EOR Topics to Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the criteria for metabolic syndrome?

A

Have to have 3 of the following:
- Abdominal obesity
- HTN
- Triglycerides > 150
- Fasting glucose > 110
- HDL < 40 for M, < 50 for F

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2
Q

What organism is most common in endocarditis with a prosthetic valve?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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3
Q

Criteria for diagnosing diabetes

A

Random plasma glucose > 200 + symptoms of DM
2 hour OGTT > 200
Fasting plasma glucose > 126
A1C > 6.5%

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4
Q

Recommendations for DM health maintenance

A

Vaccines: hep B if no previous vax or infection, yearly pneumococcal (for 65 and younger) and influenza

yearly podiatry, ophthamology exams (get appt at time of diagnosis)

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5
Q

What is the goal A1C for DM management?

A

< 7%

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6
Q

What is the pneumococcal vaccine order?

A

FIRST: PCV15 or PCV 20

THEN: PCV23 1 year later (can be given after 8 weeks in certain populations) if received PCV15 first

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7
Q

Cosyntropin stimulation test is used to diagnose…

A

Adrenal disorders (Addison’s)

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8
Q

Dexamethasone suppression test is used to diagnose…

A

Cushing’s disease/syndrome

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9
Q

Water deprivation test is used to diagnose…

A

Central versus nephrogenic DI

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10
Q

Which diabetes medication has a black box warning in patients with a personal or family history of medullary thyroid cancer?

A

GLP1 agonists (-tide)

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11
Q

What are the 3 biggest risk factors in predicting future fractures in patients with osteoporosis?

A
  • Age
  • Low bone mineral density (most specific predictor)
  • History of previous fracture
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12
Q

How do you differentiate GERD versus Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

GERD = retrosternal burning chest pain as hallmark sx

Zencker’s = more a/w dysphagia and food regurgitation

BOTH can have halitosis

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13
Q

Differentiating aortic stenosis versus mitral valve regurg

A

AS = systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur heard best at LUSB/RUSB, radiating to the carotids with audible S4 due to LVH

MR = holosystolic murmur heard best at the APEX and radiating to the axilla

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14
Q

Distinguishing orbital versus preseptal cellulitis

A

Orbital = (+) proptosis, pain with EOM and vision loss, febrile (Tx = broad spectrum abx, vanco and CTX + ophtho consult)

Preseptal = (+) tenderness only to palpation but not with EOM, afebrile, rarely see chemosis

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15
Q

first line treatment for uncomplicated UTI?

A

Fluoroquinolones x5-7 days (unless pt is pregnant, then macrobid x7 days)

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16
Q

What is the most important marker to monitor when patients are on allopurinol?

A

Creatinine bc kidneys are responsible for uric acid excretion (also initially want to monitor uric acid, CBC, and LFT levels Q2-4 weeks)

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17
Q

What is the physical exam finding called a/w point tenderness in the RLQ and appendicitis?

A

McBurney’s sign

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18
Q

Cervical cancer screening guidelines

A

Age 21-29: pap with cytology alone every 3 years

Age 30-65: pap w cervical cytology every 3 years OR pap with hrHPV testing every 5 years OR cotesting with cervical cytology and hrHPV testing every 5 years

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19
Q

Adhesive capsulitis treatment

A

PT with gentle ROM exercises + analgesia with NSAIDs or intra-articular steroid injections

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20
Q

Best modality for diagnosis and treatment of FB aspiration?

A

Bronchoscopy/endoscopy

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21
Q

What is a pterygium and how do you treat it?

A

Fibrovascular tissue growth on cornea, treated with NSAIDs and artificial tears for lubricant, potential surgical excision

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22
Q

How do you treat urethritis in a sexually active male?

A

Cover for BOTH chlamydia and gonorrhea – doxycycline 100 mg bid x7 days, ceftriaxone 500 mg IM

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23
Q

Differentiating pulmonic versus aortic stenosis

A

Aortic = radiating to the carotids, a/w syncope/angina/dyspnea on exertion

Pulmonic = nonradiating, often not symptomatic until adulthood

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24
Q

Mnemonic for drug induced lupus causes

A

HIPPS

Hydralazine
INH/isoniazid
Phenytoin
Procainamide
Sulfonamides

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25
Q

Mnemonic for drugs causing SJS

A

PCP LAPSE

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital

Lamotrigine
Allopurinol
Penicillins
Sulfa drugs
Erythromycin

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26
Q

(+) JAK2 mutation means…

A

Polycythemia vera (Excess RBC production)

Pruritus with hot water = common manifestation

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27
Q

Hyperpigmented macules on sun exposed areas should make you think…

A

Melasma

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28
Q

Which anticonvulsant is a known teratogen?

A

Valproic acid (neural tube defects)

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29
Q

At what LDL level do you start high intensity statins?

A

LDL >/= 190

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30
Q

Examples of high intensity statins

A

Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg
Atorvastatin 40-80 mg

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31
Q

How often do you screen for dyslipidemia per USPSTF?

A

Start thinking about this at age 40 - assess ASCVD risk and use this to determine statin initiation (high ASCVD risk = start high intensity statin, DM = start moderate intensity statin)

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32
Q

What are the AHA’s criteria for calculating an ASCVD score to potentially initiate statin use?

A

Age > 40
Total cholesterol >/= 200
SBP > 130

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33
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma remission health maintenance

A
  • Follow up q3 months in the first 5 years of remission – H&P + labs (CBC, LDH, lipids, ESR, glucose) at each visit
  • Yearly TSH check in the first 5 years of remission
  • For women over 40 or younger women who are 5-8 years post radiation, yearly mammogram
  • Stress test, cardiac US, and echo should be done 10 years post radiation
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34
Q

Ruptured TM treatment of choice

A

Ofloxacin 0.3% otic drops

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35
Q

What is the most important intervention to decrease mortality rates in pts with COPD?

A

Smoking cessation

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36
Q

What labs should you order to assess etiology of hypertriglyceridemia?

A

TSH (looking for hypothyroidism), LFTs (looking for signs of excessive alcohol intake), lipid analysis, fasting blood glucose (looking for diabetes), UA (looking for nephrotic syndromes)

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37
Q

What triglyceride value is considered to be elevated if pt is fasting?

A

> /= 150 mg/dL

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38
Q

Cotton wool spots and flame hemorrhages c/w

A

Hypertensive or diabetic retinopathy

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39
Q

Cherry red spot

A

Retinal arterial occlusion

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40
Q

Drusen deposits

A

Dry macular degeneration

(versus wet macular degeneration shows neovascularization, similar to proliferative diabetic retinopathy)

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41
Q

What meds are contraindicated in 2nd or 3rd degree AV block?

A

Digoxin (or other negative inotropes that slow heart conduction, i.e. adenosine)

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42
Q

At what age do you start giving meningococcal vaccine (MenACWY)?

A

Can give anywhere between 11 and 18, though 11-12 y/o is preferred (assuming immunocompetent), booster given >/= 16 years old and must have at least 8 weeks between doses

***no booster needed if primary dose given after 16 y/o

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43
Q

Gold standard for evaluating PAD?

A

Contrast arteriography (ABI is highly specific, but not gold standard)

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44
Q

Difference between pre, postmenopausal and perimenopausal?

A

Similar sx (hot flashes, sleep disturbances, vaginal dryness, mood changes – though hot flashes more severe in perimenopausal patients)

Premenopausal: no irregular bleeding, HALLMARK/MC SX = HOT FLASHES, but also a/w vaginal dryness

Perimenopausal: average age of onset is 47, a/w variable estrogen levels and increasingly elevated FSH levels

Postmenopausal: occurs after 12 months of amenorrhea, FSH peaks at 70-100 then begins to decline, estrogen continuously low

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45
Q

Drug therapy for primary dysmenorrhea (pelvic/menstrual pain with no other pathology present)

A

NSAIDs (first line) – naproxen
Estrogen-progestin OCPs (second line)

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46
Q

Primary dysmenorrhea versus secondary

A

Primary = no underlying pathology, begins within 6 months of menarche; pain starts just before menstruation begins and dissipates within 48-72 hours

Secondary = arises later in life or due to underlying pathology (i.e. PID, endometriosis)

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47
Q

USPSTF breast cancer screening recommendation

A

Screening mammo every 2 years for women aged 40-74, d/c screening at age 75

Recommends AGAINST self examination

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48
Q

Contraindications to influenza vaccination

A

Absolute CI: Anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction in the past
Relative CI: Chronic medical conditions (i.e. autoimmune disorders, GBS – weigh risks and benefits before readministration)

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49
Q

Which statins are best for CAD and why?

A

Rosuvastatin and atorvastatin – proven to decrease size of atherosclerotic plaques

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50
Q

Med of choice in patients with panic disorder and history of alcohol/substance abuse

A

Citalopram (SSRIs have less risk of dependency than benzos do, which would be typical first line treatment)

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51
Q

What is the treatment of choice for testicular cancer without metastasis?

A

Inguinal orchiectomy

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52
Q

What behavioral factors can play a role in the development of fibrocystic changes?

A

Frequent alcohol consumption
+/- caffeine consumption

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53
Q

First line treatment for anxiety disorders (not including panic attacks)

A

SSRI or SNRI

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54
Q

MCC of Cushing’s SYNDROME

A

Long term exogenous steroid use

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55
Q

Clinical manifestations of vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency

A

The 3D’s: Diarrhea, dementia (confusion, memory loss) and dermatitis

A/w photosensitive, hyperpigmented rash that appears similar to a sunburn

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56
Q

Causes of niacin deficiency in the US

A

Prolonged isoniazid use, carcinoid syndrome

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57
Q

What do platelets look like on a smear in ITP?

A

Predominantly normal but will have isolated TCP

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58
Q

Treatment mainstay for salmonella

A

CORNERSTONE = HYDRATION!!!

Can give concurrent antimicrobials with cipro 500 mg x7 d if pt is immunocompromised or showing signs of severe inf (persistent fever), or needs to be hospitalized

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59
Q

What lifestyle modification has the biggest impact on lowering SBP in HTN?

A

DASH diet (reduced fat intake and more whole grains, vegetables, fruits)

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60
Q

Hordeolum versus chalazion presentation

A

Hordeolum (bacterial infection): PAINFUL stye that presents in or near an eyelash follicle

Chalazion (blocked sebaceous gland): PAINLESS swelling ABOVE the lash line

Treatment: both require warm compresses, abx w/ staph coverage for hordeolum, steroid injections + incision and curettage for chalazion

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61
Q

First line antihypertensives for patients with DM and proteinuria

A

ACEi and ARB

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62
Q

Treatment of choice for thrombosed hemorrhoids

A

Excision (elliptical incision)

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63
Q

Prostatitis treatment

A

Nonsexually active men = cover for E. coli with FQ or bactrim

Sexually active men = cover for chlamydia and gonorrhea with doxy and ceftriaxone

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64
Q
A
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65
Q

What interventions are associated with decreased mortality in COPD patients?

A

Oxygen supplementation and smoking cessation

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66
Q

What ENT manifestation can excessive ibuprofen use cause?

A

Tinnitus

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67
Q

Ototoxic agents that can cause tinnitus

A

Salicylates
NSAIDs
Quinine
Abx (aminoglycosides -mycin, erythromycin, vancomycin)
Chemo agents

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68
Q

PJP radiography findings

A

Diffuse bilateral, interstitial or alveolar infiltrates

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69
Q

Differentiating aphthous versus herpetic ulcers

A

Aphthous = small, shallow, circular white lesions with surrounding erythema

Herpetic = irregularly shaped white lesions and appear in clusters, usually outside the mouth (CONTAGIOUS UNTIL THEY DISAPPEAR)

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70
Q

GDMT for HFrEF?

A
  • Beta blocker
  • ACEi/ARB/ARNI
  • SGLT2 inhibitor
  • Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (i.e. spironolocatone)
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71
Q

Definitive treatment for chronic CAD/single vessel blockage (think unstable angina) ?

A) Alteplase
B) Coronary artery bypass graft
C) Heparin
D) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

A

D

A - more useful in acute STEMI
B - more useful in triple vessel disease or widowmaker (> 50% occlusion of LAD)
C - also more useful in acute MI

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72
Q

In what situations do you anticoagulate (i.e. xarelto or eliquis) before getting rate control with symptomatic afib patients?

A

If symptoms have been persistent for > 48 hours b/c there is an increased risk of stroke

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73
Q

Afib acute treatment of choice for pts with HF

A

Amiodarone

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74
Q

Valsalva impact on venous return?

A

Decreases venous return, so most murmurs DECREASE in intensity (except MVP and HCOM associated murmurs)

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75
Q

AAA screening per USPSTF

A

Abdominal US for 65-75 y/o M with smoking history

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76
Q

Innocent murmur description

A

Midsystolic crescendo decrescendo murmur heard best at the left sternal border with MINIMAL RADIATION and little to no symptoms

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77
Q

Treatment post stent placement

A

DAPT (aspirin unless CI + ticagrelor) + BP control with BB + statin for cholesterol reduction

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78
Q

Xanthelasmas (soft, yellow, thin plaques) indicate…

A

Hypertriglyceridemia ( > 150 mg/dL)

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79
Q

What are recommended medications for hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Statins for levels of 150-500

Fibrate (i.e. fenofibrate) for levels > 500 to decrease risk of developing pancreatitis OR in lower levels for patients intolerant of statins

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80
Q

HTN management choices

A

First line for no sign PMH = ACEi/ARB, thiazides
PMH of DM/CKD = ACEi/ARB
First line for black pts = CCBs, thiazides

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81
Q

Stage 1 HTN according to ACC/AHA versus JNC

A

ACC/AHA: SBP 130-139 OR DBP 80-89

JNC: SBP 140-159 OR DBP 90-99

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82
Q

Healthy lipid panel

A

Total cholesterol < 200
Triglycerides < 150
LDL < 100
HDL > 60

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83
Q

When to initiate Holter versus event (loop) monitor versus implantable loop

A

Holter = for daily symptoms not apparent in office

Event (loop) = for less frequent symptoms (i.e. weekly or biweekly)

Implantable = even less frequent sx (i.e. monthly)

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84
Q

Universal lipid screening guidelines

A

Once with a nonfasting lipid panel from 9-11 y/o, then again from 17-21 y/o

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85
Q

Follow up lipid screening recommendations after universal

A

Depends on CVD risk:

  • Low risk = screen again at age 35 for women and 45 for men
  • High risk (hx of HTN, DM, history of cigarette use) = screen again at age 25-30 for men, 30-35 for women
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86
Q

What does universal lipid screening involve?

A

Non fasting lipid panel and calculation of non HDL levels

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87
Q

If universal screening labs come back abnormal, what are the follow up labs?

A

Fasting lipid panel

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88
Q

Brief atherosclerotic disease patho/timeline

A

LDLs accumulate in tunica intima, deposits get taken up by macrophages and becomes foam cells

Fatty streak develops post foam cell

Fibroblasts deposit collagen over fatty streak to form fatty plaque

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89
Q

Meniere’s versus labyrinthitis versus vestibular neuritis pres

A

Meniere’s = HL + tinnitus + vertigo that COMES AND GOES, no signs of inf

Labyrinthitis = HL + CONSTANT vertigo that usually develops post infection

Vestibular neuritis = vertigo that may or may not develop after infection

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90
Q

Type of HL associated with Meniere’s

A

Low frequency SNHL

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91
Q

When can you see fungal otitis externa?

A

After abx treatment for bacterial otitis externa (pts will report slight improvement with abx but not complete resolution, otoscopic exam shows fine fungal filaments and spores)

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92
Q

Causative agents and treatment of fungal otitis externa

A

Candida, aspergillus

Tx: topical antifungals such as topical clotrimazole

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93
Q

Physical exam findings of corneal ulcer

A

Opacities on penlight exam, that DO take up fluorescein

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94
Q

Acute retinal artery occlusion treatment

A

Ophtho consult IMMEDIATELY!

Any emboli breaking internventions should be initiated within 100 mins of vision

+/- on IV tPA

Supportive measures while waiting for ophtho: ocular massage, topical agents to decrease IOP such as mannitol, oral vasodilators (nitro)

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95
Q

What medication can you NOT take if on sildenafil?

A

Nitroglycerin (can lead to prolonged erection)

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96
Q

nonproliferative versus proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Nonproliferative = DILATED veins, hard exudates

Proliferative = NEOVASCULARIZATION, vitreous hemorrhage

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97
Q

Aphthous ulcer treatment algorithm

A

Primarily:
- maintain good oral hygiene, use soft bristle tooth brush to avoid excess trauma, avoid exacerbating factors and control pain (topical anesthetics such as lido)

Other options:
- Sulfate containing toothpaste
- Dexamethasone elixir if complicated stomatitis

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98
Q

Centor criteria for strep pharyngitis

A

+1 for age 3-14
-1 for age >/= 45

+1 for tonsillar exudate or swelling

+1 for lack of cough

+1 for T > 100.4

+1 for anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or tenderness

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99
Q

Mono lymphadenopathy classic location

A

Posterior cervical

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100
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Asthma + aspirin sensitivity + nasal polyps

Treat small nasal polyps with topical intranasal corticosteroids

Large polyps require polypectomy

Severe or recurrent polyps require ethmoidectomy

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101
Q

Labs a/w bulimia nervosa

A

Hypokalemia, contraction alkalosis

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102
Q

Management of acute depression a/w BPD

A

Quetiapine or lurasidone

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103
Q

Management of acute mania a/w BPD

A

Lithium

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104
Q

Long term management of BPD

A

Lithium, lamotrigine

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105
Q

Bulimia nervosa associated disorders?

A

Specific phobia disorder
Borderline, avoidant, dependent, paranoid, histrionic and OCD personality disorders

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106
Q

EKG changes c/w anorexia

A

Sinus bradycardia

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107
Q

Electrolyte imbalances with anorexia

A

Hypochloremia
Hypokalemia

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108
Q

How long do you have to have phobia symptoms to make a diagnosis?

A

6 months

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109
Q

Big ADR of buproprion

A

Lowers seizure threshold – cannot use for smoking cessation or mood control in patients with seizure hx

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110
Q

Two most effective pharmacotherapies for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline (most effective) and buproprion

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111
Q

Relative CIs for varenicline

A

Manic depression, schizophrenia, alcohol use disorder

112
Q

respiratory sx + erythema nodosum (erythematous painful nodules on shins) should make you think…

A

sarcoidosis –> diagnosis/test of choice is transbronchial biopsy

113
Q

Mycoplasma tuberculosis morphology description

A

Rod shaped aerobic, acid fast bacterium

114
Q

Sarcoidosis versus amyloidosis manifestation

A

Sarcoid = not usually a/w chest pain, more a/w chronic cough and fatigue

Amyloidosis = has chest pain component b/c it affects cardiac more than respiratory tissues, often causes pleural effusions leading to dyspnea

115
Q

Interstitial lung disease a/w nuclear power/reactors

A

Berylliosis

116
Q

Green sputum

A

Pseudomonas

117
Q

What type of med is ipratropium?

A

Short acting anticholinergic/antimuscarinic, acts as a BRONCHODILATOR

118
Q

Stepwise approach to COPD treatment

A

1) Bronchodilator (ipratropium)
2) LABA (formoterol) or LAMA (tiotropium) + short acting bronchodilator for symptomatic relief
3) Tiotropium
4) Add on ICS to previously tried therapies

119
Q

When do you administer a SABA in patients with mild asthma?

A

Prior to exercise (and during symptoms if they arise)

120
Q

Age ranges for PCV20 vaccine?

121
Q

When do you give PCV23?

A

In a patient who previously received PCV15

122
Q

When is the pneumococcal vaccine indicated for adults?

A

Adults >/= 65 y/o OR adults < 65 y/o with pulmonary risk factors (i.e. COPD)

123
Q

What happens to the FEV1 and FVC in asthma after giving bronchodilator therapy?

A

Increase in both FEV1 and FVC

124
Q

What do FEV1 and FVC represent?

A

FEV1 = max amount of air that can be expired in 1 second

FVC = max amount of air that can be exhaled after taking a maximal inspiration breath

125
Q

Cutoff for positive bronchodilator response for asthma?

A

Increase in FEV1/FVC by at least 12%

126
Q

Asbestosis presentation

A

Typically asymptomatic for DECADES (have history of industrial jobs), then MC report gradually worsening breathlessness (cough, wheezing uncommon)

127
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for development of mesothelioma?

A

Asbestos exposure

128
Q

Who gets the PCV13 vaccine?

129
Q

CXR findings c/w interstitial lung disease?

A

Reticulonodular opacities
Ground glass opacities

130
Q

What afib drug can cause ILD?

A

Amiodarone

131
Q

Next best step after discovering incidental pulmonary nodule on CXR?

A

Look for prior CXR to compare – if no growth, nodule is unlikely to be malignant

If no prior films available, CT chest is next best step

132
Q

MCC of large versus small bowel obstruction

A

Large = malignancy
Small = post op adhesions

132
Q

Possible adverse syndromes/diseases a/w lung cancer?

A

Superior vena cava syndrome
Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome (a/w small cell lung cancer)
Horner syndrome (ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) + shoulder pain a/w Pancoast tumors (derive in the superior sulcus of the lung)

133
Q

1st line treatment for focal seizures?

A

Carbamazepine (focal seizures usually don’t have a postictal phase and only impact discrete locations within the brain)

134
Q

How would sx a/w BPPV be described?

A

Positional vertigo (i.e. worsened/triggered by getting out of bed)

135
Q

Most sensitive test to diagnose esophageal/hiatal hernias?

A

Barium swallow

136
Q

Migraine prophylaxis options

A

1st line = propranolol

2nd line = TCAs or verapamil

3rd line = anticonvulsants (valproate/valproic acid/depakote/divalproex – teratogen, should not be given in pts who are trying to or could become pregnant) or topiramate (a/w weight gain and decreases effectiveness of OCPs)

137
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia is the most common?

A

Type 1 (sliding) – reproduces GERD like sx or can often be asymptomatic, does not typically quire surgery

138
Q

Retrocardiac air fluid level on CXR is c/w?

A

Hiatal hernia

139
Q

What kind of peptic ulcer does H. pylori cause?

A

Type B – affects antrum and body of stomach

140
Q

Most common type of peptic ulcer?

A

Type A – affects gastric fundus

141
Q

Anemia a/w H. pylori?

A

Iron deficiency (peptic ulcers impede on iron absorption)

142
Q

pH a/w H. pylori gastritis?

A

Hypochlohydria, pH > 3.0

143
Q

Tendons involved in deQuervains?

144
Q

MCC of UGIB?

A

PUD (which is most commonly caused by H. pylori infection)

145
Q

What sense does Bell’s palsy impact?

A

Loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue

146
Q

Forehead appearance on affected side of Bell’s Palsy

A

No forehead wrinkling (indicates peripheral nerve involvement)

147
Q

What is usually more painful, external hemorrhoids or anal fissure?

A

Anal fissure (severe ripping/tearing pain with defecation)

148
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for peptic ulcer disease

A

Endoscopy with biopsy

149
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for hiatal hernia

A

Barium swallow study

150
Q

MCC of foul smelling, loose stool with cramping and flatulence

151
Q

Cobblestone appearance on colonoscopy most c/w UC or Crohn’s?

A

Crohn (with skip lesions present)

152
Q

Uniform sandpaper appearance on colonoscopy most c/w UC or Crohn’s?

153
Q

Tonic clonic vs myoclonic seizures

A

Tonic clonic = abrupt LOC first followed by muscular spasm

Myoclonic = brief (< 1 sec) muscle contractions

154
Q

Different types of headache prophylaxis

A

Cluster: first line = verapamil, 2nd line = lithium

Tension: first line = TCAs

Migraine: first line = BBs (propranolol) or valproate/valproic acid/depakote, 2nd line = topiramate (less a/w with weight gain than valproic acid derivatives)

155
Q

Gastroenteritis MCC viral and bacterial cause

A

Viral = norovirus
Bacterial = salmonella

156
Q

Gastroenteritis definition/sx

A

ABRUPT onset of diarrhea a/w N/V, abdominal pain, fever

157
Q

Gastroenteritis treatment

A

If pt is stable: supportive care as most cases are viral (rehydration, loperamide antidiarrheal, antiemetics)

If pt showing signs of severe infection, dehydration: IV rehydration, abx (Bactrim, ampicillin or cipro)

158
Q

How to differentiate esophagitis versus GERD?

A

Esophagitis typically not a/w heartburn

159
Q

Stroke prevention therapies

A

1st line = DAPT (aspirin + ticagrelor, clopidogrel) if high risk for recurrent stroke, only aspirin if low risk

If stroke was 2/2 cardiac issue (afib, CAD, etc.) = DOAC (i.e. rivaroxaban or apixaban)

160
Q

Treatment of choice for refractory internal vs external hemorrhoids

A

Internal = rubber band ligation (painful so cannot be done on external) or sclerotherapy

External = hemorrhoidectomy

161
Q

Gene a/w familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

APC (start screening at 12 every year w/ colonoscopy until colon is removed, 100% chance of developing cancer)

162
Q

What imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting stroke?

A

MRI, but it is not used clinically because it takes too long

163
Q

US findings consistent with PCOS

A

Multiple small ovarian follicles around the periphery (aka string of pearls)

164
Q

Wide split S2 is c/w

A

Mitral valve regurg

165
Q

BEST treatment for Meniere’s

A

reduced salt intake (can add on diuretics if refractory)

166
Q

MCC of viral pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus

167
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia more c/w Cushing syndrome or disease?

A

Disease bc pituitary tumor sits in sella turcica on top of optic nerve

168
Q

What is the vitamin B analog that should be given with isoniazid to avoid peripheral neuropathy?

A

Pyridoxine

169
Q

First line osteoporosis treatment

A

Bisphosphonates (long term use increases risk of jaw necrosis, pts CI to take if they cannot stay upright for 30 minutes after administration)

170
Q

What is the MCC of female infertility and what is the first line treatment?

A

PCOS – infertility aspect can be treated with letrozole

171
Q

Hernia of posterior vaginal wall is _______

Hernia of anterior vaginal wall is _______

A

Rectocele; cystocele

172
Q

Uric acid goal when treating patients with allopurinol?

173
Q

Next step if pap cytology comes back abnormal?

A

Colposcopy

174
Q

Diagnostic criteria for BPD I versus BPD II

A

BPD I - at least ONE manic episode (sx for at least one week)

BPD II - hypomania (no psychotic features, doesn’t necessitate hospitalization) with at LEAST ONE depressive episode

175
Q

Pterygium versus pinguecula

A

Pterygium = corneal involvement

Pinguecula = SOLELY conjunctival involvement

176
Q

Gonorrhea is a gram (negative/positive) (morphology)

A

Gram negative diplococci

177
Q

Plantar fasciitis presentation and treatment

A

Presentation = heel pain WORST when walking first thing in the morning, lessens with gradually increased activity

Treatment = stretching plantar fascia and calf muscles, heel inserts NSAIDs (can try glucocorticoid PO and local steroid injection)

178
Q

MOA of acutane (oral isotretinoin)

A

Decreases sebum production

Requires monitoring of LFTs, two forms of birth control

Indicated in SEVERE acne (Deep seeded, nodulopustular, impeded on social interactions)

179
Q

2nd MCC of SJS behind drugs?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

180
Q

BEST test for diagnosing cholecystitis?

A

HIDA scan (if US is inconclusive)

181
Q

Tumor marker (+) in adenocarcinoma of the lungs?

182
Q

Howell Jolly bodies seen in which type of anemia?

A

Sickle cell

183
Q

Schistocytes indicate…

184
Q

When is fasting C peptide useful?

A

In distinguishing type 1 vs type 2 diabetes

185
Q

Erythema multiforme

A

Multiple targetoid lesions throughout the body in response to infection or it can be drug induced

186
Q

T or F: influenza vaccine is CI in pregnancy

A

FALSE – pregnant pts have a higher risk of developing severe illness from influenza infection and the vaccine is actually recommended

187
Q

HLA a/w RA

188
Q

where do you feel indirect vs direct inguinal hernia when evaluating the scrotum?

A

Direct = side of finger
(THINK: SlIDE directly into the DMs)

Indirect = tip of finger

189
Q

Treatment of choice for Lyme disease in kids or pregnant patients

A

Pregnant: Amoxicillin

Kids: doxy or amoxicillin

190
Q

Where do most meningiomas most commonly occur?

A

Falx cerebri (arises from arachnoid mater)

191
Q

Best drug for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Pyridoxine alone OR in combination with doxylamine

(Contradicting studies on whether or not zofran causes birth defects, not contraindicated in preg but not first line)

***ginger also proven to be helpful

192
Q

MCC of erythema multiforme

193
Q

Erythema multiforme treatment

A

ACUTE MANAGEMENT: supportive (topical gels or mouthwashes made of diphenhydramine, antacids and lido)

PREVENTATIVE: Acyclovir or valacyclovir

194
Q

MC complication of radiation therapy for facial squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Xerostomia – decreased saliva production can lead to deterioration of dentition and oral cavity –> follow with dentist referral

195
Q

Is Crohn or UC more likely to cause bloody diarrhea?

196
Q

How can the subretinal fluid and hemorrhages c/w wet macular degeneration be described?

A

Grayish-green discoloration near the macula

197
Q

What is congenital dacryostenosis?

A

Congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct

198
Q

Congenital dacryostenosis treatment?

A

1st line = Crigler (lacrimal sac) massage 2-3x per day, cleanse with warm water, and observation

If refractory after 6-10 months –> simple lacrimal duct probing (surgical procedure) or nasolacrimal duct obstruction intubation for older kids under general anesthesia

Last resort = more invasive procedures such as balloon dacryoplasty, dacryocystorhinostomy

199
Q

Herpes simplex vaginalis treatment for patients in 1st/2nd trimester versus 3rd trimester

A

1st/2nd trimester: 7-10 day course of antivirals

3rd trimester: initiate antiviral therapy at 36 weeks to prevent preterm delivery and neonatal transmission

Antiviral of choice = ACYCLOVIR

200
Q

Suppurative versus stenosing flexor tenosynovitis

A

Suppurative = bacterial infection without any “triggering” or catching with passive extension – needs to be treated with IV antibiotics and surgical I&D

Stenosing = trigger finger, causes catching or triggering with flexion and extension

201
Q

Description of pretibial edema a/w Graves

A

Raised, violaceous papules on the shins

202
Q

Best non-invasive method for detecting H. pylori

A

Urea breath testing (have to be off of PPIs for 1-2 weeks prior)

203
Q

Most sensitive test for trich?

A

NAAT but wet mount used more frequently in clinical practice (just less sensitive)

204
Q

Do you treat the sexual partners of patients with trich?

A

Yes, and should undergo abstinence while getting treatment

205
Q

ASD murmur description

A

Wide, fixed split S2 with midsystolic murmur

206
Q

Pathogenesis of otitis externa

A

FIRST STEP = Breakdown of skin-cerumen barrier within ear canal

Leads to inflammation and edema, then pruritus and obstruction

Then causes elevation of ear canal pH and impaired epithelial migration that allows organisms to thrive within the canal

207
Q

Essential tremor treatment in pts with concurrent asthma

A

Primidone

(First line = propranolol or primidone but NON SELECTIVE BETA BLOCKERS ARE CI IN ASTHMA BC THEY CAN INDUCE BRONCHOCONSTRICTION)

208
Q

Nephrosclerosis can cause…

A

CKD 2/2 intrinsic renal vascular disease

209
Q

Simple partial seizure (aka focal aware) definition

A

Motor, sensory, autonomic or psychomotor sx WITHOUT LOC

210
Q

Generalized seizure definition

A

Sudden LOC followed by postictal confusion

211
Q

EEG findings of focal aware/simple partial seizures

A

Focal rhythmic discharge at onset of seizure

212
Q

Differentiate Heberden versus Bouchard nodes in OA

A

Bouchard = PIP

Heberden = DIP

213
Q

Hilar adenopathy seen in TB versus sarcoid

A

Sarcoid = BILATERAL hilar adenopathy

TB = UNILATERAL hilar adenopathy (can also see associated cavitary lesions, Ghon focus complexes, upper cavitary lobe lesions)

214
Q

Labs c/w sarcoid

A

Hypercalcemia, elevated ACE, hypercalciuria

215
Q

Sarcoid biopsy findings

A

(+) non caseating granulomas

216
Q

Would you expect hypo or hyperreflexia in MS?

A

Hyperreflexia due to UMN lesion

217
Q

What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia and what is it a common finding of?

A

Adduction weakness + nystagmus in contralateral abducting eye with lateral gaze

Common finding in MS

218
Q

Corneal abrasion findings on fluorescein staining?

A

(+) punctuate contigious breakdown surrounding cornea

219
Q

Branching dendritic pattern on fluorescein staining

A

Herpes keratitis

220
Q

Round white spot on fluoresecin staining

A

Corneal ulcer

221
Q

Streaming of fluorescein staining on exam

A

Aka Seidel sign – a/w penetrating eye injuries (caused by aqueous humor leaking from the eye)

222
Q

Mastitis treatment

A

First line = dicloxacillin and cephalexin (anti-staphylococcal agents)

If MRSA risk (recent abx, hospitalization, IV drug use) = clinda or bactrim

223
Q

How do 5ARIs work in BPH and what are some examples?

A

Decrease conversion of testosterone to DHT, which reduces prostate size

Ex: finasteride, dutasteride

224
Q

1st line pharmacologic treatment for BPH

A

Alpha 1 agonists (tamsulosin, terazosin)

Initiate after patient has tried LSM (double voiding, decreased fluid intake before bed, etc.) and if sx are still bothersome

225
Q

In what situations are triptans avoided with respect to migraine or tension HA treatment?

A

In pts with history of CVD or HTN

Triptans act as vasoconstrictors and can worsen elevated BP and increase risk of clotting

226
Q

Test of choice to identify cardioembolic source of TIA

A

Prolonged cardiac monitoring on admission + echocardiogram

227
Q

Which thyroid storm treatment is CI in pregnant patients?

A

Atenolol bc it is a/w intrauterine growth restriction

228
Q

High association between ankylosing spondylitis and….

229
Q

S/sx of cirrhosis

A

Hepatomegaly
Ascites
Caput medusae
Gynecomastia
Facial tenangiectasias
Icterus
Palmar erythema (d/t impaired sex hormone breakdown)
Ecchymosis (d/t defective coagulation)
Finger clubbing
Asterixis

230
Q

3 C’s of measles

A

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis + (C)Koplik spots (white/gray/blueish with an erythematous base on buccal mucosa near the molars)

OTHER FINDINGS:
Maculopapular rash begins on face and spreads to trunk

Supportive treatment can include vitamin A

231
Q

Superficial induration with extremity pain and previous venous catheter placement should make you think…

A

Superficial thrombophlebitis

232
Q

Kids less than __ months old should NOT receive the live influenza vaccine

233
Q

Live vaccines should not be given to HIV patients whose CD4 count is less than ____

234
Q

What are the live vaccines

A

THINK: MY ROME TRIP

Mumps
Yellow Fever

Rubella
OPV (oral typhoid)
Measles
Endemic typhus

TB vaccine (BCG)
Rubella
Influenza
Plague

235
Q

Hallmark findings of fibromyalgia

A

Fibro fog
Tenderness more marked over soft tissues than joints – WIDESPREAD MSK PAIN for at LEAST 3 MONTHS
Sleep disturbance, fatigue
Normal inflammatory markers

236
Q

Fibromyalgia treatment

A

TCAs, SNRIs

***AVOID OPIOIDS

237
Q

Bell palsy treatment

A

Prednisone daily and valtrex TID for 7 days

Supportive adjuncts: eye patch and artificial tears if pt is unable to fully close eye

238
Q

Biggest risk factor for spontaneous abortion in healthy women?

A

Advanced maternal age

239
Q

(+) HFE genetic testing confirms…

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

(Tx = therapeutic phlebotomy)

240
Q

Signs of hyperprolactinemia

A

Amenorrhea, infertility, headache, nipple discharge

241
Q

Is Crohn or UC more likely to have extraintestinal manifestations?

A

Crohn – look for aphthous ulcers!

242
Q

First line allergic rhinitis treatment?

A

Fluticsaone or another intranasal steroid, can be used in cojunction with 2nd gen antihistmaine (zyrtec, claritin, allegra) which are less sedating than 1st gen

243
Q

Type I vWD versus type 2/3

A

Type I = decreased AMOUNT of vWF

Type 2/3 = decreased QUALITY of vWF (plenty available, but it doesn’t work well)

244
Q

Chlorthalidone medication class

A

Thiazide like diuretic

245
Q

Bisphosphonate contraindications

A

Renal disease
Esophageal disease
Pts unable to stay upright 30 minutes after administration

246
Q

Antipsychotic of choice in acutely agitated, elderly patients

A

Oral risperidone

Usually start with haloperidol however increases risk of Parkinsonian ADRs in the elderly

247
Q

Molluscum contagiosum cause

248
Q

First line treatment for PTSD

A

SSRIs + CBT

249
Q

CURB-65 criteria

A

Confusion present +1
Urea (BUN) > 19 +1
RR >/= 30 +1
SBP </= 90 or DBP </= 60 +1
65 or older +1

If 0-1 points, out pt management
If 2 points, consider admission versus very close out pt f/u
If 3 points, certain admission

250
Q

Chronic NSAID induced PUD treatment

A

8 weeks of PPI therapy

251
Q

MCC of bacterial sinusitis

A

Strep pneumo – treat with augmentin or doxy

252
Q

Labs supporting CLL diagnosis

A

Lymphocytosis
Smudge cells on peripheral smear

253
Q

HPV strains a/w cervical cancer

A

HPV 16 and 18

254
Q

Innervation of anterior compartment of lower leg

A

Peroneal aka fibular nerve – damage leads to decreased dorsiflexion and decreased sensation in between 1st and 2nd toe

255
Q

Achalasia presentation, dx and tx

A

Pres = substernal burning pain, food regurgiation, difficulty swallowing solids and liquids

Dx = barium swallow (+) bird’s beak appearance (dilated, aperistaltic distal esophagus with a closed LES)

Tx = surgical myotomy

256
Q

Abx of choice in AOM w PCN allergy

257
Q

Best test to confirm genital herpes?

A

Viral culture

258
Q

Neisseria meningiditis morphology

A

Gram negative diplococci

a/w bacterial meningitis, petechiae/purpura rash on LE, common in college kids or people living in close quarters

259
Q

Cellulitis description

A

Erythematous patches with overlying warmth, IRREGULAR BORDER/POORLY DEMARCATED

260
Q

Erythema multiforme causative organism

A

HSV – prophylaxis with acyclovir if recurrent rashes develop

261
Q

Treatment for shigella

A

Oral rehydration therapy and antibiotics if indicated, i.e. if severe dehydration or refractory to supportive matters (FQ but NOT in kids, azithro or 3rd gen cephalosporin)

262
Q

Testing of choice for chlamydia/gonorrhea induced urethritis

A

NAAT or a UA from a first void urinary specimen or a urethral swab

263
Q

Verrucous wart treatment

A

salicylic acid plaster after paring, liquid nitro and cryo if refractory

264
Q

Complications of untreated balanitis

A

Paraphimosis (cannot retract back to anatomic position) and/or phimosis (cannot retract proximally)

265
Q

Paronchyia (soft tissue infection of tissue lateral to nailbed) treatment of choice

A

If NO FLUCTUANCE = warm compresses, NSAIDs, abx with staph coverage (cephalexin, dicloxacillin if no MRSA suspicion; doxy, clinda or bactrim if MRSA concern)

If FLUCTUANT = IMMEDIATE I&D followed by warm compresses, NSAIDs, etc.

266
Q

Urticaria presentation

A

Pruritic wheals or hives that are transient (come and go) and last < 24 hours individually

Treat with antihistamines, epi in severe allergic reactions

267
Q

Which organism is most likely to cause struvite stones?

A

Proteus mirabilis

268
Q

MC type of kidney stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

269
Q

Tylenol poisoning treatment

A

Activated charcoal at 1g/kg

270
Q

Differentiate ulna versus radius on lateral elbow XR

A

Ulna = hook at proximal portion to form olecranon joint at elbow

Radius = flat radial head proximally

271
Q

Common spots of testicular cancer metastasis

A

Lungs, lymph nodes

Look for LE edema, cough, back pain

272
Q

Warfarin induced skin necrosis should make you think…

A

Protein C deficiency

273
Q

MCC of lateral hip pain in adults

A

Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (glut medius/minimus tendinopathy causes regional inflammation of surrounding bursae)

274
Q

Pencil in cup deformity

A

Psoriatic arthritis

275
Q

RA XR findings

A

Joint erosions

276
Q

FB aspiration presentation

A

If FB stays within upper airway: perioral cyanosis

If FB descends farther into airway: hyperresonance on imaging