Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Level 2 Boards > Epidemiology/ Ethics/ Psychiatry > Flashcards

Epidemiology/ Ethics/ Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

Sensitivity

A

A/ (A+C)

TP/ (TP+FN)

Positive test of disease/ Total disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Specificity

A

D/ (B+D)

TN/ (TN+FP)

Negative test of no disease/ total no disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prevalence

A

Positive test/ total population

TP+FN/ Total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PPV

A

A/ (A+B)

TP/(TP+FP)

True positive/ (All positives)

The higher the disease prevalence that higher the PPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

NPV

A

D/ (C+D)

TN/(FN+TN)

True negatives/ All negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Likelihood ratio (LR)

A

+LR= sensitivity / (1-specificity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NNT

A

NNT= 1/ absolute risk reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Odds ratio

A

OR= (A/C)/ (B/D)

OR= AD/ BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Relative risk

A

RR= [A/(A+B)]/ [C/(C+D)]

Risk of developing disease in those exposed divided by risk of disease in unexposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Absolute risk reduction

A

ARR= [C/C+D] -[A/(A+B)]

The difference in risk attributable to the intervention compared to the control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cohort

A

Exposure —> disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Case control

A

Diseased and non-diseased into two group trying to find exposure

Odds ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type I (alpha) error

A

Concluding there is a difference when there is not

False positive

Rejecting the null hypothesis when it should not be rejected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type II (beta) error

A

No difference when there is

False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

P value

A

estimate of the probability that differences in treatment effects in a study could have happened by chance alone

P < 0.05 statistically significant

Reject null hypothesis which states no correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Power

What increased power?

A

Probability that a study will find a statistically significant difference when one is truly there

Increase number of subjects increases power

Power= 1 - type II error (beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Live vaccines

A 
MMR
Polio (Sabin)
Yellow fever
Influenza (nasal)
Varicella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inactivated vaccines

A 
Cholera
HAV
Polio (Salk) 
Rabies
Influenza (injection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Diphtheria

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Informed consent

A

BRAIN

Benefits
Risk
Alternatives
Indications
Nature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Absence of living will

A

SPOUSE CHIPS in For the patient

SPOUSE
CHIldren
Parent
Sibling
Friend
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Distribution in 95%

Mean 230
SD 10 mg/dL

A

2 SD from mean

210 - 250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stand deviation distribution

A

68% (middle)= 1 standard deviation

95%= 2 SD

99.7 (outside)= 3 SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Inquire about possible risk factors and outcomes at a specific point in time (snap shot)

A

Cross-sectional study

Type of observational study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ascertainment (sampling) bias

A

Study population differs from target population due to nonrandom selection methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Berkson bias

A

Disease studied using only hospital based patients may lead to results not applicable to target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Neyman bias

A

Prevalence bias

Exposures that happen long before disease assessment can cause study to miss diseased patients that die early or recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Move from point B to A

Change on sensitivity

A

Sensitive will increase

Fewer FN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Confounding bias vs effect modification

A

Effect modification
- results when an extraneous variable (modifer) changes the direction or strength of an association

Modifier is associated with disease but not the risk factor

Confounding bias
- extraneous factor associated with both exposure and disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tourette syndrome Tx

A

First line: aripiprazole

Tetrabenazine (dopamine depleting agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MRI of schizophrenia

A

Enlarged ventricles

Decreased cortical volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

SE Haloperidol

A

QTc prolongation

EPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

QTc prolongation

A

Haloperidol

Ziprasidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Clozapine SE

A

Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

EPS

A

4 and A

4 hrs: Acute dystonia
4 days: Akinesia
4 weeks: Akathisia
4 months: Tardive dyskinesia

ADAPT
Hours to days: Acute Dystonia 
(Muscle spasm, stiffness, oculogyric grisis) (prolonged involuntary gaze upward) 
- Benztropine 
- Diphenhydramine 
Days to months: Akathiasia, Parkinsonism 
(restlessness, bradykinesia) 
- Beta blockers 
- Benzodiazepine (lorazepam) 
- Benztropine 
--- 
-Benztropine 
- Amantadine

Months to years: Tardive dyskinesia
(orofacial chorea)
- Valbenazine
- Deutetrabenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Prolonged painful tonic muscle contractions or spasm

A

Acute dystonia

Hours

Tx: Benztropine (anticholinergics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Restlessness that is perceived as being distressing

A

Akathasia

Day

Tx: Betablockers (propranolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pseudoparkinsonism

EPS

A

Dyskinesia

Benztropine (anticholinergics) or dopamine agonist (amantadine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Involuntary, painless oral facial movements

A

Tardive dyskinesia

Switch neurolepic to clozapien or risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dont mix with Buspirione

A

MAOIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tx Social anxiety disorder

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

OCD Tx

A

SSRI

Or Clomipramine (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

TX PTSD

A

CBT

SSRI, SNRI

Prazosin (alpha blocker) for nightmares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alzheimers tx

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

  • Donepezil
  • Rivastigmine
  • Galantamine

Moderate to severe
- Add Memantine (NMDA antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

SIG E CAPS

A 
Sleep
Interest
Guilt
Energy
Concentration
Appetite
Psychomotor agitation
Suicidal ideation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TCA toxicity

A

Tri-Cs

Convulsions
Coma
Cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

Avoided in pregnancy

  • Cardiac defects
  • pulmonary Htn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mirtazapine

A

WG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MAOIs

A

MAO Take Pride In Shanghai

Tranylcycpromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegilline

SE: HTN crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DIG FAST

A 
Distractibility
Insomnia
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Activites
Sexual indiscretion
Talkative/ pressure speech
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Mania

A

> 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Mania 1st line tx

A

Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lithium toxicity

A

Ataxia
Dysarthria
Delirium
Acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Naltrexone

A

first line tx for craving of alcohol

Blocks u opioid receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

SE TCAs

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

High QTC

A

470 or 480

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Antipsychotic to give if over weight

A

Abilify (arippiprazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Physiology of schizophrenia

A

Increased DA in mesolimbic

Decreased DA in mesocortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mental status changes (not psychosis)
- delirium

Muscle rigidity +/- tremor (lead pipe rigidity)

Hyperthermia

Rhabdomyolysis

Autonomic instability
- tachycardia, high blood pressure, tachypnea, diaphoresis

Due to
Tx

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Due to antipsychotics

Tx: Dantrolene
Bromocriptine

Elevated creatinine phosphokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which antipsychotic is most closely associated iwth an increased risk of diabetes

A

Olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

SNRI for fibromyalgia

A

Milnacipran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chronic pain tx

A

Duloxetine

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Fibromyalgia tx

A

MIlnacipran (SNRI)

Amitriptyline (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tx neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Antidepressant the causes appetite stimulant and weight gain

A

Mirtrazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Serotonin syndrome signs

A

Hyperreflexia and clonus
Hyperthermia
Autonomic instability
- Cardiovascular collapse, mental status changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bulimina nervosa labs

A

Hypokalemic
Hypochloremic

Metabolic alkalosis

Non-anion gap metabolic alkalosis w/ respiratory compensation

Metabolic acidosis (laxative abuse)

Elevated bicarbonate
Incrased BUn
Hypernatremia
Increased amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fixation

A

partially remaining at childish level of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Reaction formation

A

Taking unacceptable thoughts and attempting to over exaggerate in opposite action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Projection

A

Taking unacceptable thoughts and believing that someone else has those thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Displacement

A

Substitutes new aim/ object for something that is undesirable

man yells at family for bad day at work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Sublimation

A

unacceptable impulses or feelings transformed into socially acceptable actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Suppression

A

Voluntarily choosing to not think about something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Opioid withdrawal symptoms

A 
Sweating
Dilated pupils 
piloerection 
yawning 
Rhinorrhea 
Flu like

Tx:
Moderate: Clonidine (autonomic signs)
Severe: Methadone, suboxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Reversal agent for benzo

A

Flumazenil
- blockade of GABAergic neurotransmission

Can cause seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Reversal agent for opioids

A

Naloxone

Naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Severe depression, HA, fatigue, insomnia/ hypersomnia, hunger

A

Cocaine and amphetamine withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pinpoint pupils
N/V
Seizures

A

Opioid overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Belligerence, impulsivness, nystagmus, homicidal ideation, psychosis

A

PCP intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anxiety, piloerection, yawning, fever, rhinorhea, nausea, diarrhea

A

opioid withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Identification

A

Acting like the person you have positive thoughts towards (changing where you wear sthetoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Intellectualization

A

using logic or fact to emotionally distance onself from stressful situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Patient on risperidone, increased dose now smiles less and slowed down. Mild tremor and doesnt swing arms when walking

TX

A

Continue Risperidone and add benztropine

anti-psychotic induced parkinsonism

Tx anticholinergic antiparkinism benztropine or amantadine

84
Q

Sudden sustained contraction of neck, mouth, tongue and eye muscles

Tx

A

Acute dystonia

Benztropine
Diphenhydramine

85
Q

Subjective restlessness, inability to sit still

Tx

A

Akathisia

Beta blocker (propranolol)
Benzodiazepine (lorazepam)
Benztropine

86
Q

Gradual onset tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia

Tx

A

Parkinsonism

Benztropine
Amantadine

87
Q

Gradual onset after prolonged therapy (> 6 months). Dyskinesia of the mouth, face, trunk and extremities

A

Tardive dyskinesia

Discontinue medication
Switch to quetiapine or clozapine

Treat with Valbenazine
Deutetrabenazine

Caused by dopamine receptor D2 upregulation and supersensitivity

88
Q 
Psychological features
Depression 
Fatigue 
Hypersomnia 
Increased dreaming 
Hyperphagia 
Impaired concentration
A

Cocaine withdrawal

89
Q 
Anxiety
Insomnia 
Tremors 
Tachycardia 
HTN
A

Alcohol withdrawal

90
Q

Dysphoria
Myalgia
Yawning
Abdominal cramping

A

Opioid withdrawl

91
Q 
Dieting
Hallucinations 
Abominal pain 
Constipation 
Tingling sensation in finger tips
A

Acute intermittent porphyria

Elevated urinary porphobilinogen levels

Painful abdomen 
Port wine colored urine 
Polyneuropathy 
Psylogical disturbances 
Precipitated by Drugs, alcohol and starvation
92
Q

Alcohol withdrawal symptoms (5)

A 
Anxiety
Insomnia 
Tremors 
Tachycardia 
HTN
93
Q

Opioid withdrawal symptoms (4)

A

Dysphoria (dissatifcation with life)
Myalgia (muscle pain)
Yawning
Abdominal cramping

94
Q

MDD Sleep traits

A

Decreased REM sleep latency (the time from sleep onset until the start of the first REM sleep period

Decreased slow wave sleep

Increased total REM sleep duration

95
Q

Physiology associated with suicidal behavior

A

Low levels of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) in CSF

Metabolite of serotonin

96
Q

Hepatotoxicity medication

A

Valproate (mood stabilizer)

97
Q

Bipolar plus hypercalcemia medication

98
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects

- Antipsychotic efficacy the pathway effected

A

Decreased Dopamine in mesolimbic

99
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects

- EPS pathways

A

Decrease in Dopamine in nigrostriatal

100
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects

- Hyperprolactinemia pathway

A

Decrease Dopamine in tuberoinfundibular

101
Q

Increased dopamine in mesolimbic

A

Euphoric and psychotic symptoms

102
Q

Patient excusing or justifying an attitude or event by developing an alternate explanation or shifting the blame

Man speed who crashes into other drive. Other drives fault for not paying attention

A

Rationialization

`

103
Q

Involuntary contraction of small muscles groups like repeated contraction of fingers in one hand

A

Tardive dyskinesia

104
Q

Watch for what with Lamotrigine

A

Rash

Steven Johnson syndrome
Toxic epidermal necrosis

105
Q

Channeling uncomfortable thoughts or emotions into more acceptable behavior

A

Sublimation

Acting out is always a negative reaction

106
Q

Man who like risky behavior becomes stunt man

A

Sublimation

107
Q

Riluzole

MOA

A

ALS

Decrease glutamate excitotoxicity

108
Q

Drug of choice for supervised heroin withdrawal inpatient

Drug of choice for supervised heroin withdrawal inpatient

A

Buprenorphine

Buprenorphine/ naloxone

Nloxone component prevents abuse of buprenorphine

109
Q

Antipsychotic which doesnt cause hyperprolactinemia in preexisting hyperprolactinemia

110
Q

Dementia
Pupillary changes (anisocoria different sized pupils)
Ataxia
Urinary incontinence
Impaired peripheral vibratory and proprioceptive sensation

A

Neurosyphilis

111
Q

Risperidone causes orthostatic hypotension by

A

Cross reactivity as an alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist impairing binding of norepinephrine to alpha 1 receptor

112
Q

Schizophrenia brain changes

A

Deterioration of Hippocampus

113
Q

Auditory hallucination are from what part of the brain

A

Temporal lobe

114
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder lab level

A

Elevated cortisol

115
Q

OCD due to what part of brain

A

Cerebral cortex or basal ganglia

116
Q

clonus=

A

serotonin syndrome

117
Q

Lorazepam vs other benzo

A

Lorazepam is not metabolized by liver

118
Q

Breathing techniques target what NT

A

Norepinephrine

119
Q

Alcohol changes on sleep

A

Decreased REM sleep

Decreased sleep latency (shorter time to fall asleep)

Increased sleep fragmentation (increased nighttime awakenings)

120
Q

Visual hallucinations in those that are blind

A

Charles Bonnet syndrome

121
Q

Neutropenia in patient

A

Clozapine

Carbamazepine

122
Q

Carbamazepine SE (6)

A

Agraulocytosis
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Teratogenic in pregnancy

Cytochrome P450 induction

Hyponatremia

Hepatotoxicity

123
Q

Drugs that induce mania or psychosis is patients with previous history of disease (6)

A

Corticosteriods

Thyroxine 
Dopaminergic anti-parkinsonian drugs 
Amphetamines 
Cocaine 
PCP
124
Q

Alcohol withdrawal what predisoses to seizures

A

Hypomagnesemia

125
Q

Opioid that doesnt cause miosis

A

Meperidine

126
Q

Delirium on EEG

A

Diffuse background slowing

Delirium tremens opposite: fast EEG activity

127
Q

What is associated with aggressive and impulsiveness lab

A

Low levels of serotonin in CSF

128
Q

Kleptomania comorbid with

A

Bulimia nervosa

129
Q

Durham insanity defense

A

Criminal act resulted from mental illness

130
Q

OTC drugs that can cause serotonin syndrome

A

St. John’s wort

dextromethorphan

131
Q

M’Naghten insanity defense

A

Person did not understand what he/she was doing was wrong

132
Q

Miosis pupil size

Mydrasis pupil size

A

Miosis less than 2 mm

Mydrasis larger than 4 mm

133
Q

What inhibits lamotrigine

A

Valproic acid

134
Q

Cant sleep
Not hungry
Depressed

A

Mirtazapine

- helps with sleep and increases appetite

135
Q

Started on new medications

HTN
Cant move spontaneously
Fever
Confused

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Dysregulation of dopamine

136
Q

Help with alcohol cravings

A

Naltrexone

Acamprosate

137
Q

Naloxone

A

Short acting opioid antagonist

Used to tx opioid intoxication

138
Q

Bipolar tx

A

Quetipine
Lithium (not if renal issue)
Valproate

[Before haloperidol]

139
Q

Women upset with having to take care of her father then is very kind and caring and offers to get him water multiple times

A

Reaction formation

140
Q

SE SSRI

A

HA
Insomnia
Nausea

141
Q

Psychosis with rapid speach

Now how hypercalcemia

What medication

142
Q

Risk of seizures

143
Q

tx acute mania

A

Olanzapine
Lithium
Valproate (oral)

144
Q

Pin point pupils

Negative drug screen

145
Q

Acute onset psychosis in child

Arthralgia
Thrombocytopenia
Hematuria
Proteinuria

A

SLE

Check ANA

146
Q

Tx resistant schizophrenia

147
Q

Antipsychotic

Has DM

A

Ziprasidone

[Avoid olanzapine]

148
Q 
HA
Tachycardia
Palpitations
Sweating
HTN- drug resistant

Hyperglycemia

A

Pheochromocytoma

149
Q

Night terrors last

A

1-2 years

Resolve spontaneously

150
Q

Seen in MDD

A

Increased serum cortisol concentration

Decreased REM sleep latency

Decreased slow wave sleep

151
Q

Quetiapine MOA

A

Serotonin 2A

Dopamine D2 receptor blockade

152
Q

Antipsychotics work on

A

D2 receptors

153
Q

Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibition

154
Q

Serotonin and noreepinephrine reuptake inhibition

A

Venlafaxine
SNRI

Tricyclic antidepressants

155
Q

Distruptive mood dysregulation disorder

A

Irritable or angry mood together with temper tantrums that are out of proportion

Not made prior to six or after age 18

156
Q

Parkinson disease with psychotic symptoms

Tx

A

Dopamine agonists (pramipexole) are at greater risk of psychosis

Quetiapine
Clozapine

157
Q

False positive phencyclidine (4)

A

Dextromethorphan

Diphenhydramine

Ketamine

Tramadol

Venlafaxine

158
Q

False positive Amphetamine (4)

A

Atenolol
Propranolol

Bupropion

Nasal decongestants

159
Q

Tremor
Hyperreflexia
Myoclonus

A

Serotonin syndrome

Citalopram + MAOI (less than 2 week wash out period)

160
Q

Generalized rigidity

Confusion
Fever

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Due to Risperidone

Tx Dantrolene
Bromocriptine

161
Q

NMS vs Serotonin syndrome

A

NMS

  • High fevers
  • Rigidity

SS

  • Tremor
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Myoclonus
162
Q

Amnesia of a particular event

Traveling or wandering

Doesnt know who they are

Doesnt recognize his name

Father recently passed away

A

Dissociative amnesia

163
Q

Loss of time and place

No loss of personal identy

A

Transient global amnesia

164
Q

MDD and Worsening diabetic neuropathy

A

SNRI

Duloxetine

165
Q

MDD with psychotic features Tx

A

Sertraline

Risperidone

166
Q

Fatigue
Constipation
Myalgias

What drug

A

Lithium

Hypothyroidism

167
Q

Antidepressant or Antipsychotic

Causes WL and HTN

A

Venlafaxine
SNRI

Dose-dependent HTN

168
Q

Galactorrhea
Impotence
Menstrual dysfunction
Decreased libido

Medication

A

Dopamine antagonists

Chlorpromazine
Promethazine

Risperidone
Quetipine
Clozepine

169
Q

Mother who is angry at her husband yells at her child

A

Displacement

170
Q

Girl who is upset with her best friend acts overly kind

A

Reaction formation

171
Q

Hospitalized 10 year old begins to wet his bed

A

Regression

172
Q

Young weight lifter receives IV haloperidol and complains that his eyes are deviated sideways

Diagnosis
Tx

A

Acute dystonia
(Oculogyric crisis)

Tx: Benztropine
Diphenhydramine

173
Q

Medications to avoid in patients with history of alcohol withdrawal seizures

A

Neuroleptics

Lower the seizure threshold

Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Lurasidone
Olanzapine
Quetiapine
Risperidone
174
Q

Previously healthy 6 month old girl has decrease in head growth

Truncal discoordination

Decreased social interaction

A

Rett disorder

Regression and loss of milestones is common

Hand wringing

175
Q

Severe hypoglycemia

Blood analysis reveals no elevation in C peptide

A

Factitious disorder

176
Q

Schizophrenic patient that takes haloperidol for 1 year and develops uncontrollable tongue movements.

Diagnosis?
Tx?

A

Tardive dyskinesia

Decrease or discontinue haloperidol

Switch to risperidone or clozapine

177
Q

Delayed sleep wake disorder

A

Excessive morning sleepiness

Sleep until 11 AM naturally

178
Q

Advanced sleep wake disorder

A

Inability to stay awake in evening (usually after 7 pm)

179
Q

More people have been diagnosed with leukemia in town A than B. Which of the following designs would be best suited to determine whether a towns location is related to apparent difference in leukemia?

A. Case control
B. Case series
C. Clinical trial
D. Cohort
E. Ecological
A

D. Cohort

Study in which groups are chosen based upon presence or absence of one or more risk factors

All subjects develop disease of interest

Incidence

180
Q

Case control study

A

Subjects with the disease of interest (cases) are compared to otherwise similar group of disease-free subjects

Information is collect about exposure to risk factors

Retrospective

Odds ratio

181
Q

Case series

A

Study involving only patients already diagnosed with condition of interest

Can be helpful in determining the natural history of uncommon conditions

182
Q

Ecological studies

A

Unit of observation is population

Disease rates and exposures are measured in 2 or more populations

Associated between disease rates and exposure is determined

183
Q

Study to determine incidence

184
Q

ARR

A

Risk of placebo- risk with treatment

%

NNT= 1/ ARR%

185
Q

PPV

A

True positives/ Total positive

186
Q

Synthetic cathinones

A

Bath salts

Negative drug screen

187
Q

Breast mass
Negative fnA

What are the chances that she really does not have breast cancer?

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. PPV
D. NPV
E. Validity
A

D. NPV

Probability of being free of disease if test results are negative

NPV with vary with the pretest probability of a disease

A patient with high probability of having a disease will have a low NPV

[Specificity: probability that when the disease is absent, the test is negative]

Vs probably a person with a negative test actually doesnt have disease

188
Q

Severe nausea and vomiting after receiving chemotherapy

Hx Bipolar and alcohol abuse

Lithium and lamotrigine

Lithium level 0.6 (normal 0.6-1.2)

Tx IV saline and antiemetic

Several hours later= sudden neck pain, neck muscle stiffness and difficulty speaking

What medication caused this?
A. Aprepitant
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Lithium
E. Metoclopramide
F. Ondansetron
A

E. Metoclopramide

Acute dystonia= EPS

Dopamine antagonists like antiemetics (metoclopramide and prochlorperazine)

189
Q

Randomization helps prevent

A

Confounding

Even distributes confounding variables

190
Q

Effect modification

A

Results when an external variable positively or negatively impacts the effect of a risk factor on the disease of interest

Risk of venous thrombosis is increased by estrogen but is augmented by smoking

191
Q

Post hoc analysis

A

Performing unplanned statistical tests on patterns that were identified after the fact in data from a completed study

192
Q

Loss to follow up results in what bias

A

Selection bias known as attrition bias

193
Q

Reporting bias

A

Occurs when a subject is reluctant to report an exposure due to stigma about the exposure (sexual behavior, drug use)

194
Q

Surveillance bias

A

Exposed group undergoes increased monitoring relative to the general population

195
Q

When treatment regimen selected for a patient depends on severity of patients condition

A

Selection bias

Susceptibility bias (confounding by indication)

196
Q

HIV < 200

Ventricular enlargement

Diffuse white matter changes

A

HIV associated neurocognitive disorder

Diffuse brain atrophy
Ventricular enlargement
Diffuse white matter changes

197
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

Reactivation of JC virus

Altered mental status

Motor deficits

  • Focal arm/leg weakness or hemiparesis
  • Ataxia
  • Vision abnormalities

MRI: well delineated asymmetric white matter lesions (not diffuse like HIV)

198
Q

Study showed that women with high baseline saturated fat consumption have 4x risk of colorectal cancer in 7 year period compared to low fat consumption

RR= 4.0, 95% CI= 1.5-6.5

According to study results, what percentage of colorectal carcinoma in women with high fat consumption could be attributed to diet?

A

Attributable risk (ARP)

ARP= (risk in exposed - risk in unexposed) / risk in exposed

ARP= (RR-1)/ RR

ARP= (4.0-1)/ 4.0= 75%

199
Q

Shifting curve to right by increase cutoff value effect on

TP
Sensitivity
Specificity

A

TP would decrease

So sensitivity would decrease

Fewer individuals without the disease would test positive so increase TN —> increase specificity

200
Q

Delirium patient that is violent what to give

A

Haloperidol

201
Q

Relative risk in what study

202
Q

Odds ratio used in what study

A

Case control

203
Q

Disease prevalence used in what study

A

Cross sectional study

204
Q

Case control measure

A

Odds ratio

205
Q

Cross sectional study measures

A

Disease Prevalence

206
Q

Cohort measures

A

Relative risk

Level 2 Boards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions