EPME Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast guard voluntary education services inquiries to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil - The SMB

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2
Q
A
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3
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

JST

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4
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program? 

A

COMDINST 1540.10 - Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program

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5
Q

Where are tuition assistance waiver submitted for final review?

A

The ESO will forward the waiver package to ETQC for final review and approval

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6
Q

Where can I link to the ASVAB ACT waiver request guide be found?

A

Voluntary education service portal page > bottom of page > under course support and testing links

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7
Q

In which of the following cases is tuition assistance authorized for?

A

Authorized for courses leading to the first certificate, associate, bachelor, and masters degree

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8
Q

The Harry W Colmery veterans educational assistance. Act is also known as the what?

A

Forever G.I. Bill

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9
Q

Under the post 911 G.I. bill, a veteran enrolled it more than 1/2 time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DOD‘s basic allowance for housing rate for a _____with dependents

A

E-5

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10
Q

The Montgomery, G.I. bill active duty provides up to how many months of education benefits?

A

36

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11
Q

The G.I. bill comparison tool offers information based on which of the following G.I. bill benefits?

A

Tuition and housing benefits

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12
Q

Veterans in their second six months of OTJ and apprenticeship training programs may use their G.I. bill benefits to receive ______ of the applicable monthly housing stipend?

A

80%

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13
Q

One purpose of the ______ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication in the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard

A

Advanced education

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14
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the advanced education program?

A

Maintain military and Coast Guard requirements and standards

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15
Q

Who acts as the subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

Education services Officer (ESO)

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16
Q

What are the four firearm safety rules?

A

Treat all firearms as if they are loaded, always maintain proper muzzle, control, keep finger off the trigger till on target and ready to shoot, know your target and what is beyond it.

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E3?

A

Six months in pay grade E2 or satisfactory completion of class “A” course

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18
Q

The _______ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests

A

AFCT

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19
Q

Class “A” course graduates who had their advancement to E4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving UNSAT conduct while attending a class “A” course are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being in advanced?

A

Six months

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E3 to E4?

A

Investigator rating or diver rating

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21
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

Ratings open to striking change based on service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message as ratings are opened or closed for striking

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22
Q

Where are a school rating requirements listed?

A

COMDTINST M1500.10C

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23
Q

Which stress management term is defined as bad stress?

A

Distress

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24
Q

Good stress is related to which stress management term?

A

Good stress, perceived as positive and associated with a sense of control

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25
Q

Which term is defined as the nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?

A

Stress

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26
Q

What are stressors?

A

The causes of stress

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27
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?

A

Stress map: a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load

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28
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard stress management program as what?

A

The nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it, or what you feel after you encounter a stressor

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29
Q

The services provided by the ______ are available for professional assistance with stress management

A

Employee assistance program coordinator EAPC

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30
Q

Which stress management, awareness, and skills training for Munson, understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress. Navigation tools to build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?

A

Operational stress control

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31
Q

How can you contact the employee assistance program?

A

1855CGSUPRT or www.cgsuprt.com

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32
Q

Who is eligible for the office of work life stress management program?

A

Active duty and dependents, reservists, civilian employees

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33
Q

Identify a signal of distress, which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents

A

Spiritual distress, physiological, behavioral, cognitive, emotional

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34
Q

The national Institute of mental health in NIMH offers, which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Be observant, recognize signs of your bodies response to stress.

Talk to your healthcare provider or a health professional to get proper healthcare.

Get regular exercise.

Try a relaxing activity.

Set goals and priorities.

Stay connected and keep in touch of people who can provide emotional support and practical help .

Consider a clinical trial .

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35
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program?

A
  1. Raise awareness of substance abuse issues.
  2. Encourage teach and support low risk guidelines for alcohol use
  3. Provide periodic prevention training.
  4. Support commands.
  5. Outline zero tolerance for drug and substance misuse and abuse.
  6. Support mission readiness
  7. Align with other policy.
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36
Q
A
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37
Q

The national Institute of alcohol, abuse and alcoholism low risk guidelines Suggest that zero drinks is a low risk option when_____

A

Driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

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38
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low risk drinking guidelines?

A

https://www.rethinkingdrinking.nia.nih.gov/

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39
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the substance abuse prevention program

A

Provide direction, oversight, and supervision of SAPS’s

Advise commands on the availability of education, treatment, rehabilitation resources, and procedures to obtain them

Process all requests self command and incident, referrals for drug and alcohol rehabilitation

Approved selection of the medical screening provider

Oversee implementation and maintenance of support and aftercare plans

Liaison with unit commanding officers, other military services, state and federal programs and local civilian treatment facilities as appropriate

Established track and maintain PQS for SAPS

Complete annual health insurance portability, and accountability act training related to substance abuse patient records

Ensure SAPS complete an annual HIPAA training

Participate in headquarters, sponsored teleconference, meetings, and work groups related to SAP program

Assigned each SAPS an area of responsibility with oversight for CDAR assigned to that area of responsibility

Supervise field operation of the electronic data collection system as designated by commandant

Provide quality assurance, standards, and oversight to the SAPs

Over CSAPS compliance with all applicable policies and procedures

Establish and maintain collaborative and effective communication pathways

Informed the SAM of all issues affect affecting program implementation

Produce reports for CG 1111

Advocate for the needs of the SAPS in the SAP program she

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40
Q

What is one responsibility of a command drug and alcohol representative CDAR?

A

Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of commanding officer notification of a potential substance related abuse issue

Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command

Collaborate with SAPS to prepare the appropriate administrative remarks CG3307

Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training

Prepare in prominently, display prevention awareness, materials

Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance, abuse, screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans

Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment

Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment

Collaborate with the APS to develop support and aftercare plans

Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the commanding officer

Provide updates to the SAPS for all members involved

Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records

Provide substance abuse, prevention training, minimally, one time per year

And act and annually review with the unit seven steps to an effective command prevention program

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41
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

Substance abuse, which includes the abuse or dependents on alcohol or drugs, as a brain disease. Substance abuse, independency are on a continuum or constellation of symptoms. Addiction and all of its forms, including gambling, affects, not only the effective member, but also society, family, friends, coworkers, and commands

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42
Q

What is considered substance abuse?

A

The use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over-the-counter compounds, or any substance that is used to change the mood or induce a high that causes cognitive behavioral or physiological impairment problems

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43
Q

According to the national Institute on alcohol, abuse, and alcoholism, as an individuals, BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases

A

Harm

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44
Q

According to the national Institute of alcohol abuse, drinking too much overtime can raise your risk for cancer, liver disease, and_____?

A

Heart disease: Cardiomyopathy, Arrhythmias, Stroke, High blood pressure

Steatosis

Alcoholic hepatitis

Fibrosis

Cirrhosis

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45
Q
A
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46
Q

According to the national Institute on alcohol, abuse and alcoholism, more than _______ people die from alcohol related causes of the United States each year

A

95,000

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47
Q

Being able to hold your liquor or having a high tolerance for alcohol is____

A

Not protection from alcohol problems, but instead of reason for caution. An increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder.

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48
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

Five drinks for men in about two hours

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49
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

Four drinks for women in about two hours

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50
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

0.08 or higher

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51
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

0.08

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52
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being sloppy drunk?

A

0.16

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53
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?

A

0.30

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54
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

0.40

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55
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is_______

A

Passes out and cannot be awakened

Vomiting while passed out

Cold clammy and/or pale skin

Breathing is slow and irregular

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56
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 OZ

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57
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a standard drink?

A

14 grams

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58
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 oz

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59
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 oz

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60
Q

Using the BAC calculator what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consume 3 ounces of 40% alcohol over one hour?

A

0.05

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61
Q

Across the United States, a recorded blood alcohol content test of ____ or higher Alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.

A

0.08

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62
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral

A

AUD (alcohol use disorder)

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63
Q

A member diagnosed with the first ____ days of Coast Guard service as drugs and alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment

A

180 days

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64
Q

Which of the following is required for self referral for potential substance abuse?

A

A request must be made to a chaplain, command, CDAR, SAPS, or healthcare provider

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65
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

A

No current prescription (within six months), or verified medical use explanation for drugs that would count for the positive analysis result.

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66
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample and _______

A

Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs

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67
Q

Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?

A

Administrative action

Disciplinary action

Medical treatment

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68
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit or intent to die?

A

Suicide

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69
Q

What term is defined as self-inflicted potentially dangerous behavior for which there is evidence either in person or explicit that the person did not intend to kill him or herself?

70
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there’s evidence either explicit or implicit of intent to die

A

Suicide attempt

71
Q

For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm with no injuries reported as________

A

Self harm level one

72
Q

For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm with injuries reported as_______

A

Self harm level two

73
Q

For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program self harm, resulting in death is reported as_______

A

Self harm level three

74
Q

For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide attempt, resulting an injury is reported as____

A

Suicide attempt level two

75
Q

For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide attempt, resulting in no injury is reported as______

A

Suicide attempt level one

76
Q

What would be the cause to report a self harm level three in the suicide prevention program?

77
Q

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide related behavior?

A

Suicide related ideations

78
Q

What term is defined as self-inflicted, potentially injurous behavior, intent unknown?

A

Undetermined suicide related behavior

79
Q

Dismissing ______as manipulation is one of the shortest ways to increase suicide risk

A

Suicidal ideation

80
Q

And one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _________at some point in their lives

A

Episode of suicidal thinking

81
Q

What are any impersonal acts of importing, conveying or transmitting suicide related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?

A

Suicide related communications

82
Q

What type of suicide related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide related behavior?

A

Suicide plan

83
Q

What type of suicide related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide related behaviors?

A

Suicide plan

84
Q

Which of the following is part of the pneumonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associate with suicidal behavior?

A

IS PATH WARM
Ideation
Substance use
Purposefulness
Anxiety
Trapped
Hopeless
Withdrawal
Anger
Recklessness
Mood changes 

85
Q

What pneumonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

ACE
Ask
Care
Escort

86
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

87
Q

During the ______step of suicide prevention, you should actively listen

88
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is an important to not promise confidentiality?

89
Q

During which step of suicide prevention, should you encourage the person to seek help?

90
Q

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

91
Q

During which step in suicide prevention, will you adopt an attitude that you were going to help the person and that this will save his or her life?

92
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room HCP or mental healthcare professional?

93
Q

If you ask a person, are you thinking about killing yourself and they make a joke of the question what should you do?

A

Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious

94
Q

If a person indicates he or she has thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

A

How-does he or she have a plan?
Situation -is he or she alone?
History -prior attempts

95
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

A

Coast Guard employee assistance program coordinator

The national suicide prevention lifeline

Employee assistance program 24/7 Phone Center

http://www.uscg.mil/ work life /suicide prevention

Local Coast Guard medical clinic

Healthcare provider

Unit independent duty health services technician

Hospital emergency room

Coast Guard, Chaplin

96
Q

Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as an emergency contraceptive?

A

Copper IUD

97
Q

Which form of birth control is included in tier one for effectiveness

A

Implant
Vasectomy
Tubal occlusion
IUD

98
Q

STDs can be passed from one person to another _______ ,though this is not very common

A

Through intimate, physical contact like heavy petting

99
Q

Most people do not have symptoms when they have which STD?

A

Genital herpes

100
Q

Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?

A

Abstinence

101
Q

Which personnel are required to develop personal fitness plans?

A

All Coast Guard active duty and selected reserve members

102
Q

Who do you submit your completed personal fitness plan to?

A

Supervisor

103
Q

When must your completed personal fitness plan be submitted?

A

In April and October

104
Q

The most current personal fitness plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by______

A

Member and supervisor

105
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for General health has set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate intensity aerobic activity per week?

A

150 minutes of moderate intensity, aerobic activity

106
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for General health as set forth by the CDC include muscle strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week

A

Two or more days a week

107
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outline in their personal fitness plan and a minimum ______per week

A

180 minutes

108
Q

Is strongly recommended that the personal fitness plan include ______minutes per week of cardio respiratory activity

A

150 minutes

109
Q

It is strongly recommended that the personal fitness plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training

110
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are accumulative exercise sessions may vary in length with a minimum of ______minutes in order to be beneficial

A

10 minutes

111
Q

In general physical activity session should be spread out over at least how many days per week?

A

Three days

112
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect as measured by a _______level of intensity

A

Medium to vigorous

113
Q

According to the CDC adult ship performed 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity of what level of intensity?

A

Moderate intensity

114
Q

What is the form number for the personal fitness plan?

A

CG – 6049

115
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature involve_____

A

The acceptance of some level of risk

116
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error induced mishaps if not managed?

A

Seven critical human factors:
Mission analysis
Leadership
Adaptability
Flexibility
Situational awareness
Decision-making
Communication assertiveness

117
Q

Deliberate use of the risk management process ______by reducing member exposure to hazards

A

Increase mission success

118
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify or warrant the_______

A

Expected risk exposure

119
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assessed hazards, evaluate the risk level and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

The risk management process

120
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time critical risk management requirement and expedite response actions?

121
Q

When is risk management most effective?

A

Risk management is most effective when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate an implement mitigation and controls to reduce risk exposure

122
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the risk management process is________

A

Continuous and adaptive

123
Q

Where are the steps of risk management described?

A

“Risk management steps and actions” and “risk management process”

124
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analysis on an as needed basis when new missions and activities are introduced to a unit?

A

Risk assessment matrix

125
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew endurance

126
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to_______

A

Address unique operational realities

127
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

PEACE (planning, event, complexity, asset, communication, communications, and environment)

STAAR (spread out, transfer, avoid, except, and reduce)

128
Q

_______ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

129
Q

________ is defined as a process to identify assess control mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operational activity

A

Risk management

130
Q

How many actions are there in the “assess hazards” step in the risk management process?

131
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step of the risk management process?

A

Identify hazards (mission analysis, what can go wrong analysis, why analysis)

132
Q

What are captured in the GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?

A

PEACE and STAAR

133
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?

134
Q

What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?

135
Q

What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and or control risk?

136
Q

Which models were used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command assist decision-making and encourage robust risk management?

A

PEACE and STAAR

137
Q

Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?

A

PEACE and STAAR

138
Q

What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personal personnel to hazards?

139
Q

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?

A

Unit, commanders, commanding officers, and officers in charge

140
Q

When are Coast Guard owned motor vehicles authorized to transport, spouses and dependents?

A

Motor vehicles are authorized to transport, an employee, spouse, and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited, and the employee is participating in an official capacity

141
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a Coast Guard owned motor vehicle?

A

Official purposes

Ceremonies

Non-Coast Guard employees, in official capacity

Military recruits

Official travel

142
Q

Transportation of a members dependent would be authorized in a Coast Guard owned motor vehicle in which case?

A

Unofficial function to which the spouse independent were invited, and that employee is participating in an official capacity

143
Q

Only government employees that possess a _______ state, territorial or district of Columbia, drivers license or permit permitted to operate a motor vehicle.

A

Current and unrestricted

144
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic, mishaps caused by operator fatigue commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when signing long distance driving duties to personnel who have been on duty within the previous_______ hours

145
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mess steps caused by operator fatigue members must not exceed_______ hours of combine duty hours and driving hours

146
Q

Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle vehicle?

147
Q

Personal convicted of a serious moving violation operating a government motor vehicle must_______

A

Complete a driver improvement course

148
Q

What term is defined as the process or steps involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments for an individual or family?

A

Personal financial management

149
Q

The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances

A

Personal financial readiness

150
Q

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individuals or families income, expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to what Chief financial goals and ensure individual family and mission readiness?

A

Financial planning and counseling

151
Q

The personal financial management program PFMP consists of how many elements?

A

7
Education and training, counseling, information and referral, command, financial specialist program, outreach, collaboration, and coordination, CG support personal financial wellness program

152
Q

Commands with at least_____ personnel assigned, must have a trained command financial specialist

153
Q

What is the early withdrawal penalty tax for the thrift saving plan?

154
Q

The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down______ categories, based on level of compliance

A

3
Action required, attention recommended, informational

155
Q

What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?

A

Update your contact information and Direct Access to include your preferred email address

156
Q

If your personal readiness data in CGBI needs corrections select the_____ icon in the top right corner of the skills tab

A

Get more information

157
Q

What is a purpose of the EES?

A

To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members

To inform a list of members of the performance standards

To provide a means by which list of members can receive feedback

To capture a valid reliable assessment of a list of members performance for advancement purposes

To provide the postcard with a total support, a wide variety of human resources decisions, including discharges, reenlistments conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments, and reductions and rate

To provide members of boards and panels with a necessary information to make selections

158
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluation responsibility in the EES?

A

Familiarization
Performance
Evaluation input
Acknowledgment
Verification

159
Q

A new period of eligibility for the good conduct award begins_____

A

The day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct Mark was awarded

160
Q

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report____

A

May not be appealed to an appeal authority

161
Q

Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?

A

First flag officer and chain of command

162
Q

What is the definition given in the recruit training master pamphlet for effective communication?

A

An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group

163
Q

What are the common barriers to effective communication?

A

-External barriers(physical, ambient noise, distracting movement, language)
-Perpetual barriers (past experience, stereotypes, emotional blocking, social status)

164
Q

How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Active listening
Paraphrasing
Clarifying

165
Q

What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?

A

Parroting
Paraphrasing
Clarifying

166
Q

What is one type of listening for effective communication?

A

Active
Reflective

167
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?

A

Be specific into the point, express exactly what happened?

168
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?

A

Try to be open minded and receptive. Don’t be defensive.

169
Q

What is the Coast Guard definition of leadership?

A

The ability to inspire others to achieve a common goal

170
Q

The Coast Guard leadership development framework consists of_______ categories of leadership and competencies

A

4
Leading self, leading others, leading performance and change, leading the Coast Guard

171
Q

How do you access and view your payslip?

A

Employee – view – view my payslips – select specific date