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MOD 3 > Epidemiology of infectious disease - infectious disease mechanisms > Flashcards

Epidemiology of infectious disease - infectious disease mechanisms Flashcards

1
Q

microorganisms present on the surface of and within the human body

A

flora/microflora

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2
Q

flora that typically have no adverse effect

A

commensalism

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3
Q

flora that may offer benefit to the host

A

mutualism

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4
Q

flora compete with ____ for resources and can inhibit their growth

A

disease-producing microorgansims

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5
Q

microorganisms which cause disease

A

pathogens
- direct destruction of host cell
- interfere with host cell metabolism
- exposure of host cell to toxins

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6
Q

protein + infection = ?

A

prion

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7
Q

why are prions not true “microorganisms”

A

no DNA or RNA
mutated protein particles

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8
Q

creutzfeldt-jakob disease, kuru, bovine spongiform encephalopathy

A

prion

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9
Q

how can prions be damage

A

accumulate in nerve cell axons
slowly progressive noninflammatory neuronal degeneration

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10
Q

virus DNA or RNA core surrounded by ?

A

protein coat
+/- lipoprotein envelope

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11
Q

entire virus particle is ?

A

virion

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12
Q

protein coat of the virus is ?

A

capsid

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13
Q

how are viruses obligate intracellular pathogens

A
  1. bind to receptors on host cell
  2. enter the host cell
  3. convert cell metabolism to produce viral nucleic acids and proteins
  4. cell eventually loses normal function and often undergoes lysis
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14
Q

some viruses undergo ____ following initial infection

A

a period of latency

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15
Q

unicellular microorganisms that can be either aerobic or anaerobic

A

bacteria

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16
Q

describe the characteristics of a bacteria

A
  1. surrounded by rigid cell wall
    - peptidoglycan
    - +/- protective outer capsule
  2. no organized nucleus, mitochondria, or ER
  3. single chromosomes or plasmids
  4. can be mobile - flagella
  5. can have pili for:
    - mobility
    - adherence
    - genetic exchange
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17
Q

bacteria can be categorized by: (3)

A
  1. shape
  2. grouping
  3. straining
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18
Q

shapes of bacteria (3)

A
  1. cocci
  2. bacilli
  3. spirochete/spirilla
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19
Q

grouping of bacteria (3)

A
  1. diplo - sphere
  2. strepto - chains
  3. staphylo - clusters
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20
Q

staining of bacteria (3)

A
  1. gram positive (G+)
  2. gram negative (G-)
  3. acid-fast
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21
Q

bacteria can produce 2 things:

A
  1. endotoxins/exotoxins
  2. endospores
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22
Q

common resident microbes on skin and mucous membranes

A

fungi

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23
Q

two types of fungal infections

A
  1. mycoses
  2. mycotic
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24
Q

fungal infections can be: (3)

A
  1. opportunistic pathogens
  2. limited to surface areas of the body - superficial mycoses
  3. invade deep tissues - systemic mycoses
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25
Q

unicellular fungi is __ and multicellular fungi is ____

A

yeast
mold

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26
Q

fungi that reproduce by budding, form structures known as pseudohyphae

A

yeast

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27
Q

fungi that reproduce by forming branching tubules known as hyphae
can form highly resistant spores

A

mold

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28
Q

describe charcteristics of protozoa

A

unicellular, complex organisms
nucleus and organelles
motile via cilia, flagella, ameboid motion
spend part of their lifecycle outside humans

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29
Q

protozoa are transmitted via: (3)

A
  1. host-to-host contact
  2. contaminated water or food
  3. arthropod vectors

can form cysts to aid help transmission

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30
Q

wormlike parasites that transmit through ingestion of fertilized eggs or penetration of infectious larval stages through skin

A

wormlike parasites

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31
Q

nematodes (roundworms), cestodes (tapesworms), trematodes (flukes)

A

wormlike parasites

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32
Q

describe ectoparasites

A

infect external body surfaces
causes damage or inflammation due to bite or burrowing

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33
Q

how do ectoparasites spread

A

contact with mature (arthropod) or immature (eggs, larvae) forms

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34
Q

mites, chiggers, lice, fleas

A

ectoparasites

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35
Q

what are rickettsiae

A

G- bacteria, obligate intracellular pathogens
infect but does not create disease in arthropod vectors
target endothelial vascular cells

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36
Q

describe mycoplasmas

A

capable of independent replication
dont produce cell wall
<1/3 the size of bacteria - DNA 1/2 size of normal bacteria chromosome

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37
Q

describe chlamydiae

A

obligate intracellular pathogens
transmitted directly between susceptible hosts
reproduce through binary fission

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38
Q

“holding tank” for infection

A

reservoir

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39
Q

____: opportunistic infection

A

endogenous

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40
Q

____: external environment

A

exogenerous

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41
Q

source of infection

A
  • infected person, animal, arthropod
  • contaminated air, water, soil, food
  • treating carrier or sanitizing environment source can reduce spread of infection
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42
Q

acquired from a healthcare setting, especially a hospital

A

nosocomial infections
- must not show signs of infection at time of visit to facility
- generally - up to 2 days post-admit, within 3 days after discharge
- ICU patients at higher risk

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43
Q

acquired outside a hospital or healthcare facility setting

A

community-acquired infections

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43
Q

acquired outside a hospital or healthcare facility setting

A

community-acquired infections

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43
Q

acquired outside a hospital or healthcare facility setting

A

community-acquired infections

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44
Q

infections that are commonly or primarily spread by sexual activity

A

sexually transmitted infections

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45
Q

decreased baseline immune system

A

immunocompromised hosts

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46
Q

characteristics of immunocompromised hosts

A

due to disease, meds, malnutrition
increased susceptibility to infections
increased severity and duration of infections
increased rates of opportunistic infections

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47
Q

means by which the pathogen leaves the reservoir, often via secretions, blood, placental transfer

A

portal of exit

48
Q

physical contact with the infection reservoir

A

direct contact

49
Q

respiratory particles pass through air from reservoir to host

A

droplet transmission

50
Q

spread of droplet transmission within ___ of infected reservoir

A

3 ft

51
Q

smaller respiratory particles; remains in air longer

A

airborne transmission

52
Q

spread via agent that carries the pathogen and takes it to the host

A

vector transmission

53
Q

required for life cycle of pathogen for vector transmission

A

biological vector

54
Q

not essential to life cycle of pathogen for vector transmission

A

mechanical vector

55
Q

access point for the microorganism to infect the host

A

portal of entry

56
Q

disruption of skin or mucous membranes via injury, medical procedure, surface lesion from disease, direct inoculation

A

penetration

57
Q

exposure of pathogen to intact skin or mucous membrane ex. STI

A

direct contact

58
Q

spread of pathogen from mother to fetus via placenta or during birth

A

vertical transmission

59
Q

entry of pathogens through upper or lower rsp tract

A

inhalation

60
Q

entry of pathogens through oral cavity and GI tract

A

ingestions

61
Q

pathogens must be able to survive ___ and ___ during ingestions

A

acidic gastric environment
peristalsis of GI tract

62
Q

reduced gastric acid = ?

A

increased susceptibility to ingested infections

63
Q

spread of pathogens through ___ is also a form of ingestion

A

breast milk

64
Q

infections beginning at portal of entry and progressively invade local tissues

A

local spread

65
Q

infections may enter the body at one site and ___ to one or more sites elsewhere in the body

A

disseminate

66
Q

infections that disseminate are commonly ___

A

circulatory/hematologic

67
Q

things that increase likelihood of contracting infection or having worse disease course or outcomes

A

risk factors

68
Q

7 risk factors of hosts

A
  1. immunosuppressive meds
  2. immunocompromised status due to disease
  3. impaired inflammatory response
  4. poor nutrition
  5. very young/elderly
  6. severe stress
  7. coinfection or superinfection
69
Q

deviation from and/or interruption of normal structure and/or function of 1+ cells, tissues, organs, or organ systems

A

disease

70
Q

occurs when pathogen enters a host and multiples inside of it

A

infection

71
Q

ability of organism to cause disease

A

pathogenicity

72
Q

likelihood of causing severe disease
potency of organsim

A

virulence

73
Q

likelihood of infecting a host after an exposure

A

infectivity

74
Q

likelihood of producing harmful toxins

A

toxigenicity

75
Q

likelihood of producing adaptive immune response

A

immunogenicity

76
Q

likelihood of binding with immune system receptors

A

antigenicity

77
Q

likelihood of altering antigens

A

antigenic variability

78
Q

natural mutation over time of viral antigens

A

antigenic drift

79
Q

2+ viruses combining to create a new set of antigens

A

antigenic shift

80
Q

collective terms for ways microorganisms avoid destruction by the host

A

pathogenic defense mechanisms

81
Q

presence of 2+ pathogens simultaneously

A

coinfection

82
Q

secondary (new) infection arising when a primary (initial) infection is already present superinfection

A

superinfection

83
Q

multiplication of pathogenic organisms in the host
compete with normal flora for nutrients and space

A

colonization

84
Q

minimum number of microbes necessary to establish infection
can be very low or very high

A

infectious dose

85
Q

how do pathogens avoid detection (4)

A
  1. intracellular pathogens
  2. capsules
  3. mimicry of host
  4. antigenic variation
86
Q

how do pathogens interfere with host immune processes (4)

A
  1. production of membrane-damaging toxins to destroy leukocytes
  2. interference with complement activation
  3. production of proteases to destroy immune molecules
  4. inhibition of host immune response
87
Q

production of __ to destroy other host tissues

A

toxins

88
Q

production of ___ to promote pathogen spread and survival

A

enzymes

89
Q

enzymes that forms fibrin clot to surround and protect microbe

A

coagulase

90
Q

enzyme that breaks down CT

A

hylauronidase

91
Q

enzyme that breaks down clots that limit spread of pathogen

A

fibrinase

92
Q

enzyme that neutralizes bactericidal effects of H2O2, allowing survival after phagocytosis

A

catalase

93
Q

stages of infection

A
  1. incubation - pathogen replicate without visible s/s
  2. prodrome - initial appearance of symptoms
  3. acute - max impact of infectious process
  4. declining - gradually improving s/s
  5. convalescence - containment and elimination of pathogen, repair of damage, resolution of symptoms
  6. resolution - total elimination of pathogen without residual s/s
94
Q

what is subclinical infection

A

no clinically apparent s/s

95
Q

what is insidious infection

A

lengthy prodromal phase

96
Q

what is fulminant infection

A

abrupt onset of acute phase
little or no prodrome

97
Q

inflammatory response resulting in significant amounts of pus formation

A

suppurative inflammation

98
Q

dead leukocytes (especially neutrophils), dead cells, fluid

A

pus

99
Q

what bacteria that cause pus formtion

A

purulent, suppurative, pyogenic

100
Q

common manifestations of suppurative inflammation

A
  • pustule - superficial collection of pus within or just below epidermis
  • abscess - collection of pus in an enclosed tissue space
101
Q

nodular inflammatory lesions that encase substances that are not easily destroyed by usual inflammatory and immune responses

A

granulomatous inflammation

102
Q

two things that can cause granulomatous inflammation

A

foreign bodies - splinters, sutures, silica, asbestos
pathogens - mycobacterium tuberculosis, syphilis, deep fungal infections

103
Q

multinucleated, coalesced macrophages that surround large particles that cannot be readily phagocytized

A

giant cells

104
Q

surrounds and contains offending agent and macrophages processing it

A

epithelioid cells

105
Q

___ eventually surrounds and encapsulates the area of inflammation

A

fibrous tissue

106
Q

damage to host cells in the absence of adequate host inflammatory response, associated usually with viruses

A

cytopathic-cytoproliferative reaction

107
Q

how do cytopathic-cytoproliferative reactions cause damage

A
  • cause cells to fuse
  • cause cells to become discohesive
  • cause cells to proliferate and form morphologic lesions
  • some viruses replicate within cells and make viral inclusion bodies
108
Q

intranuclear inclusion with halo

A

CMV

109
Q

eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions

A

rabies

110
Q

ground-glass cytoplasm in hepatocytes

A

hep B

111
Q

death of tissue

A

necrosis

112
Q

how does necrosis occur

A

enzymatic degradation, inadequate blood supply, trauma, toxins

113
Q

extensive necrosis

A

gangrene

114
Q

necrosis that can happen without infection

A

aspectic necrosis

115
Q

phagocytes unable to remove dead tissue adequately often has to be ___

A

debrided - surgically removed

116
Q

5 types of tissue necrosis

A
  1. coagulate - proteins from dead cells denatured and form a firm gel-like substance
    - maintains tissue rchitecture
    - mainly hypoxic environments
  2. liquefactive - dead cells are liquefied (pus)
    - seen with bacterial and fungal infections, brain infarcts
  3. caseous - white, friable necrotic tissue
    - “cheesy” seen with mycobacteria, fungi, foreign bodies
  4. fat - lipases destroy fatty tissues
    - may see calcium deposits
  5. fibrinoid - damage to vascular structures by immune processes
    - immune complexes deposited in vessel walls
117
Q
  • ongoing insult to body or dysregulation of the immune response
  • simultaneous destruction and dealing of tissue from the inflammatory process
A

chronic inflammation/scarring

118
Q

describe fibrous scarring

A
  • large amounts of tissue destruction or damage in tissues unable to regenerate, primarily with collagen
  • loss of function of cells
  • damage to cells = increased risk of DNA damage and cell mutation = increased risk for tumors/cancers

MOD 3 (5 decks)

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