Epilepsy and Multiple Sclerosis Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is a seizure and what is epilepsy?

A

A seizure is transient dysfunction of all or part of the brain due to excessive discharge of a group of neuron causing sudden and transient symptoms of a motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic nature. Seizures can be provoked or unprovoked.

Recurrent unprovoked seizures is epilepsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the incidence of epilepsy.

A

Incidence: peaks in early childhood and the elderly.

Prevalence: between 2.5 and 3% of the population has two or more seizures during their life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the symmetry that should (or shouldn’t) be seen on an EEG. What does an EEG measure?

A

The front of the brain should look different from the back but the left should look the same as the right. An EEG is a measure of extracellular current from the summed activity of many neurons. It mainly reflects summed excitatory and inhibitory input to pyramidal neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the categories of ILAE classification of seizures.

A
  • Mode of seizure onset: generalized, focal, unknown
  • Epilepsy syndromes: organized by age and onset, most epilepsy cannot be classified this way
  • Epilepsy etiology: genetic, structural or metabolic, unknown
  • Evolution of time: self limited or not, responsive to treatment or not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the types of seizure onset and how they spread.

A

Generalized seizures start deep in the center of the brain and spread to both sides. They can include cortical and subcortical structure but need not include the entire cortex. Both sides of the body do the same thing.

  • Absence: sudden arrest of activity, staring, unresponsiveness, eye flutter
  • Myoclonic: quick, symmetric muscle jerks
  • Tonic-clonic: grand mal seizure, generalized convulsion beginning with bilateral extension, stiffening, and then rhythmic shaking
  • Tonic: bilateral extension
  • Clonic: rhythmic shaking
  • Atonic: sudden loss of neck and trunk tone (falling)

Focal seizures can be with or without impairment of awareness and can evolve to bilateral convulsive seizure. They have different activity on the left and right side of the brain on an EEG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the appearance of focal seizures in different parts of the brain.

A

Frontal lobe onset:

  • Motor strip: clonic shaking of contralateral limb
  • Anterior to motor strip near midline: complex, bilateral, hyperactive motor activity that is not rhythmic
  • Broca’s area: expressive language dysfunction
  • Fronto-polar: arrest of activity, hypomotor

Temporal lobe onset: aura, arrest of activity, unresponsiveness, motor automatisms (useless reptitive motor activity that isn’t clonic)

Parietal lobe onset: sensory signs or signs based on propagation to other lobes, often clinically silent

Occipital lobe onset: visual signs may be present, propagates to temporal lobe, often clinically silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the various etiologies of epilepsy.

A
  • Genetic: presumed or proven
  • Structural/metabolic: can be acquired (stroke, trauma, infection, tumor) or developmental (cortical malformations)
  • Unknown

The age of onset typically correlates with different etiologies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is it important to decide if a seizure is focal or generalized?

A

Different drugs are used to treat each. About 60% of epilepsy is treatment response and some children can outgrow their seizures, perhaps due to changes in gene expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kinds of acute pathologies can provoke a seizure? What kinds of chronic pathologies cause seizures?

A

Acute: infection, metabolic, drugs, alcohol, trauma, stroke, tumor, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation, hemorrhage

Chornic: tumor, malformations of cortical development, mesial temporal sclerosis, genetic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Structural lesions or alterations to normal circuitry can cause seizures. What functional changes, acquired or developmental, cause seizures?

A

Acquired: drugs, metabolic, toxins

Developmental: channelopathies or synaptic alterations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the general principle behind epilepsy?

A

There is an imbalance between excitation and inhibition such that excitatory conditions predominate

  • Excitation: mossy fiber sprouting, changes in EAA receptors, presynaptic changes
  • Inhibition: GABA receptor change, loss of interneurons, change of interneuron activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is epileptogenesis?

A

The general process occurring in the brain before a patient develops spontaneous seizures after an insult. Acute damage leads to progressive damage which leads to hyperexcitability and seizures. Seizures lead to more progressive damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the relevance of the cortical network in epilepsy?

A

There is an excitatory center with an inhibitory surround and if the inhibitory surround is interrupted, the excitatory potential can spread and cause epileptiform activity. Depending on where this activity occurs, the symptoms differ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two mechanisms for focal seizures?

A

Paroxysmal depolarization shift: prolonged calcium depolarization leads to sodium mediated action potentials. Prominent after hyperpolarization is due to opening of calcium dependent potassium channels. This is the hallmark of partial onset seizures and is the cellular correlate of the focal interictal epileptiform spike–this is the “functional unit” of a seizure.

Sustained repetitive firing: mediated by voltage gated sodium channels is the mechanism of seizure generation. Does not require inward calcium current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the genetic mechanism for generalized seizures.

A

The mechanism for generalized seizures involves thalamo-cortical projections, specifically from intralaminar nuclei which have diffuse cortical connections and are capable of synchronizing cortical activity. Specifically, T-type calcium channels are responsible for burst synchronization and alterations in this system may cause some genetic forms of epilepsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does epilesy incidence peak?

A

Epilepsy peaks in children and then again in the elderly.

17
Q

Describe the mechanisms of early onset epilepsy.

A

The CNS of young children is in a more excitatory state in part because GABA is excitatory during development. During development, there is a high intracellular chloride concentration due to expression of NKCC1. GABA-A receptors permit chloride to flow out of the cell down its concentration gradient which depolarizes the cell. Later on, NKCC1 expression changes and NKCC2 is upregulated postnatally (extrudes chloride from the cell with potassium, so the chloride gradient is reversed) which causes GABA-A to become inhibitory.

Development is also a hyperexcitable state because NMDA is expressed and Mg is easily displaced (or not present) from the channel due to the depolarizing nature of GABA. AMPA is impermeable to calcium at this stage in development.

18
Q

What are giant depolarizing potentials?

A

GDP’s synchronize cortical development. They are believe to allow corteical networks to function together and if this activity is disrupted, the cortical networks may develop abnormally and lead to seizure like activity.

19
Q

How are drugs used to manage epilepsy?

A

Drugs are used to decrease the frequency or severity of seizures but does not treat the epileptic condition itself. Drugs do not prevent the development of epilepsy in individuals who have acquired a risk for seizures (head trauma, stroke, tumor, etc.). The goal is to maximize quality of life while minimizing seizures and adverse drug effects.

20
Q

What are the common mechanisms of action for antiepileptics?

A
  • Sodium channel blockers (inhibits sustained repetitive firing): used for focal epilepsy
  • GABA agonists (increase inhibitory transmission): used for both focal and generalized seizures
  • Calcium channel blockers (modulates T-type calcium channels to prevent abnormal thalamocortical interactions): used for absence seizures
  • Excitatory amino acid antagonists: blocks voltage dependent T-type calcium channels, antagonizes glutamate at AMPA or kainite receptor and may modulate NMDA receptor
  • Synaptic mechanisms: GABA reuptake inhibitors, increased GAD activity, synaptic vesicle binding
21
Q

What kind of surgical therapies exist for epilepsy management?

A
  • Resection of epileptic zone: for people who have failed three medications and have frequent seizures
  • Corpus callosectomy
  • Vagal nerve stimulator: implanted around left vagus nerve that gives intermittent stimulation
  • Brain stimulation: anterior nucleus of the thalamus is responsive to cortical stimulation possibly by disrupting thalamo-cortical interactions
22
Q

What alternative therapies exist for epilepsy management?

A
  • Ketogenic diet: increases GABA production, ketones are antiepileptic
  • Low glycemic index diet
  • Vitamin therapy (B6 is a cofactor for GABA production)
23
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

MS is a chronic primary demyelinating disease of the CNS which is characterized by axonal injury and episodic neurologic dysfunction. MS does not shorten life expectancy but causes disability.

24
Q

What is the etiology of MS?

A

The etiology of MS is multifactorial. There is a genetic predisposition and various immunogenic triggers that increase risk for development of MS (ex: EBV, HHV-6, Chlamydia pneumonie, mycoplasma).

25
Q

Describe the demographics of MS.

A

Most cases (90%) strike between 15 and 45 years old and the highest peak is between 25 and 35 years old. There is a 2:1 ratio of females to males affected by MS. Most people affected are of European or North American descent (MHC class II loci linkage). Incidence is also linked to regional virus prevalence.

26
Q

Describe the genetic risk for MS.

A
  • HLA-DR1501 (MHC class II allele on APCs) has the strongest association with MS (3x risk)
  • 49 susceptibility loci have been identified (multi-gene)
  • Risk in the US: 1/1000
  • Risk in first degree relatives: 1/25
  • Risk in fraternal twins: 1/25
  • Risk in identical twins: 1/3
27
Q

Describe the presentation of MS.

A

85% of patients present with relapsing remitting MS, 15% are primary progressive or progressive relapsing MS. Secondary progressive acts like relapsing remitting but turns into progressive.

  • Focal weakness: UMN monoparesis, hemiparesis, or paraparesis
  • Focal numbness or paresthesias in bands
  • Optic neuritis
  • Speech difficulties (dysarthria/slurring)
  • Lhermitte’s: flexion of neck which causes paresthesias
  • Uhthoff’s: symptoms exacerbated by overheating
  • Dyscoordination
  • Urinary symptoms: spasticity, frequency
  • Spasticity: often in legs
28
Q

Describe the natural history of MS.

A

After about 15 years, 50% of untreated patients need ambulatory aid. The majority of patients do not end up in a wheelchair and nearly all patients accept treatment. WIthin 15 years, about 50% of RRMS convert to progressive MS. Treatment with interferon increases natural history by about 30%.

29
Q

Describe the basic pathogenesis of MS.

A

A trigger in the periphery results in the production of autoimmune cells which make it into the CNS where they cause damage. Leukocytes penetrate the blood brain barrier and secrete inflammatory cytokines and are involved in the destruction of myelin. This results in demyelination, axonal injury, and brain atrophy.

30
Q

Describe early and chronic demyelination in MS.

A

MS lesions progress through an acute/subacute inflammatory phase with axonal injury, cellular infiltration, and later glial scarring.

Early inflammation precedes demyelination and axonal loss. Contrast enhancing lesions on T1 MRI represent acute inflammation (leakage of fluid and extravasation).

Chronic lesions do not respect a vascular distribution or boundary. Demyelination is seen as white on T2 MRI scan and axonal loss/gliosis are seen as black holes on T1 MRI.

The presence of both inflammation and gliosis on an MRI shows that demyelination is separated by time and space which is used as part of the diagnosis of MS.

31
Q

Describe the immunopathogenesis of MS.

A

A peripheral antigen activates B and T cells which enter the CNS and cause damage. The process is driven by T cells. No agent for molecular mimicry has been reliably identified. Potential self antigens include myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein, myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein, and myelin associated glycoprotein.

32
Q

What is axonal transection with respect to MS?

A

Proposed correlation of MS clinical course, axonal loss, and neurologic disability. RRMS converts to SPMS when the CNS can no longer compensate for neuronal loss. The CNS compensates during the relapsing remitting course of MS.

33
Q

How is MS diagnosed? What are the characteristic radiographic findings? What other information is used to make the diagnosis? What is evident in the image below?

A

Radiographic findings include lesions disseminated in time and space with periventricular ovoid lesions perpendicular to the ventricles (demyelination–Dawson’s fingers) due to increased water where myelin is disrupted.

An accurate history and neurologic exam are also important tools in making the diagnosis. Useful tools include MRI, evoked potentials, and LP (multiple IgG molecules)

Image: Dawson’s fingers

34
Q

Describe the classic syndrome of MS.

A
35
Q

What treatments exist for MS?

A

Treat or remove the inciting agents or stimuli

Mild: observe, reassure, treat symptoms

Moderate/severe: IV steroids, PT, treat symptoms

There are drug target sites being studied

36
Q

What can focal cortical dysplasia cause?

A

Focal epilepsy

37
Q

Are psychiatric co-morbidities common in neurological disease?

A

Yes

38
Q

Do behavioral disorder have an identified structural basis?

A

Maybe, maybe not