epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

AED of choice in pregnancy

A

Lamotrigine

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2
Q

AED associated with weight loss

A

Topiramate

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3
Q

AED that is neither an enzyme inducer or inhibitor and therefore does not have many drug-drug interactions

A

Gabapentin

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4
Q

Gene associated with GEFS

A

SCN1A

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5
Q

Rasmussens syndrome/Encephalitis

A
  • Progressive unilateral hemispheric atrophy
  • Focal cortical atrophy
  • Treat with hemispherectomy
  • Antibodies to GluR3 subunit of gluatamate receptor (AMPA)
  • Perivascular cuffs and lymhpocytes + monocytes, glial nodules –> spongy tissue degenration
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6
Q

AEDs that can be used in myoclonic epilepsy

A
  • Valproic acid (first line)
  • Keppra
  • Topiramate
  • Zonisamide
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7
Q

AED that is a hepatic enzyme inhibitor

A

Valproic acid

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8
Q

Benign EEG patterns

A
  • Small sharp spikes
  • 6 Hz spike and wave
  • Wicket spikes
  • 14 and 6 positive spies
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9
Q

Adult EEG frequencies

A

Beta >13 Hz
Alpha: 8-13 Hz
Delta: 4-7 Hz
Theta <4 Hz

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10
Q

AEDs that aggrevate absence seizures

A
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamazepine
  • Gabapentin
  • Lamotrigine
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11
Q

AEDs that interact with OCP (cause OCP failure)

A
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamazepine and oxcarb
  • Phenobarbital
  • Topiramate > 200 mg/d
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12
Q

JME

A
  • Onset 8-24 years of age
  • Hx of myoclonic seizures/feeling clumsy on awakening
  • 4-6 Hz polyspike and wave
  • Valproc acid first line
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13
Q

Benign rolandic epilspy with centrotemporal spikes

A
  • Onset 2-13 years
  • Self resolving
  • Nocturnal seizures
  • Carbamazepine first line (if needed)
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14
Q

Infantile spasms

A
  • EEG with hypsarrythmia (chaotic appearing EEG)

- ACTH first line

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15
Q

West syndrome

A

Triad of infantile spasms, hypsarrythmia, psychomotor arrest

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16
Q

AED that has zero order kinetics

A

Phenytoin. Metabolized in liver

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17
Q

Formula for determining IV bolus for AED

A

(Target total level- current total level) x (body weight in kg x volume of distribution of AED)

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18
Q

Side effects of valproic acid

A
  • Hepatitis/pancreatitis
  • Weight gain
  • Hair thinning
  • PCOS
  • Acne
  • Tremor
  • Thrombocytopenia
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19
Q

Side effects of carbamazepine

A
  • Dizziness, vertigo
  • Fatigue, drowsiness
  • Diplopia, nystagmus
  • HA, N, V
  • Hyponatremia
  • Ataxia
  • Rash, steven-johnsons syndrome
  • Aplastic anemia
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20
Q

AED that induces its own metabolism

A

Carbamazepine

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21
Q

Active metabolite of carbemazapine responsible for its side effects

A

10, 11 carbamazepine epoxide

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22
Q

Oxcarbazepine

A
  • Derivative of carbamazepine
  • Does not undergo oxidation to epoxide and thus has less side effects
  • No autoinduction
23
Q

Benzodiazepine mechanism of action

A

GABAa agonist leads to activation of chloride channel, hyperpolarization and decreased neuronal excitation

24
Q

AED with least cognitive side effect

A

Lamotrigine

25
Q

Topiramate side effects

A
  • Kidney stones, acute angle closure glaucoma (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
  • Paresthesias
  • Weight loss
  • Dizziness/fatigue
  • Word finding difficulty
26
Q

Lacosamide mechanism of action

A
  • Enhances slow activation of Na channels
  • Stabalizes hyperexcitable membrane
  • Interferes with CRMP-2 protien
27
Q

Rufinamide

A
  • Prolongation of inactive state of Na

- FDA approved for LGS

28
Q

Fencers posture/figure of 4 localization

A

Contralateral SMA to side of extended arm

29
Q

Aicardi syndrome

A
  • Infantile spasms
  • Chorioretinal lacunae blindness (pathognomic)
  • Agenesis of the corpus callosum
30
Q

Doose syndrome/ Myoclonic-astatic epilepsy

A
  • GTC/myoclonic/astatic seizures
  • EEG: Interictal bilateral synchronous irregular 2-3 Hz spike & wave complexes, pareital sythmic theta activity
  • Treat with Valproic acid
31
Q

Dravet syndrome

A
  • Severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy
  • FS in first year of life
  • Multiple seizure types
32
Q

Ohtahara syndrome

A
  • Seizures begin in early infancy (1d-3mo)
  • Epileptic tonic spasms occuring multiple times a day
  • EEG with burst supression
33
Q

Lennox-Gestaut syndrome

A

Triad of multiple seizure types, 1.5-2Hz epike wave complexes, cognitive impairement

34
Q

Panayiotopoulos syndrome

A
  • Tonic eye deviation, vomiting visual auras
  • EEG with high voltage occipital spike 1-3 Hz that dissapear with eye opening
  • Resolves within several years
35
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

A
  • Acuired epileptic aphasia
  • Word deafness–>expressive aphasia
  • Variou sseizure types
  • EEG with multifocal cortical spikes biletrally
36
Q

Nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE)

A
  • Hypermotor seizures (thrashing/jerking)
  • Occur during NREM sleep
  • Treat with carbamazepine
37
Q

Localaization of eye deviation and head versive seizures

A

-Contralateral frontal lobe involving the FEF

38
Q

Left arm dystonic, right arm automatisms localization

A

-Right temporal lobe

39
Q

Gelastic seizure localization

A
  • Hypothalamus

- Associated with hypothalamic hemartomas

40
Q

Risk factors ofor recurrance of febrile seizures

A
  • FH of febrile seizures
  • Age <18 mo
  • Shorter duration of fever and lower peak temperature at time of FS

*Complex FS and simple FS have similar rate of recurrance

41
Q

Progressive myoclonic epilepsies (5)

A
  • Unvericht-Lundborg syndrome
  • Lafora body disease
  • MERFF
  • Sialidosis
  • Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
42
Q

Unvericht-Lundborg syndrome

A
  • EPM1 gene on chrom 21

- Stimulus sensitive myoclonus, worsens over time–> multiple seizure types–>Ataxia, tremor, intellectual decline

43
Q

Sialidosis

A
  • Cherry red sot, vision loss

- Ataxia, action myoclonus

44
Q

Lafora body disease

A
  • EPM2A gene on chrom 6
  • Occipital seizures with transient blindness and hallucinations
  • EEG with spikes and waves in occipital region
  • PAS positive intracellular inclusion bodies
45
Q

Practise parameter for adult presenting with first time unprovoked seizure

A
  • Routine EEG
  • MRI/CT
  • Immediate AED treatment for first time seizure reduces risk of second seziure in 2 year period but does not affect quality of life
46
Q

Generalized periodic pattern with 1 Hz frequency

A

CJD

47
Q

Widespread high amplitude beta acitvity

A
  • Associated with BZD use
  • Treat with Flumazenil
  • Can be seen with barbiturate use as well
48
Q

Normal EEG correlates of sleep

A

Stage I NREM: Slow rollind eye movements, attenuation of background alpha
Stage II NREM: K complexes and sleep spindles
Stage III/IV (slow wave): Delta
REM: Sleep atonia+ rapid eye movements, Alpha activity. Sawtooth waves in central regions

49
Q

How long does it take to enter REM sleep after sleep onset?

A

90 minutes

50
Q

AHI

A

Mild: 5-15
Moderate: 15-30
Severe: >30

51
Q

Kleine-Levin syndrome

A
  • Recurrant hypersomnia lasting days to weeks occuring many times a year
  • Peak onset adolesence
  • Mood changes, hypersexuality, voracious apetite
52
Q

Narcolepsy with cataplexy

A

Loss of hypocretin neurons in lateral hypothalamus

53
Q

Antidepressant least likely to worsen RLS

A

Bupropion