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Physics > EOY Exams > Flashcards

EOY Exams Flashcards

1
Q

weight

A

mass x gravitational field strength

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2
Q

work done

A

force × distance (parallel to the force)

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3
Q

force applied to a spring

A

spring constant x extension

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4
Q

moment of a force

A

force x distance (perpendicular to object)

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5
Q

pressure

A

force normal to a surface/area of surface

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6
Q

distance travelled

A

speed × time

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7
Q

acceleration

A

change in velocity/time taken

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8
Q

resultant force

A

mass x acceleration

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9
Q

momentum

A

mass x velocity

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10
Q

kinetic energy

A

0.5 x mass × (speed)^2

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11
Q

gravitational potential energy

A

mass x gravitational field strength x height

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12
Q

power

A

energy transferred or work done / time taken

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13
Q

efficiency (energy)

A

useful output energy transfer/total input energy transfer

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14
Q

efficiency (power)

A

useful power output / total power input

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15
Q

wave speed

A

frequency × wavelength

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16
Q

density

A

mass/volume

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17
Q

Law of conservation of energy

A

energy cannot be created or destroyed

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18
Q

gpe > ke > heat and sound (on hitting the ground)

A

Energy transfers for a falling object

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19
Q

chemical > electrical > light and thermal

A

Energy transfers in a torch

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20
Q

chemical

A

The energy store in a battery

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21
Q

elastic potential energy

A

The energy store in a stretched bungee rope

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22
Q

Work is done by brake pads to overcome friction causing what energy transfer?

A

ke > thermal energy

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23
Q

m x g x h

A

equation for GPE

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24
Q

equation for EPE

A

1/2 x spring constant x extension ^2

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25
Q

useful energy

A

energy that is transferred to where it is wanted in the way that it is wanted

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26
Q

energy that is dissipated

A

energy that is wasted and spreads out into the surroundings, normally as heat energy

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27
Q

efficiency

A

the proportion of energy that gets transferred usefully

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28
Q

100%

A

the maximum efficiency possible when no energy is wasted

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29
Q

Ways to improve energy efficiency

A

lubrication, streamlining, low electrical resistance, reduce vibrations

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30
Q

Power

A

the rate of energy transfer (how quickly energy is changed into other forms)

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31
Q

Biofuel

A

any fuel taken from (recently) living organisms, e.g. wood, manure

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32
Q

renewable

A

a fuel that can be replaced as quickly as it used

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33
Q

carbon-neutral

A

the CO2 released into the atmosphere when it burns is equal to the energy removed from the atmosphere as the living organism was growing

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34
Q

Uranium or plutonium

A

nuclear fuels

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35
Q

unreliable as it’s not always windy so cant continually produce electricity

A

disadvantage of wind power

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36
Q

Solar cells

A

convert energy from the sun directly into electricity

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37
Q

solar heating panels

A

absorb energy from the sun to heat up water

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38
Q

geothermal energy

A

energy taken from hot rocks underground

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39
Q

disadvantage of nuclear power

A

radioactive waste is produced

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40
Q

fossil fuels

A

coal, gas, oil

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41
Q

non-renewable fuels

A

coal, gas, oil, nuclear

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42
Q

Carbon dioxide

A

the gas released when fuels are burnt that contributes to the greenhouse effect

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43
Q

What does energy transfer by conduction through a material depend on?

A
  • Its thermal conductivity
  • Greater thermal conductivity = More energy per second transferred
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44
Q

What do good insulators need?

A

Low thermal conductivity so that energy transfer through them is as low as possible

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45
Q

The energy transfer p/s through a layer of insulating material depends on

A
  • The temp. DIFFERENCE across the material
  • The THICKNESS of the material
  • the thermal CONDUCTIVITY of the material
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46
Q

To reduce the energy transfer as much as possible

A
  • Thermal conduc. of the insulating material should be as LOW as possible
  • The thickness of the insulating material should be as THICK as possible
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47
Q

Temperature rise depends on

A
  • The amount of energy supplied to it
  • Mass of the substance
  • What the substance is
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48
Q

Specific heat capacity

A
  • The energy needed to raise the temperature of 1kg of the substance by 1ºC
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49
Q

Energy transferred (joules) (in terms of SHC)

A

= Mass (kg) x Specific Heat Cap (J/kgC) x Temperature change (C)

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50
Q

Loft insulation

A
  • Fibreglass reduces the rate through the roof
  • The air between the fibres also helps to reduce the rate by CONDUCTION
  • Greater number of layers of insulation = Thicker insulation
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51
Q

Cavity wall insulation

A
  • Reduces the rate through the outer walls of the house
  • Space between the two layers of brick that make up the wall
  • Ventilation is pumped into the cavity and air is trapped into small pockets (CONDUCTION)
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52
Q

Aluminium foil

A
  • Between a radiator panel and the wall REFLECTS radiation away from the wall
  • Reduces the rate by RADIATION
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53
Q

Double-glazed windows

A
  • Two glass panes with dry air or a vacuum between the panes
  • Thicker glass = lower thermal conductivity = slower rate by CONDUCTION
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54
Q

External walls

A
  • Thicker bricks and lower thermal conductivity = lower rate inside to the outside = cost of heating is lower
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55
Q

Solar panels

A
  • Absorb infrared radiation from the sun
  • Generate electricity directly (solar panel cells) or heat water directly (solar heating panels)
  • In the northern hemisphere, it is fitted on a roof that faces SOUTH
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56
Q

Infrared radiation

A

Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths that are longer than visible light but shorter than microwaves around 700-1000nm

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57
Q

Properties of Dark, Matte surfaces

A

-Good emitters and absorbers of infrared radiation
-Transfer energy and cool down more quickly than the same surface painted shiny white

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58
Q

process of conduction in a metal

A

When metals are heated their free electrons gain kinetic energy and move through the metal, transferring energy by colliding with other particles.

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59
Q

process of conduction in a solid (non metal)

A

Particles gain kinetic energy when heated and vibrate more. This energy is passed to neighbouring particles and so energy is transferred through the solid

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60
Q

Evaporation

A

The change of a substance from a liquid to a gas- Evaporation takes place because the most energetic liquid molecules escape from the liquid’s surface and enter the air.

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61
Q

Why does evaporation cause cooling?

A

The most energetic liquid molecules escape from the liquids surface into the air and so the average kinetic energy of the remaining molecules is less. This causes the temperature of the liquid to decrease.

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62
Q

Ways to maximise the rate of energy transfer to keep things cool

A

To do this we may use things that
-Are good conductors
-Are painted dull black
-Have the air flow around them maximised

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63
Q

Ways to minimise the rate of energy transfer to keep things warm

A

To do this we may use things that
-Are good insulators
-Are white and shiny
-Prevent convection currents by trapping air in small pockets

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64
Q

The U-Value

A

Tells us how much energy per second passes through a material. The lower the U-value the better the material is as an insulator

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65
Q

power

A

Energy transferred / time

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66
Q

units of power

A

watts

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67
Q

equation linking mass, energy, change in temperature and specific heat capacity

A

𝐸=𝑚𝑐Δ𝜃

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68
Q

heat absorption

A

heat enters an object

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69
Q

emit

A

to give off

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70
Q

What are renewable energy sources?

A

energy sources that will never run out but, they don’t provide as much energy and some are unreliable

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71
Q

Give 5 examples of renewable energy sources

A

bio-fuels
wind
the sun
hydro-electricity
tides

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72
Q

How are fossil fuels obtained?

A

Fossil fuels are natural resources that form underground over millions of years that are, typically, brunt to provide energy

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73
Q

What are the three main fossil fuels?

A

coal oil and natural gas

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74
Q

What are the pros of fossil fuels?

A

They are reliable(there are lots of fossil fuels)
The cost of extracting and building fossil fuel power plants are cheap

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75
Q

What are the pros of nuclear power?

A

It is reliable and although nuclear power plants are costly to build, they are safe to decomposition

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76
Q

What are the cons of fossil fuels?

A

1)They create environmental problems because they release carbon dioxide into the air which contributes to the greenhouse effect and global warming.
2)oil spillages affect animals that live near and in the sea.
3)Burning coal and oil can release sulfur dioxide which causes acid rain

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77
Q

What are the cons of nuclear power?

A

it is clean but disposing waste products is expensive and difficult. There is always a risk of a disaster.

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78
Q

What are bio-fuels?

A

They are created from plant or animal products and can be burnt to produce electricity

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79
Q

What is a feature of bio-fuels that links to carbon?

A

bio fuels are carbon neutral because plants are planted at the same rate that they are burnt

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80
Q

Why are bio fuels fairly reliable?

A

they take a relatively short time to grow and can be grown at any time so they respond to immediate energy demands

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81
Q

What is a con of bio fuels?

A

The cost of them are very high because space and water is used to grow plants that are needed for food

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82
Q

How does some of the production of bio-fuels increase methane and carbon dioxide emission?

A

deforestation has occurred which increased methane and carbon dioxide emission as well as killing the habitats of animals

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83
Q

How do wind turbines produce electricity?

A

the wind power rotates the blades which produces electricity, there is no pollution

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84
Q

How much (roughly) are wind turbines?

A

the initial costs are quite high but the running costs are minimal

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85
Q

What are 4 disadvantages of wind turbines?

A

1)lots are needed to produce a substantial amount of power
2)they are noisy
3)they can spoil the view
4)they only work when it is windy so they cannot supply high demand electricity

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86
Q

How do solar panels work?

A

They are made from materials that use energy transferred by light to create an electric current

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87
Q

Where and what kind of objects are solar power usually used in?

A

remote places like road signs and satellites and only on a small scale like in homes

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88
Q

Does solar power cause pollution?

A

no

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89
Q

What are the costs of solar power like?

A

the initial costs are high but they have no running costs

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90
Q

What is disadvantage of solar power?

A

it is weather dependent because the sun is needed and solar power cannot be produced at dark times e.g at night

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91
Q

How is hydro electricity produced?

A

A valley is flooded with a big dam the rain water is caught and allowed out through turbines

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92
Q

Does hydro electricity produce pollution?

A

no

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93
Q

Why does hydro electricity impact the environment?

A

When the valley is flooded, habitats of species are damaged

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94
Q

What is a big advantage of hydro electricity?

A

it can immediately respond to increased electricity demand because more water can be let through the turbines to generate more electricity

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95
Q

what are the costs of hydroelectricity like? reliability?

A

the initial costs are high but there are minimal running costs and it is a reliable energy source

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96
Q

What are tidal barrages?

A

tidal barrages are big dams built across river estuaries with turbines in them

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97
Q

How do tidal barrages produce electricity?

A

As the tide comes in it fills up the estuary .The water is then let out through turbines at a controlled speed to generate electricity

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98
Q

What are 3 disadvantages of tidal barrages

A

1)they affect boat access
2)they can spoil the view
3)they alter the habitat for wildlife

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99
Q

How reliable are tidal barrages?

A

Tides occur twice a day so they are quite reliable but the height of the tide is a variable because barrages don’t work when the water level is the same on either side

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100
Q

what are the costs of tidal barrages?

A

initial costs are moderately high but there are no fuel costs and there are minimal running costs

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101
Q

Objects that have a _____ density than water will float in water

A

Lower

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102
Q

What is the density of water in kg/m^3?

A

1000

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103
Q

The particles of a solid are held next to each other in _____ positions

A

Fixed

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104
Q

Which state of matter cannot flow?

A

Solid

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105
Q

What state of matter has a fixed shape and volume?

A

Solid

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106
Q

Which state of matter is the least energetic?

A

Solid

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107
Q

The particles of a ______ move about randomly and are in contact with each other

A

Liquid

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108
Q

Which state of matter can flow, fits it’s containers shape, and has a fixed volume?

A

Liquid

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109
Q

The particles of a ___ move randomly and are far apart from each other

A

Gas

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110
Q

Which state of matter can flow, fills its container, and does not have a fixed volume?

A

Gas

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111
Q

Which state of matter is the most energetic?

A

Gas

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112
Q

When a substance changes state its ____ stays the same because the number of particles stay the same

A

Mass

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113
Q

While a substance changes state, its ___________ stays the same

A

Temperature

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114
Q

The ____ section of temperature-time graph gives the temperature of a state change

A

Flat

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115
Q

What is the change of state from a liquid to a gas known as?

A

Evaporation

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116
Q

What is the change of state from a solid to a liquid known as?

A

Melting

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117
Q

What is the change of state from a liquid to a solid known as?

A

Solidifying

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118
Q

What is the change of state from a gas to a liquid known as?

A

Condensing

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119
Q

What is the change of state from a solid to a gas known as?

A

Sublimation

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120
Q

What is the change of state from a gas to a solid known as?

A

Deposition

121
Q

The total kinetic and potential energy stored by the particles of a substance

A

Internal energy

122
Q

The amount of energy needed to change the state of 1kg of a substance at the temperature at which it changes state (without changing temperature)

A

Specific latent heat

123
Q

Specific latent heat of ______ involves a substance changing from a solid to a liquid

A

Fusion

124
Q

Specific latent heat of ____________ involves a substance changing from a liquid to a gas/vapour

A

Vaporisation

125
Q

Specific latent heat = Energy / ?

A

Mass

126
Q

The specific latent heat of water can be measured using a low-voltage ______ to heat the water

A

Heater

127
Q

___ ________ is caused by the random impacts of gas molecules on surfaces that are in contact with the gas

A

Gas pressure

128
Q

Increasing temperature increases gas pressure because energy is transferred to the gas, increasing the _______ energy of its particles and resulting in more collisions

A

Kinetic

129
Q

Increasing temperature increases gas pressure because the particles move faster so they hit the surfaces with a _______ _____

A

Higher force

130
Q

Increasing temperature increases gas pressure because the number of impacts per second of particles increases, so the _____ _____ of the impacts increases

A

Total force

131
Q

The unpredictable motion of smoke particles is evidence of the ______ motion of gas particles

A

Random

132
Q

For a fixed mass of gas at a constant temperature, its pressure is increased if its ______ is decreased

A

Volume

133
Q

For a fixed mass of gas at a constant temperature, reducing the volume of the gas _________ the number of particle impacts per second

A

Increases

134
Q

The temperature of a gas can ________ if it is compressed rapidly because work is done on it and the energy isn’t transferred quickly enough to its surroundings

A

Increase

135
Q

Boyle’s Law- Pressure x Volume is

A

Constant

136
Q

The temperature of a gas is related to the average _______ energy of the particles

A

Kinetic

137
Q

displacement

A

distance in a given direction

138
Q

driving force

A

driving force
force of a vehicle that makes it move (sometimes referred to as motive force)

139
Q

effort

A

the force applied to a device used to raise a weight or move an object

140
Q

force multiplier

A

a lever used so that a weight or force can be moved by a smaller force

141
Q

forces

A

(measured in newtons, N) can change the motion of an object

142
Q

free-body force diagram

A

a diagram that shows the forces acting on an object without any other objects or forces shown

143
Q

friction

A

the force opposing the relative motion of two solid surfaces in contact

144
Q

load

A

the weight of an object raised by a device used to lift the object, or the force applied by a device when it is used to shift an object

145
Q

magnitude

A

the size or amount of a physical quantity

146
Q

moment

A

the turning effect of a force defined by the equation: moment of a force (in newton metres, Nm) = force (in newtons, N) x perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action of the force (in metres, m)

147
Q

Newton’s first law of motion

A

if the resultant force on an object is zero, the object stays at rest if it is stationary, or it keeps moving with the same speed in the same direction

148
Q

Newton’s second law of motion

A

F=ma

149
Q

Newton’s third law of motion

A

when two objects interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other

150
Q

parallelogram of forces

A

a geometrical method used to find the resultant of two forces that do not act along the same line(draw parallelogram with force = distance (5 N = 5 cm) and make a parallelogram with distances and angles equal

151
Q

principle of moments

A

for an object in equilibrium, the sum of all the clockwise moments about any point = the sum of all the anti-clockwise moments about that point

152
Q

resultant force

A

a single force that has the same effect as all the forces acting on the object

153
Q

acceleration

A

The rate of change of velocity (in metres per second per second, m/s²).

154
Q

deceleration

A

The rate of change of velocity when an object slows down.

155
Q

displacement

A

Distance in a given direction.

156
Q

tangent

A

A straight line drawn to touch a point on a curve so it has the same gradient as the curve at that point.

157
Q

velocity

A

Speed in a given direction (in metres per second, m/s).

158
Q

distance-time graph

A

The gradient of this kind of graph represents the speed of an object.

159
Q

vector

A

A physical quantity that has direction as well as magnitude. e.g. velocity.

160
Q

scalar

A

A physical quantity that has magnitude, but not direction. e.g. speed.

161
Q

velocity-time graph

A

The gradient of this kind of graph represents the acceleration of an object. The area under the line represents the distance traveled.

162
Q

Directly proportional

A

A graph will show this if the line of best fit is a straight line through the origin

163
Q

Driving force

A

Force of a vehicle that makes it move (sometimes called motive force)

164
Q

Elastic

A

Able to regain its shape after it has been stretched or squashed

165
Q

Extension

A

The increase in length of a spring, or strip of material, from its original length

166
Q

Force multiplier

A

A lever used so the output force can be larger than the input

167
Q

Free body force diagram

A

Illustration showing all the forces acting on an object, with no other forces shown

168
Q

Friction

A

The force opposing the relative motion of two solid surfaces in contact

169
Q

Hooke’s Law

A

The extension of a spring is directly proportional to the force applied, as long as its limit of proportionality is not exceeded

170
Q

Inertia

A

The tendency of an object to stay at rest or to continue in uniform motion

171
Q

Limit of proportionality

A

Beyond this point, Hooke’s Law does not apply

172
Q

Magnitude

A

The size or amount of a physical quantity

173
Q

Newton’s First Law of Motion

A

If the resultant force on an object is zero, the object stays at rest if it is stationary, or keeps moving with the same speed in the same direction

174
Q

Newton’s Second Law of motion

A

The acceleration of an object is proportional to the resultant force on the object and inversely proportional to its mass

175
Q

Newton’s Third Law

A

When two objects interact with each other they exert equal and opposite forces on each other

176
Q

Resistive forces

A

Forces such as friction and resistance that oppose motion of an object

177
Q

Spring constant

A

Force per unit extension of a spring (number of newtons needed to stretch a spring by an extra 1m)

178
Q

What is a fluid?

A

liquid or gas

179
Q

direction of pressure on a surface in a liquid

A

90°

180
Q

State the equation that links area, force and pressure

A

F = P x A

181
Q

What are the units of pressure?

A

Pa or N/m²

182
Q

What is this equation used to calculate?
p=height of column x density x gravity

A

The pressure due to a fluid at a depth, h, below the surface of the liqiud

183
Q

What is the effect of increasing density, depth or gravity on the pressure in a fluid

A

pressure increases

184
Q

Explain why pressure increases with depth

A

The height of the column of fluid above the point increases so the weight of the fluid in the column increases.
P=F/A so if F increases (remember weight = force), P also increases.

185
Q

How would you calculate the pressure difference between 2 points in a fluid?

A

difference in pressure = difference in depth x density x gravity
(only if we can assume density is constant)

186
Q

Define upthrust

A

The resultant force on an object due to the difference in pressure between the top and bottom surfaces.

187
Q

Explain why an object would float

A

It has a density lower than the density of the fluid it is in
so Upthrust > weight of object

188
Q

Explain why and objects would sink

A

It has a density higher than the density of the fluid it is in
so Upthrust < weight of object

189
Q

How to calculate the upthrust on an object

A

Upthrust = the weight of the fluid displaced by the object
(=volume of object x density of fluid x g)

190
Q

Describe the pressure along a horizontal line in a fluid

A

Pressure is constant as there is the same depth hence weight of fluid above each point

191
Q

Water leaving holes in the side of a bottle

A

Water pressure is greater at greater depths so water will leave a lower hole at a greater acceleration and travel a greater distance

192
Q

1m² =

A

10000cm² (100 x 100)

193
Q

Change in atmospheric pressure with altitude

A

At higher altitudes, pressure decreases because the number of air molecules (the weight of air) above that point is less (as height of the column of air above that point and the density have decreased)

194
Q

What is the atmosphere?

A

A thin layer of air all round the Earth

195
Q

What creates atmospheric pressure?

A

Air molecules colliding with a surface

196
Q

Acts equally in all directions

A

Direction of pressure in a fluid (liquid or gas)

197
Q

Amplitude

A

The height of the wave crest or the depth of the wave trough from the position at rest

198
Q

Wavelength

A

The distance from one crest to the next crest, or from one trough to the next trough

199
Q

Frequency

A

The number of wave crests passing a point in one second

200
Q

Speed =

A

Frequency x wavelength

201
Q

Period =

A

1 / frequency

202
Q

Hertz

A

Unit of frequency

203
Q

Wavelength of longitudinal wave

A

Distance from the middle of one compression to the middle of the next.

204
Q

Frequency of longitudinal wave

A

The number of compressions passing a point in second

205
Q

We use waves for

A

Transferring energy and information

206
Q

Oscillation

A

Vibration

207
Q

Oscillation of a transverse wave

A

Is perpendicular to the direction of travel

208
Q

Oscillation of a longitudinal wave is

A

Parallel to the direction of travel

209
Q

Make up of a longitudinal wave

A

Compressions and rarefactions (molecules get closer together and further away respectively)

210
Q

Electromagnetic waves are all

A

Transverse waves

211
Q

Mechanical waves are

A

Transverse or Longitudinal

212
Q

Mechanical waves need

A

A medium to travel through (e.g. string, spring, sound waves)

213
Q

Refraction

A

When a wave crosses the boundary between two substances and changes speed and direction

214
Q

Reflection

A

Waves in a ripple tank meet an obstacle and bounce away at the same angle

215
Q

What is the speed of all electromagnetic waves?

A

300,000,000 m/s

216
Q

What is the relationship between energy and frequency?

A

The higher the frequency of a wave, the more energy it transfers

216
Q

Why is light from lamps and the sun called ‘white light’?

A

It contains all the colours of the visible spectrum

217
Q

How does the wavelength change from violet to red?

A

It increases

218
Q

How does a film camera work?

A

The light is focused by the camera lens onto a light sensitive film. The film then needs to be developed to see the image of the object that was photographed

219
Q

How does a digital/mobile phone camera work?

A

The light is focused by the lens onto a sensor which is made up of thousands of tiny light-sensitive cells called pixels. Each pixel gives a dot of the image and the image can be seen on a small screen at the back of the camera. When a photograph is taken, the image is stored electronically on a small memory card

220
Q

How does temperature affect infrared radiation emitted?

A

The hotter an object, the more infrared radiation it emits

221
Q

Why do optical fibres use infrared radiation instead of light?

A

Infrared is absorbed less than visible light in the glass fibres

222
Q

How do TV remote controls use infrared radiation?

A

When you press a button on the handset, it sends out a series of infrared pulses. Infrared radiation is used because infrared pulses can be produced and detected electronically

223
Q

How can infrared be used in medicine?

A

It can be used in scanners to show particularly hot areas of the body emitting more infrared which could indicate unhealthy tissue

224
Q

How can infrared radiation be used to monitor temperature?

A

Hotter objects emit more infrared radiation than cooler objects, so an infrared camera allows you to see which objects are emitting more infrared radiation

225
Q

How can infrared radiation be used to heat up objects (food) quickly?

A

Electric heaters contain long wires which heat up easily. These then emit infrared radiation and heat up the room quickly. Electric hobs heat up food faster than normal hobs because halogen hobs are designed to emit much more infrared radiation than normal ones

226
Q

How are microwaves used for communication?

A

Microwaves can pass through the atmosphere so they can reach satellites above the earth and so can be used for TV signals. They also carry mobile phone signals

227
Q

How are microwaves used for heating?

A

Microwaves penetrate into food and are absorbed by the water molecules, heating up the food. They heat food faster than ordinary ovens

228
Q

What are radio waves used for?

A

To carry TV, radio and mobile signals. You can use them instead of cables to connect a computer to a mouse or printer, e.g via Bluetooth

229
Q

Why can radio and microwaves be dangerous?

A

They can penetrate into the body, potentially heating up tissues

230
Q

How can infrared radiation be dangerous?

A

It can cause burns and skin damage

231
Q

What features do shorter wavelength radio waves have?

A
  1. the more information they carry
  2. the shorter their range (absorbed by the atmosphere)
  3. the less they spread out
232
Q

Why are microwaves used instead of radio waves for satellite communication?

A
  1. they can travel between earth and space as they can penetrate the watery atmosphere
  2. they have a longer range so the signal doesn’t weaken as much
233
Q

Why do scientists think mobile phone use should be limited?

A

They emit EM radiation which can be damaging especially to younger children with thinner skulls

234
Q

How do radios receive a signal?

A
  1. an oscillator supplies carrier waves in the form of an alternating current
  2. the audio signal is supplied to the transmitter where it’s used to modulate the carrier waves
  3. the modulated carrier waves are supplied to the aerial. The varying alternating current causes it to emit radio waves that carry the audio signal
  4. when they are absorbed by a receiver aerial, they induce an alternating current, which causes oscillations
  5. the receiver circuit separates the audio signal from the carrier waves which is then sent to a loudspeaker
235
Q

What are optical fibres?

A

Very thin glass fibres used to transmit information as infrared or visible light

236
Q

How do optical fibres compare to radio waves or microwaves?

A
  1. they carry much more information as light has a shorter wavelength than radio waves
  2. they are more secure as the signals stay in the fibre
237
Q

Give two uses of UV light

A
  1. security marker signs are used in security - they emit visible light in ultraviolet light
  2. energy efficient lightbulbs - they absorb UV light and emit visible light
238
Q

How are UV rays harmful to humans?

A

They can damage the eyes and cause blindness. They can also change the DNA of skin cells and cause skin cancer

239
Q

Why do x-rays and gamma rays have similar properties?

A
  1. they are at the short-wavelength end of the EM spectrum
  2. they carry much more energy per second than longer-wavelength EM waves
240
Q

How do x-rays differ from gamma rays?

A

X-rays are produced when particles moving at high speeds like electrons are stopped - x-ray tubes are used to produce x-rays. On the other hand, gamma rays are produced by radioactive substances when unstable nuclei release energy. Gamma rays also have shorter wavelengths, so can penetrate further into substances than x-rays

241
Q

How can gamma rays be used to kill bacteria?

A

Exposing food to gamma rays kills 99% of disease-carrying organisms. It can also be used to sterilise surgical equipment and prevent infection spreading in hospitals

242
Q

How can gamma rays be used to kill cancer cells?

A

A narrow beam of gamma rays from a radioactive source like cobalt-60 is fired directly at the tumour. The beam is aimed at it from different directions to kill the tumour but not the surrounding tissue

243
Q

What happens if a living cell becomes ionised?

A

It can damage or kill the cell and cause cancer. High doses kill cells, and low doses cause gene mutation and uncontrolled growth

244
Q

Why must people who work with ionising substances wear a film badge?

A

If this badge shows that it is over-exposed to ionising radiation, its wearer is not allowed to continue working with the equipment for a period of time

245
Q

Which types of tissue absorb x-rays and which do they pass through?

A

They pass through soft tissues but are absorbed by harder areas like bones and teeth

246
Q

Why does a radiograph show a ‘negative image’ of a bone?

A

The parts of the film or detector that the x-rays reach appear darker than the other parts. So the bones, which absorb x-rays, appear lighter than the surrounding tissue

247
Q

What does a contrast medium do?

A

It allows internal surfaces in the organ to be seen on the radiograph. The medium absorbs x-rays easily and so any organ consisting of soft tissue is filled with a contrast medium. For example, to obtain a stomach x-ray, the patient is given a barium meal before the x-ray as barium is a good absorber of x-rays

248
Q

Why are there lead plates between the patient and the tube?

A

They stop x-rays reaching other parts of the body. The x-rays reaching the patient pass through a gap between the lead plates

249
Q

What is a flat panel detector?

A

A small screen that contains a charged couple device (CCD). The sensors in the CCD convert x-rays to light which create electronic signals in the sensors which are then sent to a computer to produce an image

250
Q

What is radiation dose?

A

A measure of the damage done to their body as a result of exposure to ionising radiation

251
Q

Give three factors affecting radiation dose

A
  1. the time exposed for
  2. the type of radiation used
  3. the energy per second absorbed from the radiation
252
Q

How do x-rays used for imaging differ from x-rays used for treating cancer?

A

X-rays used for imaging carry much less energy than those for therapy. Low energy x-rays are suitable for imaging as they are absorbed by bones and teeth and pass through body tissues or gaps like cracks in bones. Low energy x-rays don’t contain enough energy to destroy tumours

253
Q

Angle of incidence

A

Angle between the incident ray and the normal

254
Q

Angle of reflection

A

Angle between the reflected ray and the normal

255
Q

Concave lens

A

A lens that makes parallel rays diverge (spread out)

256
Q

Converging lens

A

A lens that makes parallel light rays meet, sometimes also known as a convex lens

257
Q

Diffuse reflection

A

Reflection from a rough surface - the light rays are scattered in different directions

258
Q

Dispersion

A

The splitting of white light into the colours of the spectrum

259
Q

Diverging lens

A

A lens that makes light rays parallel to the axis spread out, also known as a concave lens

260
Q

Focal length

A

The distance from the centre of a lens to the point where the light rays parallel to the principal axis are focused (or, in the case of a diverging lens, appear to diverge from)

261
Q

Magnifying glass

A

Converging lens used to make a large image of a small object, which is placed between the lens and its focal point

262
Q

Normal

A

Straight line through a surface or boundary perpendicular to the surface boundary

263
Q

Opaque

A

Light cannot pass through

264
Q

Oscillate

A

Move to and fro about a certain position along a line

265
Q

Perpendicular

A

At right angles to

266
Q

Specular reflection

A

Each light ray bounces off a smooth surface in a single direction

267
Q

Total internal reflection

A

What happens when light hits a boundary between two transparent materials and all of it bounces back

268
Q

Translucent

A

Allows light to pass through but the light is scattered or reflected

269
Q

Transmission

A

When a wave passes through a substance

270
Q

Transparent

A

Transmits all incident light

271
Q

Transverse wave

A

A wave whose vibration is perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer (the wave direction)

272
Q

Vibrate

A

Oscillate (move to and fro) rapidly about a certain position

273
Q

Virtual image

A

An image seen in a lens or mirror that can’t be projected on a screen

274
Q

Wave speed

A

Distance travelled per second by a wave crest or trough, measured in m/s

275
Q

Wavelength

A

The distance from one wave crest to the next

276
Q

White light

A

Light made of all the colours of the spectrum

277
Q

Big Bang theory

A

The theory that the universe was created in a massive explosion and has been expanding ever since

278
Q

Black body radiation

A

The radiation emitted by a perfect black body (a body that absorbs all the radiation that hits it)

279
Q

Black dwarf

A

A star that has faded out and gone cold

280
Q

Black hole

A

An object in space that has so much mass that nothing, not even light, can escape from its gravitational field

281
Q

Centripetal force

A

The resultant force towards the centre acting on an object moving in a circular path

282
Q

Cosmic microwave background radiation

A

Electromagnetic radiation that has been travelling through space ever since it was created shortly after the Big Bang

283
Q

Dark matter

A

Matter in a galaxy that cannot be seen (its presence is deduced because galaxies would spin much faster if their stars were their only matter)

284
Q

Main sequence

A

Life stage of a star during which it radiates energy due to fusion of hydrogen nuclei in its core

285
Q

Mass

A

Quantity of matter in an object - a measure of the difficulty of changing the motion of an object, in kilograms (kg)

286
Q

Microwaves

A

Electromagnetic waves between infrared radiation and radio waves on the electromagnetic spectrum

287
Q

Neutron star

A

The highly compressed core of a massive star that remains after a supernova explosion

288
Q

Neutrons

A

Uncharged particles of the same mass as protons. Found in the nucleus of atoms.

289
Q

Nuclear fusion

A

The process where small nuclei are forced together to fuse and form a larger nucleus

290
Q

Pressure

A

Force per cross section area for a force acting on a surface at right angles to the surface, measured in pascals (Pa) or newtons per square metre (N/m^2).

291
Q

Protons

A

Positively charged particles with equal and opposite charge to the electron

292
Q

Protostar

A

The concentration of dust clouds and gas in space that forms a star

293
Q

Radio waves

A

Electromagnetic waves of wavelengths greater than 0.10 m

294
Q

Red giant

A

Star that has expanded, cooled and changed colour

295
Q

Red supergiant

A

A star much more massive than the Sun that has swollen out after the main sequence stage, before it collapses

296
Q

Redshift

A

Increase in the wavelength of electromagnetic waves emitted by a star or galaxy due to its motion away from us - the bigger the speed, the bigger the effect

297
Q

Supernova

A

The explosion of a massive star after fusion in its core ceases and the matter surrounding its core collapses into the centre and rebounds

298
Q

White dwarf

A

A star that has collapsed from the red giant stage to become much hotter and denser

Physics (6 decks)

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