EPME Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil

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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

Transcripts and degree plan processing

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

COMDTINST 1500.10 (series)

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

ETQC (Education and Training Quota Management Command)

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?

A

CG Portal

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.

A

Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.

A

E-5​

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.

A

36

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Post-9/11 GI Bill, Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty, Montgomery GI Bill-Selected Reserve

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.

A

80%

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11
Q

In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?

A

Courses leading to the first certificate, associate, bachelor’s, or master’s degree

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12
Q

One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication, and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

Advanced Education

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13
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?

A

Maintain academic standards set by the program

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14
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

Education Services Officer (ESO)

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15
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.

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16
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

Never point a firearm at anything you are not willing to destroy.

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17
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

Keep your finger off the trigger until you are ready to fire.

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18
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

Be sure of your target and what is beyond it.

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19
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

Completion of E-2 Enlisted Professional Military Education (EPME) performance requirements​

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20
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

Completion of E-3 EPME performance requirements and completion of “A” School or striking program

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21
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests.

A

Armed Forces Classification Test (AFCT)

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22
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 months​

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23
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Investigator (IV)

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24
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Musician (MU)

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25
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
COMDT (CG-1) website or the CG Portal under “Striking Program.”
26
Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
The ETQC (Education and Training Quota Management Command) website and the CG Portal.
27
Which stress management term is defined as "bad" stress?
Distress
28
"Good" stress is related to which stress management term?
Eustress
29
Which term is defined as "the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor"?
Stress
30
What are stressors?
Situations, events, or environments that trigger stress responses.
31
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stress-O-Meter
32
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed upon it.
33
The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
34
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?
Stress Navigation Training
35
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
By calling 1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or visiting www.CGSUPRT.com
36
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
Active duty members, reservists, civilians, and their dependents
37
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents:
(examples include): Difficulty sleeping Irritability or anger Emotional numbness Confusion or disorientation Physical symptoms like headaches or fatigue
38
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Exercise regularly Connect with others Practice relaxation techniques Get enough sleep Set realistic goals Take breaks Talk to a professional
39
Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress?
All of the above strategies mentioned (healthy lifestyle, support systems, professional help)
40
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Promote readiness and resiliency by preventing substance misuse and abuse
41
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low-risk option when _____.
Operating a vehicle, pregnant, underage, or taking medications that interact with alcohol
42
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
The 0-1-2-3 model (0 drinks for certain individuals, 1 drink per hour, 2 drinks per day max, 3 days a week max)
43
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) website or CG Work-Life Office
44
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
To prevent and reduce substance abuse and its negative impact on readiness
45
What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
Educate members on substance abuse policies and assist with referrals
46
What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?
Early intervention and education for individuals at risk for substance abuse
47
One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.
Promote health, safety, and mission effectiveness
48
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of any substance in a manner that deviates from legal or medical guidelines and causes harm
49
What is considered substance abuse?
Use of illegal drugs or misuse of prescription or over-the-counter drugs
50
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.
Accidents, injuries, and poor decision-making
51
Drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
Heart disease
52
More than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
140,000
53
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
A warning sign of alcohol dependence
54
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 or more drinks in about 2 hours
55
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 or more drinks in about 2 hours
56
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08%
57
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.02–0.05%
58
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being "sloppy" drunk?
0.16–0.20%
59
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.20–0.30%
60
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.30% or higher
61
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
Slow or irregular breathing
62
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.
Academic problems, injuries, and risky behaviors
63
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
They generally have less body water to dilute alcohol
64
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
65
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams
66
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces
67
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 ounces
68
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150-pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?
Approximately 0.07% (Note: This is an estimate and varies by individual metabolism, food intake, etc.)
69
Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.08%
70
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
Substance Use Disorder (SUD)
71
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
72
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
Must occur prior to an incident and be made to a person in the member's chain of command or to medical personnel
73
Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
Tobacco use is discouraged and cessation resources are available
74
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
Taking someone else's prescribed medication
75
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
Using illegal drugs or misusing prescription medications
76
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
A verified positive urinalysis result
77
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and _____.
Ensuring sample integrity and accurate test results
78
Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
Mandatory administrative discharge from the Coast Guard
79
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide
80
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Non-suicidal self-injury
81
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide threat
82
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide attempt
83
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Self-harm Level 1
84
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
Self-harm Level 2
85
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
Suicide
86
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 2
87
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 1
88
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicidal ideation
89
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Self-inflicted injury with no suicidal intent, but requiring medical attention
90
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined self-directed violence
91
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal communications or behaviors
92
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
Episode of suicidal thoughts
93
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent known as?
Suicide-related communications
94
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide plan
95
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide plan (also sometimes referred to as “intent formulation”)
96
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM I – Ideation S – Substance abuse P – Purposelessness A – Anxiety T – Trapped H – Hopelessness W – Withdrawal A – Anger R – Recklessness M – Mood changes
97
_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Asking directly if someone is thinking about suicide
98
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
Expressing concern and willingness to help
99
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
A.C.E. – Ask, Care, Escort
100
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
101
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
102
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
103
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
104
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
105
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Escort
106
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
107
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
108
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
109
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again seriously and directly
110
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
Ask about their plan, means, and intent
111
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Health, Safety, and Work-Life Service Center or Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
112