Epi exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical outcome of severe WNV neurologic disease was substantially worse for elderly patients. Advanced age is best described as?

a) Risk
b) Risk factor
c) Prognostic factor
d) Natural history etiology
e) None of the above

A

C) Prognostic factor

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2
Q

A study is conducted in which the rates of subsequent malarial infections are compared in communities with and without mosquito abatement programs. This is best described as…

a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Randomized controlled clinical trial
d) Latin square design crossover trial
e) None of the above

A

B) Cohort Study

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3
Q

West Nile Virus had occurred for the first time in the U.S. the preceding year. This unusual pattern of occurrence is best described as…

a) Natural occurrence
b) Prognostic outbreak
c) Sentinel case
d) Sentinel epidemic
e) Epidemic

A

e) epidemic

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4
Q

Among Staten Island residents, 2.5 per 100,000 persons developed severe West Nile Virus neurologic disease during an epidemic. This measure is best described as…

a) Incidence rate
b) Mortality rate
c) Morbidity rate
d) Median survival rate
e) None of the above

A

a

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5
Q

A study of antiviral agents is conducted for the treatment of severe West Nile Virus neurologic disease in which treatment assignments to individual patients are made by chance. This study is a…

a) Cohort trial
b) Latin square trial
c) Case-control trial
d) Randomized controlled clinical trial
e) None of the above

A

d

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6
Q

Epidemiology is broadly defined as the study of factors that influence the health of populations. The application of epidemiologic findings to decisions in the care of individual patients is:

a) Generally inappropriate
b) Known as clinical epidemiology
c) Limited to chronic disease epidemiology
d) Limited to infectious disease epidemiology
e) Limited to biologic mechanisms rather than social and environmental considerations

A

b

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7
Q

The BEINGS model is a useful paradigm for:

a) Allocating public health resources
b) Asserting the impact of herd immunity
c) Determining the role of social policy on public health
d) Establishing the importance of social contacts
e) Evaluating etiologic factors in disease.

A

e

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8
Q

The BEINGS model provides a list of factors in disease causality. Which of the following factors are explicitly included in the list?
a) Behavioral, ecologic, idiopathic, nutritional, genetic, and social factors.
b) Behavioral, environmental, immunologic, nutritional, genetic, and selective factors.
c) Behavioral, environmental, immunologic,
nutritional, genetic, and social factors.
d) Biologic, environmental, immunologic, nutritional, genetic, and synergistic factors.
e) Biologic, environmental, innate, nutritional, genetic, and synergistic factors

A

c

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9
Q

What percentage of death certificate diagnoses are thought to be potentially inaccurate?

A

15-20% inaccurate

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10
Q

An outbreak of disease should be reported to the local or state health department:

a) Only if the diagnosis is certain.
b) Only if the disease is infectious.
c) Only if the disease is serious.
d) Only if the outbreak involves at least 10 people.
e) Always

A

e

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11
Q

During a given year, 12 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 70,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about selling coconuts on a Caribbean beach. To report the prevalence of disease X, it would be necessary to know:

a) The cure rate
b) The duration of illness
c) The number of cases at a given time
d) The number of losses to follow-up
e) The rate at which new cases developed.

A

c

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12
Q

During a given year, 12 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 70,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about selling coconuts on a Caribbean beach. To report the incidence rate of disease X, it would be necessary to know:

a) Nothing more than the data provided
b) The age distribution of the population
c) The case fatality ratio
d) The duration of the clinical illness
e) The midyear population at risk.

A

e

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13
Q

During a given year, 12 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 70,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about selling coconuts on a Caribbean beach. Of the 12 detected cases, 7 result in death. The ratio of 7/12 represents:

a) The case fatality ratio
b) The crude death rate
c) The pathogenicity
d) The standardized mortality ratio
e) Prevalence

A

a

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14
Q

A study involves tracking recurring migraines in individuals over a 3 year period. Which of the following measures would allow the authors of the study to make full use of their collected data?

a) Attributable risk
b) Incidence density
c) Period prevalence
d) Point prevalence
e) Proportional hazards

A

b

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15
Q

Herd immunity refers to:

a) Genetic resistance to species-specific disease
b) Immunity naturally acquired in a population
c) The high levels of antibody present in a population after an epidemic
d) The prevention of disease transmission to susceptible individuals through acquired immunity in others.
e) The vaccination of domestic animals to prevent disease transmission to humans

A

d

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16
Q

For an infectious disease to occur there must be interaction between:

a) Behavioral factors and genetic factors
b) The agent and the vector
c) The host and the agent
d) The vector and the environment
e) The vector and the host

A

c

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17
Q

AZ, CO, and NM report cases of a spike in respiratory tract illnesses with a high case fatality ratio. The following is most reliably true regarding this event?

a) The cases represent an epidemic.
b) The identification of the cases is an example of active surveillance.
c) It is appropriate for the CDC to investigate the cases.
d) The seemingly new cases may be an artifact of improved health department surveillance.
e) If the illnesses represent an endemic disease, the cases do not constitute an outbreak.

A

c

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18
Q

Cases of ‘flesh‐eating’ group A streptococcal disease are reported in a defined population. Which of the following types of information would be most helpful for determining whether these cases represent a disease outbreak?

a) The clinical features and methods of diagnosing the disease
b) The disease vector and reservoir
c) The exact location and timing of disease onset
d) The incubation period and pattern of disease transmission
e) The usual disease patterns and reporting practices

A

e

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19
Q

An official from the state department of public health visits outpatient clinics and emergency departments to determine the number of cases of post exposure prophylaxis for rabies. The official’s action is an example of:

a) Active surveillance
b) Case finding
c) Outbreak investigation
d) Screening
e) Secondary prevention

A

a

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20
Q

An article highlighting the long‐term consequences of inadequately treated Lyme’s disease is published in a medical journal. After a summary of the article appears in popular newspapers and magazine, patients with joint pains begin insisting that their physicians test them for Lyme’s disease. Cases in which the test results are positive are reported as cases of Lyme borreliosis. This represents:

a) Outbreak investigation
b) An epidemic of Lyme borreliosis
c) A change in reporting that would underestimate incidence
d) A change in surveillance that would overestimate the prevalence
e) A change in screening that would underestimate the likelihood of an outbreak

A

d

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21
Q

Among elderly subjects who are physically fit, vigorous exercise reduces the risk of heart disease. Among elderly subject who are physically unfit, the initiation of vigorous exercise might precipitate a myocardial infarction. Fitness may be considered:

a) A positive confounder
b) A negative confounder
c) A necessary cause
d) A sufficient cause
e) An effect modifier

A

e

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22
Q

In the relationship between obesity and cardiovascular disease, what are hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia?

a) Confounders
b) Effect modifiers
c) Intervening variables
d) Necessary causes
e) Unrelated

A

c

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23
Q

When questioned years after an illness, individuals who served as cases reported more severe subjective symptoms than did those who served as controls. This probably an example of:

a) Confounding
b) Selection bias
c) Random error
d) Recall bias
e) Late-look bias

A

d

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24
Q

What is the relationship of asbestos to asbestosis?

a) Confounder
b) Effect modifier
c) Necessary cause
d) Sufficient cause
e) Synergism

A

c

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25
Q

The basic goal of epidemiologic research is to:

a) Describe associations between exposures and outcomes.
b) Identify sources of measurement error and bias.
c) Establish direct causality.
d) Maximize external validity.
e) Reject the alternative hypothesis.

A

a

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26
Q

Studies may be conducted to generate or test hypotheses. The “Gold Standard” for testing a hypothesis is a:

a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional survey
c) Longitudinal ecological study
d) Randomized controlled trial
e) Retrospective cohort study

A

d

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27
Q

The members of a public health team have a continuing interest in controlling measles infection through
vaccination. To estimate the level of immunity in a particular population in a quick and efficient manner, what type of study should they conduct?

a) Case-control study of measles infection
b) Cross-sectional survey of vaccination status
c) Randomized trial of measles vaccination
d) Retrospective cohort study of measles vaccination
e) Ecological study of measles in the population

A

b

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28
Q

A case‐control study may have a particular advantage over a cohort study when the disease in question is:

a) Fatal
b) Indolent
c) Infectious
d) Virulent
e) Rare

A

e

A cohort study may have a particular advantage over a case‐control study when the disease in question is: COMMON

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29
Q

A clinical research team recommends symptomatic treatment for a clinical toxidrome which has been shown to be effective in animal models. Now the team will test multiple dose levels of the FDA approved drug in a very small group of volunteers. Which of the designs would yield the most information and why?

A

Latin square because it effectively limits the number of ______(I don’t know what this last part is supposed to say) BUT THE ANSWER IS Latin square.

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30
Q

In Study 7B, the relative risk of skydiving among the exposed is:

A

3.6

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31
Q

A team of researchers hypothesize that watching “Barney” might lead to epilepsy in childhood. Children with and without epilepsy are compared on the basis of hours spent watching “Barney.” Which of the following statements best characterize the assessment of data in a study such as this?

a) Absolute and relative measures of risk can be derived
b) Risk factor status is the basis for comparison
c) The risk ratio cannot be calculated directly
d) The temporal association between exposure and outcome can be established with certainty
e) The use of healthy controls ensures external validity

A

c

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32
Q

The researchers in the previous question do not find statistically significant evidence that “Barney” produces epilepsy in childhood. Unwilling, however, to relinquish their line of reasoning, they hypothesize that the parents of children who watch “Barney” are more likely to develop migraine headaches. They assemble two groups of parents: one with children who watch “Barney” and one with children who destroy furniture instead of watching “Barney.” Which of the following is a characteristic of a study such as this?

a) Additional risk factors cannot be assessed as the study progresses
b) Internal validity is independent of confounders
c) Risk factor status does not serve as the basis for comparison
d) The relative risk cannot be calculated directly
e) The temporal association between exposure and outcome is uncertain

A

a

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33
Q

The risk of acquiring infection beta is 312 per 1000 among the unvaccinated and 7.2 per 1000 among the vaccinated. Approximately 80% of the population is exposed to the pathogen every year. Which of the following actions taken to develop policy would be incompatible with this information?

a) Consideration of the clinical significance (severity) of infection
b) Consideration of the cost of universal vaccination
c) Consideration of the side effects of vaccination
d) Reporting a risk reduction of 304.8 per 1000 attributable to vaccination
e) Reporting that the PAR% is 27

A

e

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34
Q

The likelihood ratio associated with the use of CK levels for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction varies with the?

a) Cutoff point
b) Degrees of freedom
c) Posterior probability
d) Value of alpha
e) Value of beta

A

a

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35
Q

As the sensitivity of a test increases, which of the following generally occurs?

a) The cutoff point decreases
b) The false-negative error rate increases
c) The false-positive error rate increases
d) The specificity increases
e) The statistical power decreases

A

c

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36
Q

Two radiologists interpret 100 mammograms. They agree that the results are normal in 70 mammograms and abnormal in 12 mammograms. In the remaining 18 cases, the first radiologist thinks that results are normal in 6 mammograms and abnormal in 12 mammograms, whereas the second radiologist thinks just the opposite. The value of an appropriate measurement of their agreement is (5 minutes on calculator!):

a) 6%
b) 16%
c) 26%
d) 46%
e) 86%

A

d

for cell a = [(a+b)(a+c)]/(a+b+c+d) =[(12+6)(12+12)]/(12+6+12+70) =4.32
for cell d = [(c+d)(b+d)]/(a+b+c+d)= [(12+70)(6+70)]/(12+6+12+70) =62.32
Based on the above numbers, the Ac and kappa can be calculated:
Ac=4.32+62.32 = 66.64
Kappa = (82-66.64)/(100-66.64) = 0.46 = 46%

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37
Q

Which of the following characteristics is most important in a screening test that is used to rule out a diagnosis?

a) A high degree of sensitivity
b) A high degree of specificity
c) A low false-negative error rate
d) A reasonable cost
e) Precision

A

a

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38
Q

Following the onset of blindness resulting from diabetic retinopathy, a 54‐yr old man seems depressed. When you question him regarding the quality of life, he dejectedly tells you that 10 yrs “like this” is not worth 1 yr of good health. His statement indicates:

a) His adjusted life expectancy is 76 years
b) His healthy life expectancy is 76 years
c) His healthy life expectancy cannot be calculated if he actually is depressed
d) Each year of his life contributes less than 0.1 QALY
e) Each year of his life contributes 10 QALY

A

d

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39
Q

Measures of health status traditionally have been based on mortality data but more recently on chronic diseases. The principal reason this is no longer satisfactory to focus on mortality is that:

a) Changes in diagnostic technology permit earlier detection of disease.
b) The infant mortality rate has declined so much that it no longer serves as a useful index.
c) The population is older and more subject to chronic illness than in the past.
d) There is less risk of fatal infection than in the past.
e) Traditional sources of mortality data have failed to include relevant subpopulations

A

c

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40
Q

Visceral protein malnutrition that tends to occur in developing nations during the weaning of children from breast milk is known as:

a) Anabolism
b) Anasarca
c) Cachexia
d) Kwashiorkor

A

d

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41
Q

Of the following environmental hazards, the only one categorized as a nonthreshold hazard is:

a) Carbon monoxide
b) Heat
c) Ionizing radiation
d) Lead
e) Noise

A

c

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42
Q

A modified influenza vaccine must be produced every year because of the antigenic drift of the influenza virus. of the following is appropriate for determining the efficacy of the vaccine for a particular year?

a) A randomized field trial
b) A retrospective cohort study
c) Administration of the vaccine by random assignment
d) Review of data from previous years
e) Routine surveillance

A

b

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43
Q

What characteristic must a disease have for its eradication to be feasible?

a) The disease must be epidemic rather than endemic
b) The disease must be geographically isolated
c) The disease must be spread by the fecal-oral route
d) The disease must lack an animal reservoir
e) The disease must lack an arthropod vector

A

d

44
Q

Data that are obtained through screening at health fairs are of little epidemiologic value because:

a) False-negative results might occur.
b) The condition is too common.
c) The necessary resources for treatment are in short supply.
d) The population at risk is unknown.
e) The treatment is invasive.

A

c

45
Q

An example of secondary prevention is:

a) detection and treatment of HTN
b) early treatment of diabetic nephropathy
c) folic acid supplementation of foods
d) percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
e) vaccination against hepatitis B

A

a

46
Q

A screening program designed to find candidates for liver transplantation would be ill‐advised because:

a) False-negative results might occur
b) The condition is common
c) The necessary resources for treatment are in short supply
d) The treatment is invasive

A

c

47
Q

There is controversy regarding the use of prostate‐specific antigen to screen for prostate cancer because:

a) Prostate cancer cannot be detected until it is symptomatic
b) Prostate cancer is a rare disease
c) Prostate cancer is uniformly fatal
d) The appropriate management of asymptomatic prostate cancer is uncertain
e) There is no effective treatment for prostate cancer

A

d

48
Q

What is an example of tertiary prevention?

a) Hospice care
b) Occupational therapy after a stroke (cerebrovascular accident)
c) Postexposure prophylaxis for rabies
d) Treatment of essential hypertension
e) Use of nasal decongestants

A

b

49
Q

Under which scenario is both tertiary and primary prevention most likely being practiced simultaneously?

a) Never, because primary and tertiary prevention are mutually exclusive
b) When a patient is treated for a hip fracture
c) When a patient is treated for active tuberculosis
d) When a patient is treated for cystitis
e) When a patient is treated for myocardial infarction

A

c

50
Q

Epidemiology is broadly defined as the study of factors that influence the health of population. The application of epidemiologic findings in populations for the prevention of non‐infectious disease in communities is:

A

Classical epidemiology

51
Q

What percentage of death certificate diagnoses are thought to be accurate?

A

80-85%

52
Q

Among elderly subjects who are physically fit, vigorous exercise reduces the risk of heart disease. Among elderly subject who are physically unfit, the initiation of vigorous exercise might precipitate a myocardial infarction. Exercise may be considered:

A

Risk Factor

53
Q

What is the relationship of smoking to lung cancer?

A

Risk factor
Reason: risk factor – if the factor is present, the probability that the effect will occur is increased. Lung cancer can occur without smoking, so smoking just increases the chances of getting lung cancer

54
Q

Which one of the following quality measures for diagnostic tests is most important in a confirmatory test that is used to rule in a diagnosis?

A

Answer: A high degree of sensitivity

Reason: “Spin” – is specificity is needed to rule in for confirmatory testing purposes.

55
Q

Clinical outcome of severe cryptospiridium disease was substantially worse for immunocompromised patients. Immunocompromised status is best described as?

a) Risk
b) Risk factor
c) Prognostic factor
d) Natural history etiology
e) None of the above

A

c

Reason it is C: prognostic factors are characteristics related to likelihood of survival used in predicting clinical outcomes (here it is predicting a worse clinical outcome).

56
Q

An unusually large number of incident cases of swine flu occurred for the first time in the U.S. the preceding year. This pattern of occurrence is best described as…

a) Natural occurrence
b) Prognostic outbreak
c) Sentinel case
d) Sentinel epidemic
e) Epidemic

A

e

Reason it is E: epidemic is outbreak (large number of incident cases)

57
Q

During a given year, 13 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 90,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about being a rock star and traveling the world. Of the 13 detected cases, 7 result in death. The ratio of 7/13 represents:

a) The case fatality ratio
b) The crude death rate
c) The pathogenicity
d) The standardized mortality ratio
e) Prevalence

A

a

Reason it is A: case fatality ratio is ratio of those who die in a specified time period (7 died of the 13 detected cases in given year)

58
Q

During a given year, 13 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 90,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about being a rock star and traveling the world.
To report the incidence rate of disease X, it would be necessary to know:

a) Nothing more than the data provided
b) The age distribution of the population
c) The case fatality ratio
d) The duration of the clinical illness
e) The midyear population at risk.

A

e

Reason it is E: incidence rate is a rate calculated as the number of incident cases over a defined study period, divided by the population at risk at the midpoint of that study period.

59
Q

During a given year, 13 cases of disease X are detected in a population of 90,000 college students. Many more students have mild symptoms of the disease, such as persistent daydreams about being a rock star and traveling the world.
To report the prevalence of disease X, it would be necessary to know:

A

The number of cases at a given time?

60
Q

A cohort study may have a particular advantage over a case‐control study when the disease in question is:

A

common

61
Q

A team of researchers hypothesize that watching “Barney” might lead to epilepsy in childhood. Children with and without epilepsy are compared on the basis of hours spent watching “Barney.” Which of the following statements best characterize the assessment of data in a case‐control study such as this?

A

Answer: The difference in level of exposure to a putative risk factor is the basis for comparison. (Case-controlled study)

62
Q

The researchers in the previous question do not find statistically significant evidence that “Barney” produces epilepsy in childhood. Unwilling, however, to relinquish their line of reasoning, they hypothesize that the parents of children who watch “Barney” are more likely to develop migraine headaches. They assemble two groups of parents: one with children
who watch “Barney” and one with children who destroy furniture instead of watching “Barney.” Which of the following is a characteristic of a study such as this?

A

Answer: Additional risk factors cannot be assessed as the study progresses. (cohort study)

63
Q

Cross‐sectional surveys are subject to Neyman bias, or ‘late look’ bias. This may be explained as the tendency to:

A

Answer: Detect the more indolent cases of a disease preferentially

64
Q

A screening program analogue to the ‘late look’ (Neyman bias) is:

A

Length Bias

65
Q

T/F
Since new death certificate coding rules went into effect in the mid‐1990’s, there has been a significant increase (6% up to 22%) in the miscoding of hypertension due to a general lack of use of the new coding guidelines thereby demonstrating that changing passive surveillance methods does not result in health professional’s compliance.

A

True

66
Q

T/F
Although there was a decrease in the summer influenza mortality rates associated with most underlying causes of death, the authors believed that it was not sufficient to prove a harvesting effect, and thereby they demonstrated the usefulness of examining absolute risk (plots of incidence cases) along with statistically derived models.

A

True

67
Q

T/F
The steps of an outbreak investigation were reasonably well executed in the post‐hoc active surveillance of the Siberia outbreak of encephalomyelitis, but the authors concluded that the endemic outbreak did not qualify as an epidemic even though the unusual occurrence of cases affected an expanding geographical area.

A

False

68
Q

T/F
You can test causality hypotheses longitudinal ecologic studies using either absolute risk or relative risk (e.g., a hazard ratio) measures as was demonstrated by the Hazards of Hazard Ratios paper from the Women’s Health Initiative randomized experiment because longitudinal ecologic studies can be used for testing hypotheses.

A

False

69
Q

T/F
As stated in the paper “Case‐Control Studies = Odds Ratios” almost all epidemiology students are taught to compute Odds Ratios as an estimate of relative risk for all case‐control studies unless it is a nested case‐control (a special case of cohort study) even though they can in many cases without much expense compute Risk Ratios instead.

A

False

70
Q

Epidemiology is broadly defined as the study of factors that influence the health of population. The application of epidemiologic findings in populations to decisions in the care of individual patients is:

a) Generally inappropriate
b) Known as clinical epidemiology
c) Limited to chronic disease epidemiology
d) Limited to infectious disease epidemiology
e) Subject to the ecologic fallacy.

A

b

71
Q

The BEINGS model is a useful paradigm for:

a) Allocating public health resources
b) Asserting the impact of herd immunity
c) Determining the role of social policy on public health
d) Establishing the importance of social contacts
e) Evaluating etiologic factors in disease.

A

e

72
Q

Widely publicized fatalities associated with an “emerging” disease (e.g., hantavirus pulmonary syndrome) may be an example of:

a) Active surveillance
b) Case finding
c) Iatrogenesis
d) The first responder effect
e) The iceberg phenomenon

A

e

73
Q

Which one of the following activities is beyond the scope of activities undertaken by epidemiologists?

a) Analyzing cost-effectiveness
b) Establishing modes of disease transmission
c) Preventing disease
d) Providing data for genetic counseling
e) Rationing health care resources

A

e

74
Q

Epidemiology is best defined as the study of:

A

Answer: Factor influencing occurrence/distribution of disease in human populations

75
Q

The mosquito involved in the transmission of malaria assumes the role of:

A

Vector

76
Q

Which one of the following types of data does epidemiology derive directly from the US census?

A

Denominator data for population based studies

77
Q

During a 3‐month period, hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is reported in nine individuals, and three of these individuals die. Which of the following calculations would be 33%?

A

Case fatality ratio

78
Q

Why does the epidemiologic year for hepatitis A run from January to January?

A

Fecal-oral transmission peaks in summer

79
Q

The adequacy of a health care system in a country is best measured by the:

A

Answer: Infant mortality rates

80
Q

What is the most appropriate sequence of action in an outbreak investigation?

A

Answer: Establish case definition; determine if epidemic exists; characterize epidemic based on time, place, and person, develop hypothesis for spread, initiate controls

81
Q

Among elderly subjects who are physically fit, vigorous exercise reduces the risk of heart disease. Among elderly subject who are physically unfit, the initiation of vigorous exercise might precipitate a myocardial infarction. Fitness may be considered:

a) A positive confounder
b) A negative confounder
c) A necessary cause
d) A sufficient cause
e) An effect modifier

A

e

82
Q

Studies may be conducted to generate or test hypotheses. The best design for testing a hypothesis is a:

A

Answer: Random controlled trial

83
Q

Cross‐sectional surveys are subject to the Neyman bias, or late look bias. This may be explained as the tendency to:

A

Answer: detect the more indolent cases of a disease preferentially

84
Q

A screening program analogue to the late look bias is:

A

Answer: Length bias (longer cases are more likely to be detected)

85
Q

Which of the following is a measure of the risk of having a risk factor?

A

Answer: Odds ratio

86
Q

A case‐control study may have a particular advantage over a cohort study when the disease in question is:

A

Answer: rare

87
Q

In a case‐control study that is being planned to study possible causes of myocardial infarction, patients with myocardial infarction serve as the cases. Which of the following would be a poor choice to serve as the controls?

A

Answer: Subject whose cardiac risk factors are smaller to those of the case

88
Q

The national Health and Nutrition Examination Surveys (NHANES) are conducted at intervals by the US government to establish trends in health related behaviors and dietary practices. NHANES III Phase 1, conducted from 1988 to 1991, showed a decline in the population’s mean fat intake from 37% of total calories to 34% of total calories. This type of research is an example of:

a) A longitudinal cohort study
b) A randomized field trial
c) A repeated cross-sectional study
d) A retrospective cohort study
e) Hypothesis testing

A

c

89
Q

You wish to determine the proportion of myocardial infarctions that are fatal within 24 hr of their occurrence. You decide to examine the records of all local emergency departments and physicians’ offices. You will then calculate the proportion of the reported myocardial infarctions that resulted in death 24 hr or less after the patient was initially seen. You briefly discuss your plan with a friendly neighborhood biostatistician, who immediately points out that your study is particularly subject to which one of the following forms of bias?

A

Late look at bias

90
Q

The Physicians’ Health Study was a randomized double‐blind, placebo‐controlled trial that was designed to test the effects of aspirin and beta carotene on cardiovascular disease and cancer. The participants in the trial consisted of approximately 22,000 male physicians who lived in the US and were 40 to 75 yr old. The randomization of participants in the study was performed to help achieve which of the following?

A

Answer: Prevention of confounding by known and unknown factors

91
Q

The likelihood ratio associated with the use of CK levels for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction varies with the?

a) Cutoff point
b) Degrees of freedom
c) Posterior probability
d) Value of alpha
e) Value of beta

A

a

92
Q

As the sensitivity of a test increases, which of the following generally occurs?

a) The cutoff point decreases
b) The false-negative error rate increases
c) The false-positive error rate increases
d) The specificity increases
e) The statistical power decreases

A

c

93
Q

Two radiologists interpret 100 mammograms. They agree that the results are normal in 70 mammograms and abnormal in 12 mammograms. In the remaining 18 cases, the first radiologist thinks that results are normal in 6 mammograms and abnormal in 12 mammograms, whereas the second radiologist thinks just the opposite. The value of an appropriate measurement of their agreement is:

a) 6%
b) 16%
c) 26%
d) 46%
e) 86%

A

d

94
Q

When a 2x2 table is used, the probability of disease in a patient with a negative test result is expressed as:

a) a/(a+c)
b) c/(a+c)
c) c/(c+d)
d) d/(c+d)
e) d

A

c

95
Q

Which of the following characteristics is most important in a screening test that is used to rule out a diagnosis?

a) A high degree of sensitivity
b) A high degree of specificity
c) A low false-negative error rate
d) A reasonable cost
e) Precision

A

a

96
Q

A study is conducted to determine the effects of drinking Mountain Dew on a teenager’s willingness to bungee jump from frightful heights. A total of 500 teenagers are assembled on the basis of bungee jumping status: 250 are jumpers, and 250 are not. Of the 250 jumpers, 150 report drinking Mountain Dew. Of the 250 nonjumpers, 50 report drinking Mountain Dew. Most of the nonjumpers report a preference for warm milk.
Which of the following statement is true?

A

Answer: This study can be used to calculate an odds ratio

97
Q

A study is conducted to determine the effects of drinking Mountain Dew on a teenager’s willingness to bungee jump from frightful heights. A total of 500 teenagers are assembled on the basis of bungee jumping status: 250 are jumpers, and 250 are not. Of the 250 jumpers, 150 report drinking Mountain Dew. Of the 250 nonjumpers, 50 report drinking Mountain Dew. Most of the nonjumpers report a preference for warm milk.
What is the absolute difference in the risk of jumping?

A

Answer: Cannot be calculated because it is a case control

98
Q

A study is conducted to determine the effects of drinking Mountain Dew on a teenager’s willingness to bungee jump from frightful heights. A total of 500 teenagers are assembled on the basis of bungee jumping status: 250 are jumpers, and 250 are not. Of the 250 jumpers, 150 report drinking Mountain Dew. Of the 250 nonjumpers, 50 report drinking Mountain Dew. Most of the nonjumpers report a preference for warm milk.
The odds ratio calculated from this study would give the odds of:

A

Answer: drinking among jumpers to drink among nonjumpers

99
Q

A study is conducted to determine the effects of drinking Mountain Dew on a teenager’s willingness to bungee jump from frightful heights. A total of 500 teenagers are assembled on the basis of bungee jumping status: 250 are jumpers, and 250 are not. Of the 250 jumpers, 150 report drinking Mountain Dew. Of the 250 nonjumpers, 50 report drinking Mountain Dew. Most of the nonjumpers report a preference for warm milk.
The odds ratio in this study is:

A

Answer: a measure of the risk of having the risk factor 6??

100
Q

A study is conducted to determine the effects of drinking Mountain Dew on a teenager’s willingness to bungee jump from frightful heights. A total of 500 teenagers are assembled on the basis of bungee jumping status: 250 are jumpers, and 250 are not. Of the 250 jumpers, 150 report drinking Mountain Dew. Of the 250 nonjumpers, 50 report drinking Mountain Dew. Most of the nonjumpers report a preference for warm milk.
The results of this study indicate that:

A

Answer: Bungee jumping and beverage choice are associated

101
Q

Having obtained your master’s degree in public health, not to mention a lifetime supply of Mountain Dew and you own initialized bungee cord, from conducting the study described in questions 4‐8, you decided to pursue a PhD, with further investigation if this proactive subject. Your study again involves time, however, you assemble the groups on the basis of their history of Mountain Dew consumption, and you prospectively determine the incidence rate of bungee jumping. You exclude subjects with a prior history of jumping. Over a 5‐year period, 135 of the exposed group and 38 of the unexposed group engage in jumping.
The relative risk of bungee jumping among the exposed is:

A

3.6

102
Q

Having obtained your master’s degree in public health, not to mention a lifetime supply of Mountain Dew and you own initialized bungee cord, from conducting the study described in questions 4‐8, you decided to pursue a PhD, with further investigation if this proactive subject. Your study again involves time, however, you assemble the groups on the basis of their history of Mountain Dew consumption, and you prospectively determine the incidence rate of bungee jumping. You exclude subjects with a prior history of jumping. Over a 5‐year period, 135 of the exposed group and 38 of the unexposed group engage in jumping.
Among bungee jumpers, what % of the total risk for jumping is due to consumption of Mountain Dew?

A

72.2%

AR% = [(RR-1)/RR] x 100 = [(3.6-1)/3.6] x 100 = 72.2%

103
Q

Assume that the risk of death in patients with untreated pneumonia is 15%, whereas the risk of death in patients with antibiotic‐treated pneumonia is 2%. Assume also that the risk of anaphylaxis with antibiotic treatment is 1%, whereas the risk without treatment is essentially 0%.
What is the NNT in this scenario?

A

7.7

104
Q

Assume that the risk of death in patients with untreated pneumonia is 15%, whereas the risk of death in patients with antibiotic‐treated pneumonia is 2%. Assume also that the risk of anaphylaxis with antibiotic treatment is 1%, whereas the risk without treatment is essentially 0%.
What is the NNH in this scenario?

A

100

105
Q

Assume that the risk of death in patients with untreated pneumonia is 15%, whereas the risk of death in patients with antibiotic‐treated pneumonia is 2%. Assume also that the risk of anaphylaxis with antibiotic treatment is 1%, whereas the risk without treatment is essentially 0%.
What would be the net result of intervention in this scenario?

A

13 pts saved fro each patient harmed

106
Q

You randomly assign subjects to 4 years of pharmacy school (intervention) or 4 years as understudies on an MTV reality series (control), and you test for evidence of metal health problems (outcome). After 4 years, of 100 subjects assigned to each condition, you find evidence of mental health problems in each condition, you find evidence of mental health problems in 12 in the pharmacy school group and 92 in the reality series group.
An appropriate ratio to compare the “protective effect” of pharmacy school without exaggeration is:

A

risk ratio

107
Q

You randomly assign subjects to 4 years of pharmacy school (intervention) or 4 years as understudies on an MTV reality series (control), and you test for evidence of metal health problems (outcome). After 4 years, of 100 subjects assigned to each condition, you find evidence of mental health problems in each condition, you find evidence of mental health problems in 12 in the pharmacy school group and 92 in the reality series group. The value of the ratio to compare the “protective effect” of pharmacy school without exaggeration is

A

0.13