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EPME 2023 > EPME 2023 > Flashcards

EPME 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

Where Should Coast Guard voluntary educational Services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ESO(after completion of a degree or certificate program, members shall ensure a copy of their transcript is sent to ETQC, in accordance with REF (C). Official transcripts must list the type of degree, date of degree, and date of completion/conferment. Paper copies must be sent in a sealed envelope by the institution to USCG ETQC Registrar’s office 300 E. Main St. STE 1202, Norfolk, VA 23510 or transmitted securely to ETQC-SMB-RO@uscg.mil

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2
Q

Resgistrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

Local ESO

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

COMDTINST 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted to for final review?

A

A complete TA application must be received by ETQC no less than 14 days before teh class start date. Do not include the submission date to ETQC or the class start date in the 14 day calculation. There are no exceptions or waivers to this policy.

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT waiver request guide be found?

A

FORCECOM Portal Page, ETQC voluntary education services

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Education Assistance Act is also known as the?

A

Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

What is the cut of date for receiving the Forever GI Bill benefits

A

01 January 2013 (As long as your service ended after this date your GI bill benefits do not expire.)

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8
Q

Under the Post 9/11 GI Bill as long as you are enrolled at 1/2 time or more you are eligible to qualify for BAH with dependents at what Rate?

A

E-5

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9
Q

The Montgomery GI Bll provides up to ___ months of education benefits?

A

36 Months

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10
Q

The Gi Bill comparison tool offers information based on which of the following benefits?

A

Th VA is making it easier to research colleges and employers approved for the GI bill. Answer just a few questions about yourself and the school/employer you are considering. You’ll receive an estimate of your GI bill benefits and some information about the facility’s value and affordability.

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11
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & apprenticeship training programs may use their GI bill benefits to receive ___ of the applicable housing stipend.

A

80%

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12
Q

In which of the following cases is TA(Tuition Assistance) authorized?

A

TA is authorized active duty(AD) and selected reserve(SELRES) military members, AD Officers, permanent Full and Part time Government Service(GS) and Wage Grade(WG) employees.

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13
Q

One purpose of the ___ _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication, and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

Advanced EductionProgram

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14
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education Program?

A

Carry a full credit hour load year round at the respective institution.

Act as Coast Guard liaison to the institution with regard to their attendance.

Liaise with the educational institution’s Military Advocate.

Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements.

Maintain academic proficiency throughout the program.

Complete program of study’s requirements in the allotted time.

Maintain Military/Coast Guard requirements and standards

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15
Q

Who acts as a subject matter expert to assist members with voluntary education programs?

A

ESO

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16
Q

What are the four firearm safety rules?

A

Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
Always maintain proper muzzle control
Know your target and what is beyond it
Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance from E-2 to E-3?

A

6 months in grade
graduation of a class A school

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18
Q

The ___ and ASVAB are different versions of the same battery of tests.

A

Armed Forces Classification Test(AFCT)

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19
Q

Class A School graduates who have held advancement to E-4 held due to receiving “UNSAT” conduct while attending the course are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 months

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path from E-3 to E-4?

A

Investigator(IV)
Diver(DV)

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21
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

RFMC portal/sharepoint page

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22
Q

Where are the A School rating requirements listed?

A

Performance, Training, and Education Manual COMDTINST 1500.10(series)

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23
Q

Which stress management term is defined as bad stress?

A

Distress

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24
Q

Good stress is related to which stress management term?

A

EUSTRESS

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25
Q

What is the body’s non-specific response to a y demands placed upon is, or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?

A

Stress

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26
Q

What are stressors?

A

The causes of stress(transfers, deadlines, personal problems, etc.)

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27
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a persons personal stress load?

A

Operational Stress Control

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28
Q

The services provided by the ___ are available for professional assistance with stress management.

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator(EAPC)

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29
Q

Which stress management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?

A

Operational Stress Control

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30
Q

How can you contact EAP(Employee Assistance Program)?

A

CG SUPRT App, Email, or by phone
1-855-CGSUPRT(247-8788)

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31
Q

Who is eligible for the work life stress management program?

A

Active Duty, Reserve, Civilian Employee, and family members

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32
Q

Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.

A

Emotional, cognitive, behavioral, physiological, and spiritual responses.

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33
Q

The national institute of mental health(NIMH) offers which as an example of how to manage stress?

A

Meditation, Muscle Relaxation, Breathing Exercises

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34
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

Provide Training, Education, treatment, and Administrative Processing Resources in support of Coast Guard’s policy governing Substance use, abuse, and chemical dependancy .

35
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAA) low risk guidelines suggest that zero drinks is the low risk option when ___?

A

Driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications.

36
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

0-1-2-3 model consuming no more than 1 drink per hour, 2 drinks per occasion, never exceeding 3 drinks, and zero drinks while driving or if underage.

37
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low risk drinking guidlines?

A

www.rethinkingdrinking.NIAAA.NIH.GOV

38
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

Raise awareness of substance abuse issues.

39
Q

What is one responsibility of the Command Drug and Alcohol Representative(CDAR)?

A

Promote responsible attitudes towards the use of alcohol.
Ensure a unit alcohol abuse prevention plan is developed
Afford treatment and educational opportunities

40
Q

What is the Substance abuse Prime for Life training used for?

A

Primary intervention
Evidence based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misuse.

41
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

The use of a substance by a member which causes other performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community problems, or places the members safety at risk.

42
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism(NIAAA) as an individuals BAC increases the risk of ___ increases>

A

Injury

43
Q

According to the NIAAA, drinking too much over time can increase your risk of ___, ___, ___, and other illnesses.

A

Stroke, Cancer, Liver disease

44
Q

According to the NIAAA more than ___ people die from alcohol related causes in the United States each year.

A

140,000

45
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol will ___.

A

Increase your risk of having or developing an Alcohol use Disorder(AUD)

46
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

More than 4 drinks per any one occasion, or more than 14 drinks per week.

47
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

More than 3 drinks on any one occasion or 7 drinks in a week.

48
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings one’s BAC to what percent or higher?

A

0.08 BAC
5 or more drinks per 2 hours

49
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication in which a person is slightly impaired?

A

0.03-0.05

50
Q

BAC associated with a person being impaired?

A

0.08

51
Q

BAC associated with a person being sloppy drunk?

A

0.16

52
Q

BAC associated with stupor or blackout?

A

0.30

53
Q

BAC associated with risk of coma or death?

A

0.40

54
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is?

A

Vomiting while passed out
cannot wake up
cold hands
pale skin
slow breathing

55
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience ____?

A

School, social, legal, physical problems
Unplanned pregnancy
Violence
Hindered brain development

56
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks when drinking alcohol?

A

Women of equal size and weight to man will still have a higher BAC from the same amount of alcohol putting them at greater risk for the associate problems.

57
Q

What is a standard drink for 80proof alcohol?

A

1.5 oz

58
Q

How many grams of alcohol is in a standard drink?

A

14 grams
.6 fluid oz
1.2 tbsp

59
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 oz

60
Q

How many ounces of beer in a standard drink?

A

12 oz

61
Q

Using the BAC calculator a 150 lb male who consumed 3 oz of 40% alcohol in 1 hour will have a BAC of ___?

A

.08 to .09

62
Q

Across the US a BAC of ___ or higher is proof of a DUI without further evidence.

A

.08

63
Q

A medical professional must preform and analysis and diagnosis for potential ___ upon the commission of an alcohol incident or referral.

A

Alcohol use Disorder(AUD)

64
Q

A member diagnosed within the first ___ days of service in the CG as a drug /alcohol abusive or dependent person is physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180 days

65
Q

Which of the following is required for self referral for potential substance abuse?

A

A request made to a chaplain, command, cdar, saps, or health care provider.

66
Q

Which policy states the Coast Guards policy on tobacco use and abuse?

A

It is CG policy to discourage all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from environmental tobacco smoke(ETS), unsanitary conditions created by the use of spit tobacco, and potential addiction to nicotine products.

67
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

A

Intentional use of a controlled or prohibited substance by an AD or reserve member without a valid prescription, or in a manner not in concurrence with a valid prescription.

68
Q

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?

A

unlawful use of a prohibited substance to include drugs, pr prescription medication without a valid prescription.

69
Q

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?

A

knowingly and unlawfully including but not limited to trafficking, distributing, importing or exporting controlled substances.

70
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and ____.

A

scientifically analyze the samples to detect the presence of controlled/prohibited substances or the metabolytes.

71
Q

Which of the following would be a consequence of a drug incident?

A

civilian or military conviction

72
Q

Which term is defined as self inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or without intent to die?

A

Self inflicted unintentional death

73
Q

What term is defined as a self inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill themselves.

A

Suicide related behaviors

74
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide related behavior may occur in the near future?

A

Suicide related communication

75
Q

What term is defined as a self inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence either explicit or implicit of an intent to die.

A

Undetermined suicide related behavior

76
Q

Self harm with no injury is reported as?

A

Self harm level 1

77
Q

Self harm with injury is reported as?

A

Self harm level 2

78
Q

Self harm resulting in death is reported as?

A

Self harm level 3

79
Q

Suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as/

A

Suicide attempt level 1

80
Q

Suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as?

A

Suicide attempt level 2

81
Q

Suicide attempt resulting in death is reported as?

A

Suicide level 3

82
Q

What term is defined as any self reported thoughts of engaging in suicide related behaviors?

A

Suicide related Ideations

83
Q

What would be the cause to report self harm level 3 to the suicide prevention program?

A

Protect lives, enhance treatments, discover actionable intelligence.

84
Q

What term is defined as a self inflicted potentially injurious behavior where the intent is unknown?

A

undetermined suicide behavior

EPME 2023 (1 decks)

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