EOR Topics to Review Flashcards

1
Q

Tx of choice for BPD in pregnant patients?

A

Atypical antipsychotics (b/c mood stabilizers are all CI d/t being teratogens)

If you HAVE to choose a mood stabilizer, lamotrigine is the best

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2
Q

how long do sx have to be present to make a diagnosis of delusional disorder?

A

1 month

(sx include: usually NONBIZARRE delusions that do not impair functioning and cannot be attributed to a different medical condition)

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3
Q

Erotomanic delusions

A

Belief that another person is in love with the individual

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4
Q

Grandiose delusions

A

Conviction of having some great talent or insight

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5
Q

Jealous delusions

A

Delusion that partner is unfaithful when they have no reason/evidence to do so

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6
Q

Persecutory delusions

A

Belief that they are being conspired against, spied on, poisoned, etc.

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7
Q

Somatic delusions

A

Delusions about bodily functions or sensations

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8
Q

Bizarre delusions

A

Content is clearly implausible, not understandable and not derived from ordinary life experiences (eg. government placed a chip in brain)

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9
Q

Schizophrenia risk factors

A
  • Male sex
  • Born in late winter or early spring (March)
  • Living in industrialized communities
  • Cannabis use!!!! HUGE ONE
  • Paternal age > 50
  • Pregnancy complications: Maternal infection, malnutrition, hemorrhage, hypoxia or ABO incompatibility
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10
Q

Delusion of reference

A

Belief that a random event in life is specifically directed at an individual (i.e. news reporting speaking directly to someone)

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11
Q

Nihilistic delusion

A

Belief that one is dead or their body is breaking down

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12
Q

Paranoid delusion

A

Persistent false beliefs that others are out to get them

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13
Q

Which 2nd gen antipsychotics cause the LEAST weight gain

A

Lurasidone, aripiprazole, ziprasidone

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14
Q

Main ADR of 2nd gen antipsychotics + monitoring parameters

A
  • Metabolic changes (diabetes, hyperlipidemia)
  • QTc prolongation

Monitor with fasting BG or an A1C, lipid panel

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15
Q

First line treatment of delusional disorder

A

2nd gen antipsychotics such as aripiprazole (adjunctive psychotherapy, CBT an option)

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15
Q

Clozapine ADRs

A
  • Cardiotoxic: causes mitral valve incompetence, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, QT prolongation, can cause bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension/syncope, cardiac arrest
  • PE
  • Agranulocytosis (rec that pts have > 1500 neutrophil count before starting clozapine), therefore MONITOR WITH WEEKLY CBC
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16
Q

Clozapine indications?

A

Patients who are refractory to MANY other antipsychotic treatment options or display persistent self injurious or suicidal behaviors

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17
Q

Risperidone ADRs

A
  • Hyperprolactinemia, gynecomasstia
  • Extrapyramidal sx (though less frequent than 1st gen)
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18
Q

Which antipsychotic is most well known for causing weight gain?

A

Olanzapine
(THINK: “O” in olanzapine stands for rOund)

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19
Q

Most concerning ADRs of 1st gen antipsychotics

A

EPS, tardive dyskinesia with chronic use

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20
Q

Treatment for acute dystonia after administration of first generation antipsychotic

A

Diphenhydramine (benadryl) – balances cholinergic and dopaminergic activity to help correct dopamine imbalance caused by antipsychotic administration

Can also use benztropine

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21
Q

Hallmark findings of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Fever
Lead pipe (muscle) rigidity
AMS
Autonomic instability

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22
Q

What is verbigeration?

A

Compulsive repetition of seemingly meaningless words/phrases w/o regard to stimuli

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23
Q

Difference between verbigeration and echolalia?

A

Verbigeration = random repetition

Echolalia = repetition of words uttered by someone else, usually during conversation/interview with patient

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24
Q

Tangential speech

A

Patient discusses many unrelated topics, never arrives at an appropriate answer

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25
Q

Circumstantial speech

A

Patient discussed many unrelated topics BEFORE arriving at the appropriate answer

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26
Q

Neologisms

A

Creation of new idiosyncratic words

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27
Q

Which 2nd gen antipsychotic has highest potential for misuse and is the most sedating?

A

Seroquel (quetiapine)

***avoid in patients with history of substance abuse

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28
Q

Which of the following is the most common substance used by patients with schizophrenia?

A) Tobacco
B) Cocaine
C) Alcohol
D) Cannabis

A

A – up to 90% of patients

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29
Q

Treatment of EPS

A

Depends on manifestation of EPS symptoms:

  • Parkinsonian EPS symptoms: treat with amantadine or benztropine (though increased risk in pts with glaucoma or cognitive impairment)
  • Dystonia (involuntary muscle contractions): treat with diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine
  • Akathisia (feeling/motor restlessness): treat with propranolol
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30
Q

Distinguishing schizoaffective disorder versus schizophrenia

A

Presence of manic or depressive episode indicates schizoaffective disorder

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31
Q

Presentation of synthetic cannabinoids

A

Anxious: diaphoretic, hypertension (or hypo), tachycardia (or brady), angina, N/V

Psychotic: delusions, paranoia, hallucinations, AMS, avoidance of eye contact

Can also present w extreme muscle rigidity c/w rhabdo

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32
Q

Why cant you detect synthetic cannabinoids on drug screen?

A

Structurally dissimilar from naturally occurring marijuana, only detectable on a liquid/gas chromotography mass spectrometry

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33
Q

What is the indication for lamotrigine?

A

Maintenance management of BPD II, helps stabilize mood fluctuations

NOT USED FOR ACUTE MANIA MANAGEMENT

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34
Q

Which mood stabilizers can cause neural tube defects?

A

Valproate and carbamazepine (though stronger association for valproate)

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35
Q

Which mood stabilizer requires hla testing (in patients of Asian descent)?

A

Carbamazepine (and also lamotrigine) b/c it looks at likelihood of developing SJS or TEN

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36
Q

Which mood stabilizer is suicide protective?

A

Lithium

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37
Q

Treatment options for acute manic episode

A

Antipsychotic (olanzapine, seroquel) + lithium

antipsychotic + valproate if lithum is CI (i.e. in CKD)

No valproate in patients trying to become pregnant d/t teratogenicity, also avoid in pts with chronic liver injury d/t hepatotoxicity

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38
Q

ADRs of valproate

A

N/V, hair loss, easy bruising, weight gain

RARE but SERIOUS: pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity (elevated LFTs), TCP – monitor LFTs every 6-12 mos

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39
Q

Which mood stabilizer is associated with cardiovascular abnormalities including Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Lithium

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40
Q

BPD I versus BPD II diagnostic criteria

A

BPD I: mania (sx for > 1 week OR manic sx requiring hospitalization) +/- depressive sx

BPD II: hypomania (sx for at least 4 days) that does NOT result in marked social impairment + AT LEAST ONE major depressive episode

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41
Q

Which mood stabilizers can cause SJS/TEN?

A

Lamotrigine and carbamazepine

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42
Q

What meds can INCREASE lithium levels?

A

ACEi, NSAIDs, thiazides, tetracyclines and metronidazole

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43
Q

Which SSRI is considered to be the most sedating?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

THINK: paroxetine makes you fat and sleepy

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44
Q

Biggest ADR of citalopram

A

QT prolongation

(THINK: It takes a LONG (QT) time to get out of the CITy(alopram)

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45
Q

Best treatment for social anxiety disorder with FREQUENT sx?

A

CBT, SSRI (sertraline)

Propranolol or lorazepam can be used if sx are infrequent or for single occurrences

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46
Q

GAD treatment algorithm

A

1st line for long term mgmt: SSRI (lexapro, zoloft) or SNRI (venlafaxine)

Acute: can augment SSRI/SNRI with buspirone and/or benzos

Pts refractory to SNRI/SSRIs can be started on long term benzos assuming no history of substance misuse

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47
Q

When can you use buspirone as adjunctive therapy for GAD?

A

In patients with partial response to SSRIs (i.e. has been on sertraline for 6 months with only mild improvement)

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48
Q

When is CBT versus SSRIs considered first line for phobias?

A

CBT with real world exposure therapy always first line UNLESS pt has social phobia – then manage with long term SSRI, adjunctive buspirone and/or benzos

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49
Q

What is the SADPERSONS mnemonic?

A

Good for assessing suicide risk

Sex (M > F)
Age (< 19 or > 45)
Depression or hopelessness

Previous attempts – STRONGEST INDICATOR!!!
Excessive alcohol use
Rational thinking impaired
Separated or divorced marital status
Organized or serious attempt previously
No social support (aka isolation)
Stated future intent

> /= 6 means HIGH RISK

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50
Q

MDD risk factors

A
  • First degree relative with history of depression
  • Childhood trauma (sexual, physical, emotional)
  • Separated/widowed/divorced
  • F > M
  • Recent life stressors (family death, divorce, job loss, etc.)
  • Postpartum status
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51
Q

ADRs of mirtazapine

A

Most notable: weight gain, sedation (opposite of SSRIs)

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52
Q

When is mirtazapine indicated for treating depression?

A

Pts who have insomnia or sexual dysfunction 2/2 SSRIs

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53
Q

Serotonin syndrome treatment

A
  • D/c offending agent
  • Benzos (2 mg lorazepam) for short term sedation
  • Cyproheptadine (serotonin agonist)if unresponsive or only mildly responsive to benzos
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54
Q

Serotonin syndrome classic triad of presentation

A
  • AMS (agitated, anxious)
  • Neuromuscular excitation (CLONUS, DTR hyperreflexia, tremors, akathisia)
  • Increased sympathetic activity (tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, mydriasis)
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55
Q

Which SSRI has the longest half life?

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac) and therefore has the lowest risk of SSRI discontinuation syndrome

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56
Q

What are the 5 C’s of TCAs?

A

Chubby (weight gain occurs d/t histamine blockage, which causes an increase in appetite)
Cardiotoxic (pro-arrhythmic, orthostatic hypotension)
Cutie (QTc prolonged)
Convulsions (decreases seizure threshold)
AntiCholinergic (dry mouth, erythema/flushing, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia)

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57
Q

TCA MOA

A

Nonselective inhibition of NE and serotonin reuptake (also impacts 5HT receptors, alpha 1, anticholinergic, histamine and Na+ channels)

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58
Q

What are the MAO inhibitors?

A

Tranylcypromine
Isocarboxazid
Phenelzine
Selegiline

(THINK: TIPS)

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59
Q

Major ADRs of MAO inhibitors?

A

LARGE risk of serotonin syndrome

Also risk of hypertensive crisis, need to eliminate tyramine rich foods from diet (fermented foods)

***need to wait 2 weeks before starting and after stopping these meds to make dietary changes to avoid SS or hypertensive crisis

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60
Q

How do you transition to MAO use?

A

Need to have completely been off antidepressants for 2 weeks prior to starting a MAO inhibitor (avoid SS and hypertensive crisis)

***unless fluoxetine, which must be d/c 5 weeks prior

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61
Q

Absolute CI to ECT?

A

Brain tumor leading to increased ICP

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62
Q

Protective factors against suicide?

A

Higher SES

Pharmacologic: clozapine for individuals with schizophrenia + recurrent attempts; lithium for individuals with BPD + recurrent attempts

LITHIUM IS SUICIDE PROTECTIVE!

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63
Q

Best two SSRIs for pts who are breastfeeding?

A

Sertraline (zoloft) and paroxetine (Paxil)

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64
Q

Distinguishing MDD and PDD?

A

If MDD lasts for more than 2 years, is refractory to treatment and is present more days than not, it is considered PDD now

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65
Q

When is bupropion used as first line for depression tx?

A

In patients who have a history of sexual dysfunction or have concomitant tobacco use or have coexisting neuropathic pain

(THINK: if you want to BUMP and GRIND, use bupropion)

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66
Q

How do long do pts need to be treated with SSRIs and psychotherapy for PDD?

A

Indefinite amount of time

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67
Q

How long do grief symptoms have to last to be considered complicated bereavement?

A

More than 12 months

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68
Q

Core features of narcissistic personality disorder?

A
  • Grandiosity
  • Inflated but fragile self image
  • Manipulative/exploitative and superficial relationships
  • Need for admiration (often avoid situations – promotions, jobs, etc. – that would make them open to criticism)
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69
Q

What are the cluster C personality disorders?

THINK: anxious and fearful, sometimes sad

A

Avoidant
Dependent
Obsessive compulsive

THINK: ADO is in cluster C

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70
Q

Treatment of choice for borderline personality disorder?

A

DBT!!!

Pharmacologics not really indicated as 1st line, fluoxetine can be used as adjunct for patients with co-existing depression

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71
Q

Major difference between oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

A

Pts with conduct disorder purposely harm others, animals without remorse for others

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72
Q

How to differentiate bipolar versus borderline?

A

Bipolar sx last longer (at least a week) and are typically less labile, versus extreme fluctuations in mood throughout a single day with borderline

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73
Q

T or F: OCPD is marked by obsessions and compulsions

A

FALSE, this is more c/w OCD. OCPD is more focused on being perfect and rigid routines at the expense of own happiness and interpersonal relationships

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74
Q

Cluster B personality disorders

THINK: dramatic, emotional and erratic

A

Histrionic
Borderline
Narcissistic
Antisocial

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75
Q

When do you use pharmacologic treatment for schizotypal personality disorder?

A

When trying to address severe disorganization and/or inattention

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76
Q

Pharmacologic treatment of choice for schizotypal disorder?

A

Quetiapine (also helps decrease anxiety)

77
Q

Examples of the clinical manifestations of schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Ideas of reference (i.e. thinking Magic 8 ball is talking to pt specifically)
Poor hygiene practices
Chronic history of being nervous, distrustful, shy
Disorganized/messy
Lack of attention to detail

78
Q

What are the cluster A personality disorders?

THINK: Odd and eccentric

A

Paranoid
Schizotypal
Schizoid

79
Q

When is pharmacotherapy useful in patients with antisocial personality disorder?

A

In patients with SEVERE AGGRESSION – can offer 2nd gen antipsychotics (i.e risperidone or quetiapine)

80
Q

Which antipsychotics are ok to use in kids with autism?

A

Risperidone and aripiprazole

81
Q

What happens to cholesterol levels in anorexia nervosa?

A

Total cholesterol increases as a result of increased HDL production as a cardioprotective mechanism

81
Q

Which 2nd gen antipsychotic has the highest likelihood of causing tardive dyskinesia?

A

Risperidone

82
Q

Describe tardive dyskinesia

A

Hyperkinetic movement disorder that has a DELAYED ONSET and appears after prolonged antipsychotic use

  • Repetitive facial movements (chewing, lip smacking) is common
83
Q

Panic disorder risk factors

A
  • Smoking during childhood
  • Sexual or physical abuse during childhood
  • Neuroticism personality trait
  • Family history of panic disorder
84
Q

Delusional disorder versus paranoid personality disorder?

A

Paranoid personality = paranoia is more generalized and can wax/wane

Delusional = specific/focused nature of delusions on one certain thing

85
Q

What is the MCC of oral leukoplakia

A

Tobacco use

Oral leukoplakia = painless white patch with well defined IRREGULAR BORDERS on tongue, not able to be scraped off – must confirm diagnosis with a biopsy

86
Q

THC (delta 9 tetrahydrocannabinol) MOA

A

Partial agonist at the cannabinoid 1 and 2 receptors

Cannabinoid 1 receptors are responsible for controlling the body’s brain reward system, and stimulation of these receptors is what can cause marijuana abuse

87
Q

What is the best pharmacologic option in a patient with ADHD who has history of substance or alcohol use disorder?

A

Atomoxetine (want to avoid stimulants like amphetamines or methylphenidate)

88
Q

What is akathisia?

A

Feeling of or true motor restlessness that is not relieved with movement

89
Q

How do you treat akathisia?

A

Cautious reduction of antispychotic dose OR if dose can’t be reduced, treat with BBs, benztropine or benzos

90
Q

Which antipsychotics have the lowest risk of TD?

A

Quetiapine and clozapine

91
Q

Loose associations

A

Switching from one topic to another inappropriately, a/w schizophrenia

92
Q

What is the dose relationship when starting an SSRI for GAD versus MDD?

A

Dose for GAD should be HALF of what the starting dose is for MDD

93
Q

1st line pharm treatment for PCP intoxication

A

Benzos, midazolam in particular because it is so fast acting
Cooling
IV fluids

94
Q

Treatment of narcissistic personality disorder

A

Contract between patient and provider on acceptable communication

Pharmacologic intervention if pt is physically aggressive can be warranted (mood stabilizers)

Psychotherapy is FIRST LINE

95
Q

What med is a first line treatment of mild to moderate body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Fluoxetine (in combination with CBT)

96
Q

What substance should you think of if pt has bad breath or body odor when sx arise?

A

Solvent inhalation

97
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder versus conduct disorder

A

Oppositional doesn’t typically involve violence, more focused on vindictiveness and an angry/irritable mood

Conduct = complete disregard for others, laws, authority, etc.

98
Q

Cyclothmic disorder diagnostic criteria

A

Multiple hypomanic episodes that are never gone for more than 2 months over at least a 2 year period; sx cause psychosocial impairment

like a more mild form of BPD

99
Q

What labs should you order to r/o physiologic causes of panic attacks and to make an accurate diagnosis of panic disorder?

A

TSH, CMP, CBC (looking for anemia, infection, hyperthyroidism, hypoglycemia or lyte imbalance)

Cannot make panic disorder diagnosis without ruling physiologic causes out first! Diagnosis of exclusion

100
Q

First line therapy for males with pedophilic disorder

A

IM medroxyprogesterone or leuprolide acetate (hormonal therapies that decrease testosterone production and libido)

101
Q

Depression and/or mania sx + hallucinations, delusions should make you think…

A

Schizoaffective disorder

102
Q

T or F: if a patient has an episode where all of the elements of schizophrenia are met, but the symptoms do not persist for at least 6 months, it is considered schizophreniform disorder

103
Q

Timeline for schizophreniform disorder

A

Sx for more than 1 month but less than 6 months

104
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder often coexists with…

A

ADHD (~50%)

105
Q

T or F: The presence of people is the root of the development of fear/anxiety for those with social anxiety disorder

A

True. These pts would feel more comfortable in the same situation if people were NOT present, versus in agoraphobia regardless of whether or not people are at a venue, they are still anxious because their fear is being unable to escape or leave should they have a panic attack

106
Q

What is the greatest contributor to increased likelihood of relapse after being treated for MDD?

A

Childhood maltreatment

Risk of recurrence is greatest within the first few months after treatment

107
Q

Key word to clue you into opiate withdrawal

A

Increased lacrimation, yawning

108
Q

When would ECT be considered first line for BPD treatment?

A

If pt has major depressive episode with malignant catatonia (decreased response to external environment, signs of autonomic instability)

109
Q

Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of which neurotransmitters?

A

Dopamine and norepinephrine

110
Q

What must you do before starting methylphenidate?

A

Full cardiac eval

111
Q

Vicarious acquisition versus direct bias versus informational transmission as modes of developing phobias

A

Vicarious acquisition = observing or seeing someone react to something

Informational transmission = hearing anecdotes about other people

Direct bias = fear develops after inciting event happens to you

112
Q

Treatment of choice for pain mgmt in patients with hx of opioid use disorder?

A

1st line long term treatment = opioid agonist (such as buprenorphine or methadone) + naloxone

***this is ok to use in pregnancy

113
Q

What substance is excessive yawning associated with?

A

Opioid withdrawal

114
Q

Difference in MOA between benzos and barbituates (both sedatives)?

A

Benzos: increase FREQUENCY of chloride channel opening (to allow for hyperpolarization more often)

Barbituates: increase DURATION of chloride channel opening (to allow for longer hyperpolarization periods)

THINK: Ben wants it to happen more often, but Barb wants it to last longer

115
Q

What intoxication should you think of with tactile hallucinations?

A

Cocaine or methamphetamine intoxciation (think of stimulants with this presentation, more a/w cocaine but could be either)

116
Q

Which substance should you think of with rotatory nystagmus?

A

Phencyclidine (PCP)

THINK: the cycl in phencyclidine signals that the eyes move in a circular motionW

117
Q

What should you think of when you hear bruxism in regards to substances?

A

MDMA or meth

Bruxism = grinding, clenching or mashing teeth together

THINK: bruxisMMMM – the M substances

118
Q

What substance should you think of when you see miosis, aka pinpoint pupils?

A

Opioid intoxication OR stimulant withdrawal

119
Q

What substance should you think of with excessive thirst?

A

MDMA intoxication (d/t serotonergic effects, hyponatremia)

120
Q

Potentially life threatening AE of methadone?

A

QT prolongation – progression to Torsades

Other non life-threatening AEs: constipation, sweating, drowsiness, peripheral edema

Methadone is a long acting opioid agonist that acts on mu receptors

121
Q

Treatment of choice for cannabis withdrawal

A

Mild sx - none (encourage relaxation techniques)
Moderate to severe - dronabinol or gabapentin

122
Q

Common ADRs of varenicline?

A

Nausea/vomiting
HA
Insomnia
Abnormal dreams!!!

MOA: decreases cravings and withdrawal sx by blocking nicotinic ACh receptors and stimulating dopamine activity to a lesser degree than nicotine does

123
Q

Benzo withdrawal sx

A

Hyperacusis and photosensitivity!!
Seizures in prolonged instances
Autonomic instability (HTN, tachycardia, tachypneic, febrile)
N/V

124
Q

What medication is used to treat benzo overdose/intoxication?

Think severe respiratory slowing, constipation, lethargy, etc.

A

Flumazenil

125
Q

What medication class should you avoid in the sitting of cocaine intoxication?

A

Beta blockers – c/f extreme HTN and coronary artery vasoconstriction with unopposed alpha adrenergic stimulation

126
Q

Complications of acute and chronic inhalant use

A

Acute: think CARDIAC – vent tachydysrhythmias, myocarditis, sudden cardiac death

Chronic: leukoencephalopathy, myeloneuropathy, hepatotoxicity

127
Q

What are the two naturally occurring opioids?

A

Morphine and opium – important to know bc these are the only opioids that will show up positive on a routine drug screen (i.e. urine drug testing)

128
Q

Qualifications for “risky” alcohol use based on gender

A

Males: >/= 5 drinks per day or >/= 15 per week

Females: >/= 4 drinks per day or >/= 8 per week

129
Q

Mild alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A

Tachycardia
Diaphoresis
Tremors
N/V
Anxiety
Mild agitation
Insomnia
Alcohol craving
HA

Once hallucinations, seizures, DTs present = moderate to severe withdrawal

130
Q

Wernicke Korsakoff presentation triad (vitamin B1, aka thiamine, deficiency, common in alcoholics)

A

Ophthalmoplegia or oculomotor dysfunction
Encephalopathy (AMS)
Gait ataxia

131
Q

Alcohol withdrawal treatment based on CIWA scores

A

< 8 (mild) = no benzos needed
9 -15 (moderate) = benzos q2h
>/= 16 (severe) = benzos hourly

132
Q

How do you treat HTN 2/2 amphetamines?

A

Lorazepam = 1st line
Nitroprusside, phentolamine = 2nd line

133
Q

What 2 oral medications can help discourage alcohol use?

A

Naltrexone and disulfiram

134
Q

T or F: Bupropion is the first line treatment for smoking cessation in pregnant patients

A

FALSE. First line tx = behavioral interventions, no evidence that bupropion is effective during preg

135
Q

MC manifestation of cannabis withdrawal

A

Insomnia/disturbed sleep – can be treated with zolpidem

136
Q

Best treatment for acute opioid withdrawal

A

Symptom control – antidiarrheals, antiemetics, antipyretics, CLONIDINE for HTN, IV lorazepam

137
Q

Treatment of malingering

A

Subtle confrontation

138
Q

Treatment of somatic symptom disorder

A

FIRST = regularly scheduled follow ups

CBT or DBT once pt is ready to make behavioral changes

139
Q

Illness anxiety disorder versus somatic symptom disorder

A

Illness anxiety = fixed on developing a certain disease or medical condition; may or may not have sx, MILD somatic sx if at all present. More focused on future worsening of health

Somatic symptom = sx are the MAIN CC/core finding

140
Q

Difference between factitious and malingering

A

Factitious = intentional falsification without apparent secondary/external gain; tx = psychotherapy

Malingering = falsification with goal of secondary gain, often will not consent to diagnostic testing; tx = subtle confrontation

141
Q

First line treatment of PTSD

A

CBT ALONE, can add pharmacotherapy (SSRI, SNRI) if refractory

142
Q

What is the new term for Munchausen by proxy?

A

Medical child abuse (aka factitious disorder imposed on someone else)

143
Q

What’s the most common manifestation of adjustment disorder?

A

Maladaptive behaviors (alcohol or substance use to relieve anxiety)

144
Q

Pharmacologic treatment for insomnia

A

If refractory to CBT and practicing good sleep hygiene, can try DOXEPIN, which is long acting and helps people stay asleep

Short acting options (the Z drugs: zaleplon, zolpidem, eszopiclone) are used to help initiate sleep

145
Q

Which of the following is a common predisposing factor in the development of PTSD?

A) Being married
B) Female sex
C) Higher SES
D) Older age at time of trauma

A

B

  • Being married hasn’t been shown to increase risk of developing PTSD
  • Lower SES increases risk, not higher
  • Younger age at time of trauma increases risk, not older (the idea is that you have better coping skills at this time)
146
Q

which 2 SSRIs are best for treating OCD?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil) and sertraline (Zoloft)

147
Q

What is the role of clomipramine in treating OCD?

A

Used as a second line therapy if pts are unresponsive to CBT and SSRIs (sertraline, paroxetine)

148
Q

Which SSRI is used to treat body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Fluoxetine

149
Q

1st line tx for ODD

A

Assess psychosocial situation and parent training, THEN initiate CBT

150
Q

Common causes of low nitric oxide levels leading to ED?

A

Diabetes
Smoking
Testosterone deficiency – usually will also be a/w decreased libido and loss of E

151
Q

Most potent risk factor for development of female sexual arousal disorder?

A

History of sexual abuse (doubles the likelihood of development)

152
Q

Most common fetishes?

A

Feet, hair, women’s underwear, shoes and toes

153
Q

Indications for admission 2/2 anorexia nervosa

A
  • Vital signs unstable (HR < 40, bradypnea, orthostatic hypotension, BP < 80/60)
  • BMI < 15
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias (prolonged PR interval)
  • Moderate to severe refeeding syndrome
  • Medical emergencies: syncope, seizure (BUPROPION CI IN THESE PTS), hypoglycemia, electrolyte disturbance, cardiac or liver failure, pancreatitis
154
Q

Diff between bulimia and binge eating disorder

A

No compensatory behaviors in binge eating disorder

155
Q

Complications of binge eating disorder versus bulimia

A

Binge eating:
- T2DM!!!
- HTN
- Hypercholesterolemia
- Obesity

Bulimia:
- Colonic dysmotility 2/2 laxatives or enemas
- Hypokalemia and other electrolyte imbalances d/t vomiting

156
Q

Which personality disorder is most closely associated with bulimia?

A

Borderline personality disorder

157
Q

Most important initial treatment for anorexia

A

Nutritional counseling and rehabilitation

158
Q

Anorexia versus restrictive food intake disorder

A

Anorexia = low body weight, aversion to food out of fear of body changes/weight gain!!

Restrictive food intake disorder = low body weight, lack of interest in food or aversions to certain characteristics of food. NO distorted body image or intense fear of gaining weight

159
Q

Which personality disorder is MC associated with anorexia?

160
Q

ADRs of stimulants

A

Growth suppression, weight loss – monitor weight and height routinely
Insomnia
Blurred vision
Motor tic development
Social withdrawal
Mild increases in HR and BP – monitor routinely

Monitoring parameters: 1 month after starting meds, and then q3 months once on a stable dose

161
Q

ADHD diagnostic criteria

A

Must have 5 or more sx of inattention OR hyperactivity

162
Q

Methylphenidate MOA

A

Blocks reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine into presynaptic neurons

163
Q

At what age do you screen for autism?

A

18-24 months (per American Academy of Pediatrics) with the M-CHAT tool

Moderate risk: score 3-7, administer second stage of M-CHAT
High risk: 8 or higher, immediate referral for diagnostic evaluation

164
Q

How is the sympathomimetic toxidrome (cocaine, methamphetamine) different than the anticholinergic toxidrome?

A

Anticholinergic will have dry skin and hypoactive bowel sounds

165
Q

Oral leukoplakia versus squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue

A

Squamous cell = often larger (> 2 cm) and on the lateral border of the tongue

Oral leukoplakia = often smaller, on top of the tongue

Both painless white patches with irregular borders

166
Q

Common ADRs of lithium

A

Nausea, tremors, polyuria, weight gain, loose stools, thirst

167
Q

What SSRIs are used in OCD?

A

Sertraline or paroxetine in combination with CBT OR fluvoxamine

168
Q

What is used to treat benzo withdrawal?

Think: tremors, agitation, nausea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, anxiety

A

Long acting benzo (diazepam) and then tapering

169
Q

Naloxone versus naltrexone

A

Naloxone = narcan, used for opioid overdose

Naltrexone = helps treat both alcohol use disorder AND opioid use disorder

170
Q

Wernicke Korsakoff presentation and treatment

A

Ophthalmoplegia (i.e. LR palsy), gait ataxia, confusion/amnesia

Treat with IV THIAMINE administration because it develops d/t deficiency with long term alcohol use

171
Q

Beyond 2:1 AST:ALT ratio, what lab indicates alcohol use disorder?

A

Elevated GGT, macrocytosis, low serum albumin (d/t malnourishment)

172
Q

What is the role of benzos in treating opioid withdrawal?

A

If patients are put into iatrogenically induced opioid withdrawal (i.e. given narcan/naloxone for opioid intoxication), benzodiazepines like lorazepam can be used to help manage subsequent sx development. do NOT give these pts opioid agonists in the withdrawal phase, would need a really high dose that can cause euphoria!!!

173
Q

Meds and vaccines to give to patients who are sexually assaulted

A
  • HIV medication
  • Hep B vaccine
  • HPV vaccine
174
Q

How does depression impact the anatomy of the brain?

A

Decreases hippocampal and frontal lobe volume, increases-ventricular:brain ratio

175
Q

Is GABA inhibitory or excitatory?

A

Inhibitory – when GABA levels are decreased, anxiety results

176
Q

Is frequent conflict over trivial matters more associated with borderline or dependent personality disorder?

A

Borderline

177
Q

Treatment for severe suicidal ideation

178
Q

Preferred medication to switch to for management of BPD if initial antipsychotic regimen is no longer tolerated/failed?

A

Lithium (therapeutic levels are 0.8-1.2)

179
Q

Best treatment for cannabis use disorder?

180
Q

Best therapy for opioid use disorder/patients trying to quit that have been unsuccessful with behavioral attempts?

A

Buprenorphine + naloxone (narcan)

***Buprenorphine has a lower risk of overdose than methadone b/c it has less adverse cardiac effects, and should be used first line

181
Q

Which of the following is most specific for delirium tremens?

A) Disorientation
B) HR of 108
C) Seizures
D) Visual hallucinations

A

A – you can see all of the other options earlier on in alcohol withdrawal (tachy very early on, seizures 6-48 hours after last drink, hallucinations 12-48 hours after last drink) but AMS and disorientation is not until much later on in DTs (develops > 48 hours after last drink)

182
Q

What are general labs you should get in patients with personality disorders?

A

STI testing d/t poor impulse control
May also want to get hepatitis C testing d/t increased risk of substance abuse

183
Q

How long should patients with GAD be on an SSRI before considering discontinuing if they have a good response?

A

12 months if pts have a robust response, then can taper off the medication

184
Q

Best tool to assess for ADHD in adults?

A

diagnostic interview for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in adults

185
Q

Which SSRI is indicated in OCPD?

A

Fluvoxamine

186
Q

T or F: Cigarette smoking is a known risk factor for MDD

187
Q

Imipramine medication class

188
Q

What’s the timeline for the disappearance of postpartum blues?

A

Usually by 2 weeks postpartum – if persistent, now termed postpartum depression

189
Q

What is a common comorbid condition with panic disorder?