilitation on a full-time, live-in basis for 4-6weeks.
  3. Receive CO approval by showing potential for continued CG service.
264
Q

What is the continuous, systematic process identifying and controlling risks in all activities according to a set of preconceived parameters by applying appropriate management policies and procedures?

A

Operational Risk Management (ORM)

265
Q

Under ORM, what are the four decision-making principles?

A
  1. Accept no unnecessary risk.
  2. Accept necessary risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
  3. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
  4. ORM is just as critical in executing as well as in planning all activities.
266
Q

What are the two risk assessment models?

A

GAR and SPE

267
Q

What are the two programs that contribute to accident reduction?

A

Mishap Prevention Program and ORM

268
Q

How is the GAR (Green, Amber, Red) model used?

A

A command can use the GAR Model to assess the overall operation or mission.

269
Q

How is the SPE (Severity, Probability, Exposure) model used?

A

Use SPE after using the GAR model. If one or more elements appears unusually high, a second assessment can be done using the SPE model for each area of concern.

270
Q

What six elements does the GAR model incorporate?

A
  1. Supervision
  2. Planning
  3. Crew selection
  4. Crew fitness
  5. Environment
  6. Event/Complexity
271
Q

Who are the key persons in the mishap prevention process?

A

Supervisors

272
Q

How many major Coast Guard HQ directorates report to the Commandant?

A

15 HQ directorates

273
Q

Who are the 15 major CG HQ directorates that report to the Commandant?

A 
Acquisition
Deepwater
JAG
Planning Resources and Procurement
Maritime Domain Awareness
Human Resources
Intel
Engineering and Logistics
Command, Control, Comms, Computers and Information Technology (C4IT)
Marine Safety and Environmental Protection
Operations
274
Q

Who is the Marine Safety, Security and Environmental Protection Program (G-M) protecting, through prevention and mitigation of maritime incidents?

A

Public
Environment
U.S economic intrests

275
Q

What was Maritime Domain Awareness (CG-7M) developed in response to?

A

MDA was developed in response to the establishment and implementation of the U.S Northern Command. (NORTHCOM)

276
Q

What is the Office of Maritime Domain Awareness responsible (CG-7M) for?

A

The MDA office is responsible for creating policy and oversight of CG missions relating to response to a domestic incident, tracking potential man-made and natural threats to national security or safety.

277
Q

What is the Chief Office of Law Enforcement and Defense Operations(G-O) responsible for?

A

Chief Office of Law Enforcement and Defense Operations is responsible for:

  1. Enforcement of laws and treaties
  2. Defense Operations
  3. Intelligence
  4. Investigations
  5. Security
  6. Management of all CG aircraft and cutters.
278
Q

What is the Office of Intelligence (CG-2)responsible for?

A

Direct, coordinate and oversee intelligence and investigative operations and activities that support:

  1. All CG mission objectives
  2. National Strategy for Homeland Security
  3. National Security Objectives
279
Q

What does the MCPO of the Coast Guard serve as?

A

Program manager for Commandant designated CMCs and co-program manager for enlisted professional and career development with the Director of Reserve and Training (CG-13)

280
Q

Define rate, as stated in the EPME manual.

A

Used for enlisted pay grade in law (14 USC Chapter 11 Sec. 532)

281
Q

Define rating, as stated in the EPME manual.

A

The correct term for an enlisted member’s occupational specialty.

282
Q

Why was the Chief Petty Officer Rating created?

A

After the merger between RCS and LSS, Petty Officers and Surfmen got into a power struggle, so CPO was created.

283
Q

When did the 55th U.S Congress approve and establish the Coast Guard’s CPO grade?

A

May 18, 1920

284
Q

Who were the first CG Chiefs?

A

Former station keepers of the Life Saving Stations, given the title Chief Boatswains’ Mate (CBM) with an L for “Lifesaving” attached to their rate to distinguish them from their seagoing counterparts.

285
Q

What law established the two pay grades, E-8 and E-9, and when?

A

Public Law 85-422, May 1958

286
Q

When were SWE held for Chiefs?

A

August 5, 1958

287
Q

Who initiated the first Senior Enlisted Advisory Team (SEAT) and conducted a cursory review of Public Law 85-422?

A

MCPOCG Patton (ret) and SEAT members realized that Public Law 85-422 was out of date with CG missions. Senior Enlisted Needs Assessment (SENA) was created.

288
Q

What was the Senior Enlisted Needs Assessment (SENA)?

A

The first known comprehensive analysis of E-8 and E-9 ranks.

289
Q

What are the three roles CPOs have within the Coast Guard?

A

Leader, Mentor, Tech expert

290
Q

When is full dress uniform worn?

A

Year-round when assuming or relinquishing command, participating in COC ceremonies, official visits with honors, occasions of state, ceremonies, weddings, solemnities.

291
Q

When is tropical blue long worn?

A

Year-round, at all occasions, where coat and tie are not required nor expected or on official business

292
Q

Describe the regulations for women’s earrings.

A

Plain gold or silver with a shining or brushed matte finish, plain diamond, or natural white pearl ball studs, 4-6mm(1/8 to 1/4in) in diameter with all uniforms.

293
Q

How wide is a tie bar allowed to be?

A

3/16” wide, and must be concealed when wearing the service dress blue coat.

294
Q

Describe regs for cufflinks and shirt studs.

A

Cufflinks are to be plain gold, or CG related. Shirt studs are to be plain gold or plain natural white pearl.

295
Q

When ODU sleeves are rolled up, how many inches wide should the cuffs be, and how far should they be above the elbow?

A

Cuffs should be 3” wide and 2” above the elbow.

296
Q

For men, hair cannot exceed how many inches in bulk?

A

1.5” in bulk, 4” in length

297
Q

Men’s hair above the ears and around the neck is to be tapered from
the lower natural hairline upwards at least ____ inch.

A

3/4”

298
Q

Women’s hair bulk cannot exceed _____

A

2”

299
Q

Women’s fingernails cannot extend ___ beyond fingertip

A

1/4”

300
Q

Men’s facial hair cannot exceed___.

A

1/4”

301
Q

A mast representative’s testimony may include ______________.

A

The reputation of the member at the unit, extenuating and mitigating circumstances.

302
Q

If, during the course of the inquiry, the PIO becomes aware of a new or different offense, what must they do?

A
  1. The PIO must inquire into the new or different offense.

2. Should make a recommendation concerning the disposition of the new or different offense(s).

303
Q

What are the five categories that master, senior and chief petty officer performance evaluation factors are grouped into?

A 
Military
Performance
Professional Qualities
Leadership
Conduct
304
Q

What is a benefit of Zero Based Budgeting?

A
  1. Eliminates a sense of entitlement to cost increases.
  2. Fosters improved cost containment
  3. Promotes increased discipline in developing budgets.
  4. Encourages more meaningful budget discussions during planning and reviewing sessions.
305
Q

________ is an unplanned or unsought event or series of events that may result in death, injury, or occupational illness to CG and non-CG personnel as a result of a CG operation.

A

Mishap

306
Q

What percent of mishaps are due to the unsafe acts of people?

A

88%

307
Q

What percent of mishaps are due to unsafe conditions not identified or corrected by people?

A

10%

308
Q

In what war did 8 cutters, carrying 43 guns join Rear Admiral William Sampson’s North Atlantic Squadron?

A

Spanish-American War

309
Q

In what war did cutter McCulloch, carrying six guns and manned by 10 officers engaged in the battle of Manila Bay.

A

Spanish-American

310
Q

What did CGC serve as the escort and dispatch boat with Commodore George Dewey’s Asiatic Squadron?

A

CGC McCulloch

311
Q

When did the CGC Hudson and torpedo boat USS Winslow engage in battle with Spanish gunboats?

A

May 11, 1898, Cardenas Bay, Cuba

312
Q

What is the acronym MAB?

A

Mishap Analysis Board

313
Q

What type of budgeting does the CG employ?

A

Zero Based Budgeting

314
Q

Is a Report of Survey required for property that is lost, damaged, or destroyed?

A

Yes

315
Q

How many miles of the U.S Coastline is the Coast Guard charged with protecting?

A

95,000 miles

316
Q

Who was the first commissioned officer to serve in the Revenue Cutter Service?

A

Hopley Yeaton

317
Q

What insignia was attached to Chief’s rating badges when the RCS and LSS merged?

A

The letter “L”

318
Q

What titles were Chiefs first given?

A

Chief Boastwain’s Mate (CBM)

EPME (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions