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EOR Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Male child presents with facial and lower extremity edema, abd pain and diarrhea. Urine shows 3-4 plus proteinuria. Creatinine wmnl.

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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2
Q

What usually precedes nephrotic syndrome?

A

illness

  • infections
  • allergic reactions
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3
Q

What is the treatment for nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • corticosteroids

- diuretics (if generalized edema)

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease

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5
Q

How do you treat minimal change disease?

A

corticosteroids

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6
Q

What is minimal change disease?

A

glomeruli appear normal, on biopsy

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7
Q

When should you get a renal biopsy in a child with nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Under 1yo

- Proteinuria persists over 8weeks

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8
Q

What is considered SECONDARY nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • over 8yo
  • HTN
  • persisting hematuria
  • renal dysfunction
  • rash
  • arthralgia
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9
Q

What is congenital nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • diagnosed w/n first 3 months of life

- In utero findings- proteinuria, large placenta, edema

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10
Q

Child presents with fever, arthralgias, rash, rising Cr, fatigue and weight loss. NO hematuria/proteinuria and while cells and hylaline casts. He had strep throat 2 weeks ago and was prescribed PCN.

A

acute interstitial nephritis

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11
Q

What usually precedes acute interstitial nephritis by 2 weeks?

A
  • Medications (PCN, sulfa, glouroquinolones, NSAIDS, diuretics)
  • Infections (strep, pyleo, HBV, EBV, HIV, adeno)
  • sarcoid
  • SLE
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12
Q

How do you treat acute interstital nephritis?

A

-supportive

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13
Q

8yo girl presents with SUDDEN onset hematuria, edema and HTN. She had strep throat 2 weeks ago.

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis

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14
Q

In post-strep glomerulonephritis, what lab is elevated after throat infection?

A

anti-streptolysin O titer

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15
Q

In post-strep glomerulonephritis, what lab is elevated after skin infection?

A

Deoxyribonuclease B anti-strep

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16
Q

How do you treat post-strep glomerulonephritis?

A

Tx aimed at controlling effects of renal failure and HTN (Na restriction, ACE, CCB, vasodilators)

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17
Q

What type of glomerulonephritis is associated with deafness and vision problems?

A

alport syndrome

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in kids?

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

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19
Q

What characterizes HUS?

A
  • hemolytic anemia

- uremia (toxic levels of nitrogen in blood)

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20
Q

What is seen on CBC with HUS?

A
  • helmet cells
  • burr cells
  • decreased HgG (5-9)
  • fragmented RBC
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21
Q

How do you treat hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

supportive (nutrition, fluids)

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22
Q

When should routine BP screenings start in kids?

A

3yo

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23
Q

Patient presents with HTN and recurrent UTIs

A

vesicourectal reflex

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24
Q

What is vesicourectal reflex?

A

retrograde flow of urine from bladder to ureter and renal pelvis

-causes urine to back up leading to infection, inflammation, scarring

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25
Q

What is the leading cause of HTN in children?

A

vesicourectal reflex

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26
Q

When should toilet training begin?

A

2-3 yo

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27
Q

When should eneuresis stop?

A

5yo

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28
Q

When should pharm therapy for eneuresis begin to be considered?

A

7yo

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29
Q

What is pharm therapy for eneruresis?

A

desmopressin (synthetic ADH)

imipramine (TCA)

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30
Q

What is it called when the urethral opening is located on ventral surface of penis?

A

hypospadius

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31
Q

What do you want to avoid if a child has hypospadius?

A

circumcision!

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32
Q

What is phimosis?

A

inability to retract foreskin

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33
Q

What is treatment for phimosis?

A

topical steroid TID for 3 weeks

circumcision is definitive tx

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34
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

foreskin retracted beyond gland penis, cannot be pulled forward again

(EMERGENCY!)

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35
Q

What is tx for paraphimosis?

A

lubrication to help push glans back through phomotic ring

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36
Q

What are risk factors for hip dysplasia? (4)

A
  • first child
  • girls
  • breech position
  • family hx
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37
Q

What is clinical presentation of hip dysplasia?

A
  • asymmetry of skin folds
  • loss of ABduction
  • decreased leg length
  • limp
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38
Q

What is Barlows test?

A

dislocation of hip

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39
Q

What is Ortolani test?

A

relocation of hip

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40
Q

What is galazzei test?

A

hold legs together and bent at 90degrees at the knee and look for knee height difference

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41
Q

How do you dx hip dysplasia?

A

xray (AP view of pelvis)

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42
Q

What should be done for female babies who were breech?

A

US at 6 weeks

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43
Q

How do you tx hip dysplasia?

A
  • Braces/harness (Pavlik)– best used under 6 months old, brace for 8-12 weeks (until stable)
  • casting (for over 6 months old)– spica cast x8-12 weeks
  • surgical reduction is over 2yo
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44
Q

A 10yo thin, active boy presents unilateral pain and limping that is worse with activity. He has decreased ABduction and internal rotation. You get an xray and see hyperdensity w/n femoral head (cresent sign)

A

legg-calve perthes disease

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45
Q

What is legg-calve perthes disease?

A

Idiopathic osteonecrosis of femoral head

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46
Q

How do you treat legg-calve perth disease?

A
  • observation (femoral head re-vascularizes usually)
  • restrict vigorous activity
  • NSAIDs, crutches
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47
Q

An obese 14yo boy presents with sudden a sudden onset of a limp and hip and knee pain

A

Slipped capital femoral epithysis (SCFE)

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48
Q

How do you dx slipped capital femoral epithysis?

A

xray (AP and frog lateral)– fuzzy irregularities on physis, appears the epiphysis has slipped/rotated

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49
Q

How do you treat slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

surgery (WILL progress if left untreated)

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50
Q

3yo boy presents with acute onset limp and pain in groin/thigh and a swollen hip. He is AFEBRILE

A

transient synovitis of hip (toxic synovitis)

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51
Q

How do you treat transient synovitis?

A

rest, monitor temperature

fullr esolution in 3-14 days

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52
Q

8yo boy active boy presents with gradual onset of bilateral knee pain that is worse with jumping/running/kneeling

A

osgood-schlatter

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53
Q

What is Osgood Schlatter?

A

inflammation of tibial tubercle

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54
Q

Hhow do you treat osgood-schaltter?

A
  • symptomatic (ice/heat, NSAIDs, active rest, knee pads)

- reassurance (may take several months to heal)

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55
Q

What is a talipes equinovarus?

A

club foot

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56
Q

What are the components of a club foot?

A
  • plantar flexion of ankle
  • adduction of heel
  • high arch
  • adduction of forefoot
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57
Q

What is treatment for club foot?

A

IMMEDIATE casting (serial casting q1-2 weeks x2-4 months

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58
Q

What is the clinical definition of scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature of spine over 10 degrees

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59
Q

What are common etiologies of scoliosis?

A
  • idiopatic
  • congenital
  • neuromuscular (CP, MD)
  • vertebral dz (tumor, infection)
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60
Q

What are risks of progression of scoliosis?

A
  • girl
  • young age of onset
  • initial curvature over 11 degrees
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61
Q

What is treatment for scoloiosis of 20-40 degrees?

A

brace (won’t reverse)

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62
Q

What is treatment of over 50 degrees curvature?

A

surgical intervention (fusion, rodding)

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63
Q

5 week old baby presents with “cock robbin” position and decreased cervical motion

A

torticolis

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64
Q

What is torticolis?

A

unilateral contraction of sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle

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65
Q

What is treatment for torticolis?

A
  • passive stretching (performed by parents)
  • usually resolves in 1 year
  • surgical release of SCM if lasts over 18 months
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66
Q

What are etiologies of torticolis?

A
  • intrauterine positioning

- stretch of musculature during delivery

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67
Q

3yo presents with arm held in extension at her side after being swung by her arms by her parents

A

Nursemaids elbow

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68
Q

How do you treat nursemaids elbow?

A

forcefully flex/supine arm

immobilization not necessary

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69
Q

What is a Salter-Harris fracture?

A

growth plate (physis) injury/fracture

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70
Q

Type 1 salter-harris fracture?

A

through physis

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71
Q

Type 2 salter harris-fracture?

A

through physis, into metaphysis

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72
Q

Type 3 salter-harris fracture?

A

physis into epiphysis

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73
Q

Type 6 salter-harris fracture?

A

compression/crush

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74
Q

What is the most common type of salter-harris fracture?

A

Type 2

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75
Q

What is tx of salter-harris fractures?

A

same as other fractures

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76
Q

What do you need to avoid with salter-harris fractures?

A

Must protect physis from early closure

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77
Q

Patient presents with short stature, blue scerla, decreased hearing, lax ligaments and poor dentition

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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78
Q

What is posteogenesis imperfecta?

A

defect in Type 1 collagen

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79
Q

What do you see on xray with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

osteopenia, bowed long bones

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80
Q

How do you treat osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • symptomatic
  • tx fractures routinely
  • modify activity to lessen risk
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81
Q

1 yo presents with 88 O2 sat, a seal/bark cough and inspiratory stridor

A

Croup

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82
Q

What causes Croup?

A

parainfluenza

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83
Q

What is Croup?

A

parainfluenza causes subeglottic edema, airfow obstruction

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84
Q

How do you treat croup?

A
  • single dose decadron

- mod/severe: racemic epinephrine, oxygen, IV fluids

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85
Q

6yo presents with high fever, stridor, drooling, difficulty swallowing and is in tripod position

A

Epiglottitis

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86
Q

What is the pathogen behing epiglottitis?

A

H. influenza

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87
Q

How do you dx epiglotittis?

A
  • DO NOT visualize airwau

- xray (lateral soft tissue neck)

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88
Q

What do you expect to see on an xray of someone with epiglottitis?

A

thumb sign

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89
Q

How do you treat epiglottitis?

A
  • IV abx (rocephin)

- secure airway (may need to intubate)

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90
Q

When do you want to start ostelmavir (tamiflu)

A

w/n 48 hrs

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91
Q

6month old had URI recently and presents today with fever, poor feeding, “junky” sounding lungs, low O2sat and tachypnea

A

RSV (bronchiolitis)

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92
Q

What is the pathology behind RSV?

A

inflamed bronchial tubes from RSV virus cause air-trapping

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93
Q

How do you dx RSV?

A
  • RSV nasal swab

- hyperinflation on cxr

94
Q

How to you tx RSV?

A
  • supportive (self-limited)

- close monitoring

95
Q

When do you admit someone with RSV?

A
  • premature
  • under 6 months old
  • chronic lung disease
  • immunocompromised
96
Q

What are the 3 stages of pertussis?

A
  1. catarrhal stage
  2. paroxsymal stage
  3. convalescent stage
97
Q

What is the most infectious stage of pertussis?

A

catarrhal stage

98
Q

What is the catarrhal stage?

A
  • first 1-2 weeks

- URI sxs

99
Q

What is the paroxsymal stage?

A
  • 1-6 weeks
  • post-tussive vomiting
  • inspiratory whoop
100
Q

What is the convalescent stage?

A
  • recovery 2-3 weeks

- cough lessens

101
Q

How do you dx pertussis?

A

PCR nasal swab

102
Q

How do you treat pertussis?

A
  • macrolides (azithro, clarithro)

- treat all family members!!!

103
Q

What is the most common pneumonia pathogen in kid?

A

S. pneumoniae

104
Q

What is first line abx for pneumonia in children?

A

Amoxicillin BID

105
Q

What are second line abx for pna in children?

A

macrolides

106
Q

What would make you think it was a viral pna?

A
  • gradual UTI sxs

- non-toxic appearing

107
Q
  • failure to pass meconium at birth
  • recurrent resp. infections
  • greasy, fowel-smwelling stools that float
  • clubbing of fingers
A

Cystic Fibrosis

108
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

abnormality in CF transmembrane conductance regulator (cl channel found in cells lining lungs, intestines, sweat glands)

109
Q

What organs are generally dysfunctioning with CF?

A
  • pancreas (caloric malabsorption_

- lungs (cycle of mucus retention, inflammation)

110
Q

How do you dx cystic fibrosis?

A
  • positive sweat test (over 60)

- positive newborn screen (elevated IRT)

111
Q

How do you tx CF?

A
  • mucus thinners
  • inhalers
  • frequent abx
  • supplemental enzymes
  • airway clearance (oscillatory vest)
112
Q

Patient presents with episodic dry cough, wheexing and resp. distress, especially when active

113
Q

How do you dx asthma?

114
Q

What PFT finding suggests asthma?

A

Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio with post-bronchial inprovment of at least 12-percent

115
Q

What is the rescue inhaler in asthma?

A

B2-agonist (albuterol)

116
Q

What is the maintenace inhaler for asthma?

A

inhaled steroids (fluticasone)

117
Q

What would classify as an intermittent asthmatic?

A
  • sxs less than 2 days/week
  • no night awakenings
  • normal FEV1 between exacerbations
118
Q

What would classify as mild persistent asthma?

A

-Sxs more than 2 days/week
-1-2x/month night awakenings
-

119
Q

What would classify moderate persistent asthma?

A
  • daily use B2

- 3-4/month night awakenings

120
Q

What would classify as severe persistent asthma?

A
  • sxs throughout day
  • at least 1/week night awakening
  • B2 several times/day
  • FEV1 under 60 percent
  • FEV1/FVC under 75 percent
121
Q

What is SIDS?

A

Under 1 yo child dies during SLEEP

122
Q

When does SIDS risk peak?

A

2-4 months old

123
Q

What are risk factors for SIDS?

A
  • cigarette smoking
  • mather under 20yo
  • premature, low birth weight
  • prone sleep position
  • soft bedding
  • overheating
  • bed sharing
  • siblings of SID victims
124
Q

What are ways of reducing risk of SIDS?

A
  • room sharing
  • breastfeeding
  • use pacifier during sleep
  • place infant on back to sleep
125
Q

An infant is born at 35 weeks and a few hours after birth starts to become cyanotic and hypoxemic

A

hyaline membrane disease

126
Q

What is hyaline membrane disease?

A

Deficiency in surfactant leads to atelectasis

surfactant maintains alveoli stability and inflation

127
Q

How do you treat hyaline membrane disease?

A
  • corticosteroids– induces formation of surfactact (give during labor 22-36 weeks)
  • give surfactant
128
Q

When should the first stool be passed by a newborn?

A

w/n 72 hrs

129
Q

Whats the most common cause of diarrhea in children?

130
Q

What are common causes of bloody diarrhea?

A
  • salmonella
  • hemolytic uremic syndrome (E. coli)
  • intussecption
131
Q

A newborn has not passed meconium in 72 hours and then has a squirt sign with DRE. Also it vomiting and has a fever.

A

Hirschsprungs Disease

132
Q

What is hirschsprungs disease?

A

congenital absence of ganglion cells in distal rectum and colon– leads to obstruction

133
Q

How do you dx Hirschsprung disease?

A

rectal biopsy

134
Q

How do you tx Hirschsprung disease?

A

surgery– resect affected bowel segment, bring normal ganglionic bowel down close to anus and preserve sphincter function

135
Q

What does the rule of 2s apply to?

A

Meckels diverticulum

136
Q

What is Meckels diverticulum?

A

Incomplete obliteration of vitelline duct– leading to true diverticulum of small intestine

137
Q

What is the rule of 2s?

A
  • 2 percent of population
  • male (2) : female (1)
  • w/n 2 feet of illocecal valve
  • 2in long
  • present before age 2
138
Q

How do you dx Meckels diverticulum?

A
  • Meckels scan (nuclear medicine)
  • mesenteric arteriography
  • abd exploration
139
Q

How do you treat Meckels diverticulum?

A

resection (not elective if found incidentally)

140
Q

3yo presents with sudden onset of intermittient severe abd pain. Patient is draawing legs/knees towards abdomen. On PE you feel a sausage-shaped abd mass.

A

Intussesception

141
Q

What other PE finding do you expect with intussesception?

A

currant jelly stools

142
Q

What is intussesception?

A

Invagination of part of intestine into itself. Causes bowel obstruction and ischemia

143
Q

How do you dx intusseception?

144
Q

What do you expect to see on US with intussception?

A

target sign/bulls eye

145
Q

How do you treat intusseception?

A
  • barium air-enema (dx and tx)

- surgery for unstable patient or perforation

146
Q

13yo presents with diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss

A

celiac disease

147
Q

How do you dx celiac disease?

A

serum celiac-antigen testing

–if positive– endoscopy for duodenal biopsy

148
Q

How do you dx lactose intolerance?

A
  • lactose breath hydrogen test

- lactose absorption test

149
Q

Patient presents with ongoing joint pain and uveitis?

A

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

150
Q

Patient presents with arthralgia od wrists/knees/ankles for over 6 weeks and quotidian fever for 2 weeks, and a macular salmon-pink rash associated with fever/heat on axillaw and wrists

A

Systemic arthritis (stills disease)

151
Q

Patient presents with palpable purpura from waist down, edema, arthritis, abd pain/craming

A

henoch sholia purpura

152
Q

How do you dx Henoch Sholia Purpura?

A

Need 2 of 4:

  • purpura
  • bowel angina
  • biopsy
  • peds group

(platelets wnl– non-thrombocytpenic purpura)

153
Q

How do you dx SLE?

A

need 4 of 11 criteria

154
Q

What are the 11 possible criteria of SLE?

A
  • malar rash (butterfly rash)
  • photosensitivity
  • discoid rash
  • renal signs (esp. peds population– hematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, acute renal failure)
  • raynauds
  • mucosal sores
  • arthritis
  • neuro d/o (seizures)
155
Q

How do you monitor SLE treatment?

A

complement (C3, C4)

156
Q

newborn has loud harsh holosystolic murmur along LSB

A

Ventricular septal defect

157
Q

Are most ventricular septal defects small or large?

158
Q

How do you treat a small ventricular septal defect?

A

close f/u, periodic echo– most will close on own by 18 months- 10yrs

159
Q

How do you treat a large ventral septal defect?

A

surgery (treat HF first)

160
Q

a 21yo presents with fatigue, dyspnea and decreased stamina. On PE there is a lift, S1 is accentuated and S2 is widely splitthrough inspiration/expiration. A midsystolic cresendo-decresendo murmur is heard

A

atrial septal defect

161
Q

How do you treat atrial septal defect?

A

sxs present- surgery/catheter

no sxs- surgery if pHTN present

162
Q

Patient has systolic thrill and suprasternal notch and prominent RV impulse and upper LSB. There is an early systolic CLICK and a loud harsh cresendo-decreasendo murmur that radiates to the clavicles

A

pulmonic stenosis

163
Q

How do you tx pulmonic stenosis?

A

balloon valvuloplasty

164
Q

a pre-term infant who’s mother was exposed to rubella has a systolic thrill and a continuous machinery murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

165
Q

When does the PDA normally close?

A

w/n 2-3 days after birth

166
Q

How do you treat pre-term infants with patent ductus arteriousus?

A

indomethacin (constriction of ductus)

surgery id ductus remains open

167
Q

Patient presents with differential BP between arms and legs over 10mmHg systolic

A

coarction of aorta

168
Q

What does coarction do?

A

causes obstruction to outflow to lower half of body (starts just below subclavian artery)

169
Q

What xray finding do you fin d with aortic coarction?

A

rib notchin due to prominent collateral circulation to lower body via internal mammary and subcostal arteries

170
Q

Patient presents with strawberry tongye, rash on inguinal area and chest, conjunctivitis, high fever, dry/cracked mucosa

A

Kawasaki diease

171
Q

What is the major danger of kawasaki disease?

A

aneurysm formation in small-medium arteries

172
Q

How do you dx kawasaki disease?

A

Need 4/5:

  • conjunctivitis
  • mucous membranes (cracked lips, strawberry tongue)
  • swollen extremities
  • rash
  • adenopathy
173
Q

What is crucial to get in someone with kawasaki disease?

A

ECHO to check for aneurysms

174
Q

What do you want to get after cute phase has passes?

A

angiography

175
Q

How do you tx kawasaki disease?

A

IV Ig

ASA during acute phase

176
Q

What is first line treatment for acute seizure?

177
Q

a 4 month old has a generalized seizure that lasts under 5 mins and does not have a CNS infection

A

febrile seizure

178
Q

How do you treat febrile seuzre?

A

reassurance!

179
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

seizure lasting over 15mins or series of seizures w/o complete recovery for over 30 min

180
Q

What are etiologies of cerebral palsy?

A
  • premature birth (MOST COMMON)
  • IUGR
  • perinatal hypoxia
  • intrauterine infection
  • antepartum hemorrhage
181
Q

What is clinical definition of microcephaly?

A

2 SD below mean

182
Q

What is clinical definition of macrocephaly?

A

2 SD above mean

183
Q

What are s/s of macrocephaly?

A

transillumination of skull

184
Q

How often do you have to measure a newborns head circumference?

A

At every visit for first 36 months

185
Q

When should the posterior fontanelle close?

186
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

10-24 months

187
Q

What are common causes of premature closure of fontanelles?

A
  • microcephaly
  • cranciosyntysis (ridging of suture lines)
  • hyperthyroidism
188
Q

What are common causes of DELAYED closure of anterior fontanelle?

A
  • HYPOthyroidism
  • incraesed intracrancial pressure
  • down syndrome
  • Ricketts
189
Q

What are risk factors for strabismus?

A
  • family hx
  • decreased birth weight
  • prematurity
190
Q

How do you confirm strabismus?

A
  • corneal light reflex

- cover/uncover test

191
Q

What is red reflex sign of strabismus?

A

red reflex MORE INTENSE in deviated eye

192
Q

What is the most common cause of colds?

A

rhinovirus

193
Q

What are common pathogens of otitis media? (3)

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenza
  • M. catarrhalis
194
Q

What are risk factors for otitis media?

A
  • family hx
  • daycare
  • lack of breast-feeding
  • tobacco exposure
195
Q

Who needs OM treated?

A
  • under 2yo

- bilteral disease or otorrhea

196
Q

What is first line treatment for AOM?

A

HD amoxicillin (x10days under 5yo, 5-7 days for 0ver 6yo)

197
Q

What is second line for AOM?

A

amox/clav acid

198
Q

Who should get treatment with amox/clav for AOM?

A
  • patients treated w/abx in last month
  • pts w/otitis/conjunctivitis
  • pts on daily amox for chemoprophylaxis
199
Q

How do you treat OM w/effusion?

A

NOT WITH ABX

self limited

200
Q

How do you treat sinusitis?

201
Q

Patient presents with fever, oral vesicles and tender lesions on hands, feet and butt

A

hand, foot and mouth disease

202
Q

What is pathogen behind hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Group A Coxsackie Virus

203
Q

1 yo patient presents with high fever (over 104) and a diffuse maculopapular rash as fever ends. LAD and nagasma spots (uvulopataloglossal macules/ulcers)

204
Q

How do you treat roseola?

A

supportive

205
Q

What is pathogen of roseola?

A

Herpesvirus 6

206
Q

8yo presents with “slapped cheek” rash, low-grade fever, and HA

A

Fifths disease

207
Q

What is pathogen behind fifths disease?

A

Parvovirus B19

208
Q

What is first line treatment of GAS pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin V TID x10days

Amoxicillin BID/TID x10days

209
Q

Why do you want to make sure to treat pharyngitis?

A

tx decreases risk of peritonsillar abcesses, mastoiditis, rheumatic fever

210
Q

11yo who had pharyngitis 3 weeks ago presents with migratory arthritis, pancreatitis, subcuntaneous nodules, fever and prolonged PR interval

A

rheumatic fever

211
Q

Patient presents with “hot potato” voice, drooling, trismus (tetanus) fatigue

A

peritonsillar abscess

212
Q

How do you treat peritonsillar abscess?

A
  • drainage

- abx– amox-clav

213
Q

16yo presents with exudative tonsils, pharyngitis, jaundice, fever, HA, malaise?

214
Q

What lymph nodes would you expect to be swollen with EBV?

A

posterior cervical adenopathy

215
Q

What are risks with EBV?

A
  • splenic rupture
  • airway obstruction (tx with steroids)
  • rash following admin of ampicillin
216
Q

When is the peak incidence of bacterial meningitis?

A

under 2 months old

217
Q

What is the most common pathogens of bacterial meningitis for 1-3 month olds?

A

GBS, gram neg bacilli (e. coli)

218
Q

What is the most common pathogens of bacterial meningitis of 3-10yo?

A

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitis

219
Q

Patient presents with fever, conjunctivitis, coryza (stuffy nose), and maculopapular rash beginning on face and spreading to body (sparing palms and soles)?

220
Q

What is so dangerous about mealses?

A

highly contagious (5 days prior and 4 days after rash)

221
Q

How are measles spread?

A

spread via droplets (person to person contact not necessary)

222
Q

What are immediate complications of mealses?

A
  • death (resp. complications)
  • pulm complications (pneumonia, bronchitis)
  • encephalitis
  • acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (2 weeks after rash)
  • keratitis (common cause of blindness)
223
Q

How do you treat measles?

A
  • post-exposure vaccine w/n 72 hrs

- after 72 hrs– IM ig

224
Q

Patient presents with low-grade fever, fatigue, parotitis, weythema and nelargement of stenses duct

225
Q

What are complications of mumps?

A
  • orchitis (testicular pain, scrotal swelling)
  • deafness
  • Guillance barre
  • myocarditis (dilated cardiomyopathy)
226
Q

How do you treat mumps?

A

supportive

227
Q

When is varicella most infectious?

A

2 days prior to rash

228
Q

What are complications of varicella?

A
  • soft tissue infection with GAS
  • encephalitis
  • acute cerebellar ataxia
  • reye syndrome
  • pneumonia
  • hepatitis
229
Q

Patient presents with maculopapular rash on face and spreads to trunks/extermities w/n 24 hrs, low-grade fever, LAD, forcheimer spots (exanthema of soft palate), and arthritis

A

Rubella (German measles)

230
Q

What are complications of congenital rubella syndrome?

A
  • blueberry muffin lesions
  • hearing loss
  • cataracts
  • cardiac defects (PDA, VSD)
  • IUGR
  • hemolytic anemia
  • growth deficiency
231
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A
  • autosomal recessive d/o
  • deficiency of enzyme that produces cortisol/aldosterone
  • Increased ACTH because no negative feedback w/lack of cortisol/aldosterone causes hyper-production of estradiol/testosterone

Pediatrics (3 decks)

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