EOR Flashcards

1
Q

The integration of best research with clinical expertise and patient values

A

evidence based medicine

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2
Q

The conscientinous, explicit, and judicious use of the current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients

A

evidence based medicine

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3
Q

What are the 4 domains of practice?

A

Diagnosis
Prognosis
Intervention
Harm

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4
Q

What are the 7 general steps of EBM method?

A
  1. Acknowledge there is something I don’t know
  2. Formulate a foreground question (PICO)
  3. Search online datebases
  4. Select best evidence
  5. Critically appraise evidence
  6. Integrate evidence with clinical practice and patient values
  7. Evaluate self: how am I doing as an evidence based practitioner?
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5
Q

What are the 3 fundamentals of EBM?

A

1. optimal clinical decision making
* awareness of best available evidence (systematic summaries)
2. assess whether evidence of trustworthy
* confidence of properties of diagnostic tests, patient prognosis or impact of therapeutic options
3. evidence alone is never sufficient to make a clinical diagnosis
* weight risks vs benefits, alternatives, values and pt preferences

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6
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

Patient / Population
Interventions / Exposures
Compare - control, alternative, or comparison
Outcome we are interested in

Time - only used in PECOT to provide restrictions to begining and end of studied period

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7
Q

What are the 5 categories of EBM resources?

A
  1. Summary
  2. Guidelines
  3. Pre-appraised research
  4. Non pre-appraised research
  5. Federated searches
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8
Q

An EBM resource that is updated regularly to integrate the body of evidence of several related questions and provide actionable recommendations for practice.
Give 3 examples.

A

Summaries

UpToDate, Best Practice, DynaMed

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9
Q

An EBM resource that focuses on providing specific topic/disease focused recommendations for optimal patient management.
Give an example.

A

Guidelines

US national guidelines clearinghouse

More difficult to search for since they are scattered across specialty journals and organization websites.

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10
Q

An EBM resource that looks directly at research findings; search sources that select only Systematic Reviews and studies that meet defined methadological criteria and provide synopses.
GIve 4 examples.

A

Pre-appraised research
ACP journal club, Cochrane, McMaster, DARE

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11
Q

An EBM resource that is the largest compilation of controlled trials

A

pre-apprased research

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12
Q

An EBM resource that searches all 3 categories without pre-vetting. Must use filters like ____.
Give 3 examples.

A

Non pre-appraised research
clinical queries (broad filter is more sensitive, narrow filter is more specific)

pubmed, medline, CINAHL

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13
Q

An EBM resource that provides all layers of research at once, including summaries, guidelines, preappraised and nonpreappraised; requires advanced searching skills.
Give 4 examples.

A

Federated search engines

ACCESS, Trip, SumSearch, Epistemonikos

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14
Q

Differentiate between Level and Grade of evidence.

A

Levels = individual study (1a, 1b, 1c, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3a, 3b, 4, 5)

Grades = summarize multiple studies (A, B, C)

“Multiple letter Grades on a report card”

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15
Q

what does GRADE stand for?

what is it used for?

A

Grading and Recommendation, Assessment, Development, and Evaluation

for multiple studies

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16
Q

several high-quality studies w/ consistent results or one large, high quality multi-center trial; further research is very unlikely to change our confidence in estimate of effect

A

A (high quality evidence)

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17
Q

one high quality study or several studies with some limitations; further research is likely to have an important impact on our confidence in the estimate of effect and may change the estimate

A

B (moderate quality evidence)

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18
Q

one or more studies with several limitations; further research is very likely to have an important impact on our confidence in the estimate of effect and is likely to change the estimate

A

C (low quality evidence)

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19
Q

one or more studies with very severe limitations; expert opinion - any estimate of effect is very uncertain and there is no direct research evidence

A

D (very low quality evidence)

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20
Q

What is SORT? what kind of studies is it used for?

A

Strength of Recommendation Taxonomy
independent studies

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21
Q

independent study with consistent, good quality patient-oriented evidence

A

A; sort

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22
Q

independent study with inconsistent or limited quality patient-oriented evidence

A

B; sort

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23
Q

independent study with consensus, disease-oriented evidence, usual practice, expert opinion, or case series for studies of diagnosis, treatment, prevention and screening

A

C; sort

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24
Q

What is the hierarchy of evidence? (5)

A
  1. N-of-1 RCT
  2. Multiple patient RCT
  3. Observational studies (outcomes)
  4. Basic research (lab, animal, human physiology)
  5. Clinical experience (expert opinion)
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25
Q

what are the 2 types of study designs?

A

Observational
Experimental

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26
Q

what are the 2 types of observational studies?

A

descriptive
analytical

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27
Q

observational study that inclues case reports, surveys, qualitative and case series

A

descriptive

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28
Q

observational study that includes cross sectional, case control, and cohort

A

analytical

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29
Q

RCT, quasi experiements, and single subject design are all examples of what kind of studies?

A

experimental studies

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30
Q

what type of study design is from a given point in time (snapshot) without follow up period? (made on a single occasion)

A

cross-sectional study

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31
Q

what statistic is used for a cross-sectional study?

A

estimate prevalence

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32
Q

what is the estimate prevalence equation?

A

number of existing cases at a single point in time / total population

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33
Q

what does incidence mean?

A

new cases

iNcidence = New cases

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34
Q

what does prevalence mean?

A

all cases

preALence = ALL cases

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35
Q

which type of study is always retrospective and the outcomes of two groups have already happened?

A

case control study

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36
Q

what kind of study is good for studying rare diseases?

A

case control study

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37
Q

what statistic is used for case control studies?

A

odds ratio

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38
Q

what is the equation for odds ratio?

A

ratio of the odds of an event in exposed group vs odds of same event in control group

OR = ad / cb

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39
Q

which type of study can be retrospective or prospective with observations made and followed over time?

A

cohort study

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40
Q

what statistic is used in cohort studies?

A

estimate incidence

I am IN the cohort”

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41
Q

what are the 4 steps of experimental research?

A
  1. identify participants
  2. place in common context
  3. intervene
  4. observe effects
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42
Q

what study design is usually used in experimental research?

A

randomized blinded trial

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43
Q

what type of study is putting together all research over a certain question?

A

systematic reviews

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44
Q

what is used to organize all systematic reviews and narrows down the research question?

A

meta-analyses

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45
Q

what statistic is used in each study type?

cross sectional
case control
cohort

A

cross sectional = prevalence
case control = odds ratio
cohort = incidence

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46
Q

what are the 3 criteria for choosing EBM resources?

A
  1. based on current best evidence
  2. coverage and specificity
  3. availability and access
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47
Q

what are the 5 A’s for the efficient use of current medical literature?

A

Ask
Acquire - systemic retrieval of best evidence
Appraise - for validity, clinical relevence, and applicability
Apply to practice
Assess performance

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48
Q

what kind of questions ask about definition or pathophysiology of a syndrome or mechanism of a treatment modality?
when are they usually used?

A

background questions

beginning stages

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49
Q

what kind of questions ask target questions of therapy, harm, diagnosis, or prognosis that provide the evidentiary basis for decision making?

what is the 1st step?

A

foreground questions

structure question in PICO format

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50
Q

what are the 5 types of foreground questions?

A
  1. therapy
  2. harm
  3. differential diagnosis
  4. diagnosis
  5. prognosis

“Folklore = The Tortured Poetry Department”

Foreground = TTPD (therapy, harm, prognosis, Dx/DDx”

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51
Q

what are the 3 study design questions we should use to assess research on best treatment/therapy? (questions we should ask when looking into research about a treatment we want to use)

A
  1. Validity = how serious was the risk of bias?
  2. Outcomes = what are the results?
  3. Application = can I apply these results to patient care?

VOA = validity, outcomes, application

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52
Q

what kind of trial has the primary objective to determine the magnitude of increased benefit of the experimental intervention over the standard therapy?

A

superiority trial

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53
Q

what is the strength / weakness of a superiority trial?

A

strength = getting a superior tx compared to the standard

weakness = expensive or inconvenient

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54
Q

what statistic is used in superiority trials?

A

P value

“suPeriority trials”

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55
Q

the idea that nothing special is happening; the claim that the effect being studied does not exist

A

null hypothesis

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56
Q

what does p < 0.05 mean?

A

reject the null (intervention > standard)

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57
Q

what does a smaller P value mean?

A

the saying that there is no difference between two treatments = false

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58
Q

what kind of trial provides an alternative to equivalent trials, but is unconcerned if experimental treatment is better as long as it is “not much worse”?

A

non-inferiority trials

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59
Q

what is the weakness in non-inferiority trials?

A

investigators set their own thresholds for accepted values

without universally accepted method for defining an appropriate threshold

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60
Q

what is the statistic used in non-inferiority trials?

A

confidence interval

“non-Confident in non-inferiority”

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61
Q

If the upper boundary of the confidence interval is ____ your threshold = the balance between desirable and undesirable consequences is a close one - will involve full exploration of your pt’s views of the trade off at hand

A

near

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62
Q

If the upper boundary is _____ ___ than your threshold, very few pts would choose the intervention

A

substantially greater

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63
Q

what are the 3 questions to ask when evaluating a non-inferiority trial?

A
  1. what are the results?
  2. are the results valid?
  3. how can I apply the results to patient care?
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64
Q

what kind of trials establish that an experimental treatment is neither better nor worse than the standard?

A

equivalence trial

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65
Q

occational mistakes that are likely to skew measurements from the study in either direction

A

random error

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66
Q

systematic errors that distort the findings in one direction

A

bias

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67
Q

means it is free from random error

A

precision

“r and p are close in the alphabet”

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68
Q

means it is free from systematic error

A

accuracy

“systematic error = bias, b and a are close in the alphabet”

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69
Q

how can we reduce the chances of random error?

A

manipulate sample size (make it larger)

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70
Q

how can we control for bias?

A

improve study design and implementation

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71
Q

accuracy vs precision

A

accuracy (validity)

precision (reliability/reproducible)

“PRAV”

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72
Q

distortion in the perception or reporting of the measure by observer; experimenter bias

A

observer bias

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73
Q

how can we reduce observer bias?

A

double blinding

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74
Q

bias that can result from faulty function of a mechanical instrument

A

instrument bais

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75
Q

how can we reduce instrument bias?

A

use only validated instruments

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76
Q

bias that’s described as distortion of measurements by the study subject

A

subject bias

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77
Q

how can we reduce subject bias?

A

compare it to a “gold standard” to assess accuracy

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78
Q

what are the 5 groups of people that should be blinded in a study?

A

patients
clinicians
data collectors
adjudicators of outcomes
data analyst

“we will be blinded as a PAACC”

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79
Q

what can eliminate differential bias that affects one study group more than another?

A

blinding

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80
Q

the risk of an event

A

absolute risk

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81
Q

what is the equation for risk (absolute risk)?

A

a/a+b

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82
Q

the ratio of the risk of an event among exposed population vs the risk among the unexposed population

A

relative risk

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83
Q

what is the relative risk equation?

A

RR = experiment/control group
(a/(a+b)) / (c/(c+d))

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84
Q

indicates that the exposure / treatment has no excessive risk for the outcome

A

RR = 1

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85
Q

indicates that the exposure / treatment increases the risk for the outcome

A

RR > 1

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86
Q

indicates that the exposure / treatment decreases the risk of the outcome

A

RR < 1

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87
Q

the difference in risk of a harmful outcome between experimental and control group

A

risk difference (absolute risk reduction (ARR))

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88
Q

What is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision making? (2)

A

Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) or Risk Difference (RD)

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89
Q

what is the equation for ARR or risk difference?

A

control - experimental group
[c/(c + d)] – [a/(a + b)]

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90
Q

what is the patient ultimately interested in?

A

risk difference (RD) or absolute risk reduction (ARR)

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91
Q

the proportional reduction in risk of harmful outcomes between the experimental and control group

A

relative risk reduction

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92
Q

what is the most commonly reported statistical measure of dichotomous treatment effects?

A

relative risk reduction (RRR)

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93
Q

what is the relative risk reduction equation? (2)

A

RRR = 1-RR

RRR = (CER-EER) / CER

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94
Q

what does the degree of risk reduction help us decide?

A

whether a treatment is worth pursuing based on the likelihood that the outcome will be successful

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95
Q

tells us the % of patients in the experimental group with a bad outcome

A

experimental event rate (EER)

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96
Q

what is the equation for experimental event rate (EER)?

A

a / (a+b)

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97
Q

tells us the % of patients in the control group with a bad outcome

A

control event rate (CER)

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98
Q

what is the equation for control event rate?

A

c / (c+d)

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99
Q

how do you set up contingency table and what are they used for?

A

used for RCTs which monitor dichotomous outcomes

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100
Q

the odds of an event in an exposed group vs the odds of the same event in a control group

A

odds ratio (OR)

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101
Q

what is the odds ratio equation? (2)

102
Q

the number of patients who must receive an intervention of therapy during a specific time period to prevent 1 adverse outcome or produce 1 positive outcome

A

Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

103
Q

what is the equation for NNT?

A

(1 / ARR) x 100

104
Q

do you want a small or large NNT? why?

A

small number

only need to treat 1 pt to prevent 1 adverse outcome; every pt will benefit

105
Q

the measure of how many people need to be treated (or exposed to a risk factor) in order for one person to have an adverse effect

A

Number Needed to Harm (NNH)

106
Q

what is the equation for NNH?

A

(1 / ARI) x 100

ARI (absolute risk increase) = EER - CER

107
Q

do you want the NNH to be large or small? why?

A

large

the less likely a pt will suffer an adverse event

108
Q

a range of values within which the true value of a parameter lies in

A

confidence intervals

109
Q

more precision (narrower confidence intervals) result from what? (2)

A

larger sample sizes
larger number of events

110
Q

How do you interpret confidence intervals in a positive trial of a meta analysis?

A
  1. check the lowest number in that range
  2. if lowest # is high enough, then trust that it’s a positive trial
  3. if the lowest # is too low for the range, then we need more studies
111
Q

a study in which there is no important difference between the treatment and control group

A

negative study

112
Q

How do you interpret confidence intervals in a negative trial of a meta analysis?

A
  1. look at the highest # in that range
  2. if the highest # is too low, then trust it’s a negative trial
  3. if the highest # is high enough, we need more studies
113
Q

the analysis of accumulated data that takes into account the timing of events; displayed with a survival curve of a group of patients to describe their status at different times after a defined starting point

A

survival analysis

114
Q

What is the advantage of using survival analysis?

A

can account for different lengths of follow-up

115
Q

In many trials of a fixed duration, some patients are enrolled early and thus have a long follow-up and some later with shorter follow-up, by a process called ____

116
Q

the probability of events occurring at any point in each group

117
Q

The weighted relative risk of an outcome during the entire study period

A

hazard ratio

118
Q

Which two measures allow you to estimate the patient’s risk with treatment?

A

relative risk (RR) or relative risk reduction (RRR)

119
Q

tells us the difference between the risk with and without treatment

A

risk difference (RD)

120
Q

Which two measures in a individual patient will be most useful in guiding the treatment decision?

A

risk difference (RD) & number needed to treat (NNT)

121
Q

what are the 3 P’s or considerations when creating differential diagnoses?

A

probability (most likely)
prognostic (more serious if left undx or untx)
pragmatic (more responsive to tx)

122
Q

What are the 2 complementary approaches to diagnosis?

A

Pattern recognition

Probabilistic diagnostic reasoning

123
Q

see and recognize it

ex. shingles classic presentation

A

pattern recognition

124
Q

too complex for pattern recognition; dx requires expert diagnosticians - takes more time, money, and knowledge

Ex: pt presents with weight loss and do not have an easily identifiable cause

A

Probabilistic diagnostic reasoning

125
Q

What are the 3 steps clinicians use to perform probabilistic diagnostic reasoning?

A
  1. pre-test probability
  2. post-test probability
  3. compare post-test probability with thresholds
126
Q

done before any formal testing, assemble short list of prausible target disorders to be investivated; forming a differential diagnosis

A

pre-test probability

127
Q

the revised likelihood of a dx based on test outcome

A

post-test probablitiy

128
Q

what post-test probability indicates the diagnosis would be absolutely certain?

A

post-test probability = 1

129
Q

what post-test probability indicates that the dx becomes more and more likely and reaches a threshold of probability in which the clinician would recommend starting treatment for the disorder?

A

post-test probability approaches 1

130
Q

what post-test probability indicates the diagnosis would be disproved?

A

post-test probability approaches 0

131
Q

What is used to assess value of performing a diagnostic test (determined by the sensitivity and specificity of the test) and moves us from the pretest probability to a posttest probability?

A

likelihood ratio (LR)

132
Q

indicates that the post-test probability is exactly the same as the pre-test probability (test is NOT worth doing)

133
Q

Increases the probability that the target disorder is present

134
Q

Decreases the probability of the target disorder

135
Q

the proportion of people with a positive test result, among those with the target condition

A

sensitivity

“SNout” = rules out negatives

136
Q

high sensitivity = low false _____ test

A

negative

“SnNout = Negative rules OUT”

137
Q

the proportion of people who are truly free of a disorder with a negative test result

A

specificity

“SPin = Positive, rules IN”

138
Q

high specificity = low false ____ test

A

positive

“SPin = Positive rules IN”

139
Q

what are the 2 thresholds in the diagnosis process?

A

test threshold
treatment threshold

140
Q

in a test threshold, what does a post-test probability nearing 0 indicate?

A

diagnosis is less likely and may be excluded

141
Q

in a treatment threshold, what does a post-test probability approaching 1 indicate?

A

diagnosis is likely and treatment can be initiated

142
Q

what does an in between thresholds indicate?

A

further testing is required

143
Q

studies that are most useful if individual members of the entire group are similar enough, that the outcome of the group is applicable to each participant

A

prognostic studies

144
Q

a study that enrolls patients at a point in time and follows them forward to determine the frequency and timing of subsequent events

A

prognostic studies

145
Q

variables or factors that influence whether a patient does better or worse

A

prognostic factors

146
Q

The separation of pts in two groups based on a prognostic factor to better understand the prognosis in each group

A

adjusted analysis

147
Q

if a large number of variables have a major effect on prognosis, investigators use statistical techniques like ____ ____ to determine the most powerful predictors

A

regression analysis

148
Q

summary of research that addresses a focused clinical question in a systematic, reproducible manner

A

systematic review

149
Q

a statistical pooling or aggregation of results from difference studies in order to increase precision, and is the single best effect estimate to facilitate clinical decision making

A

meta-analysis

150
Q

what is most clinically useful to combine, in order to provide the best estimate of effect that increases precision and facilitates clinical decision making?

A

systematic review + meta-analysis

151
Q

the extent to which the design and conduct of the review are likely to be protected against misleading results

A

credibility

152
Q

Why is credibility important in meta-analyses?

A

to determine how narrow or wide the scope of the question is (were eligibility criteria for inclusion appropriate?)

153
Q

Systematic review w/o a meta-analysis usually presents results from individual studies. Meta-analysis adds a ____ estimate of effect, w/ an associated confidence interval for each relevant outcome

A

pooled (combined)

154
Q

____ estimates could be for therapy outcomes, estimates of the properties of diagnostic tests, or estimates of patients’ likely outcomes

155
Q

clinicians need to know the extent to which they can trust pooled estimates. What is a fundamental problem that can undermine this trust?

A

credibility of the review

156
Q

____ may be undermined by inappropriate or unspecified eligibility criteria, inadequate research, and the omission of risk of bias assessments of individual studies

A

credibility

157
Q

when can a highly credible review leave us with a low confidence in estimates of effect? (4)

A

risk of bias / inconsistent results
small sample size
imprecision (wide CI)
enrolled pts differ from those we’re interested in (eligibility criteria)

158
Q

what statistic is used for estimate of effects?

what numbers represent small, medium, and large effect size?

A

standard deviation (SD)

0.2 = small effects
0.5 = medium effects
0.8 = large effects

159
Q

the effect size that results from the calculation of mean difference between treatment and control and dividing this by the standard deviation, provides a summary estimate of what?

A

treatment effect

160
Q

statements that include recommendations to optimize patient care

A

practice guidelines

161
Q

Practice guidelines are ideally informed by what?

A

Systematic review of evidence and an assessment of the benefits/harms of alternative options

162
Q

What must be done to make a recommendation for practice guidelines? (4)

A
  1. define clinical questions
  2. select relevant outcome variables
  3. retrieve and synthesize relevant evidence
  4. rate confidence in effect estimates
163
Q

an examination of the differences in effect estimates across included studies, in an attempt to explain differences in results (used in meta-analyses)

A

heterogeneity

164
Q

What two statistical tests are used for heterogeneity? which is preferred?

A

I ^2 (preferred)

P-value

165
Q

tells us the magnitude of variability across primary studies (what amount of difference is due to chance vs due to true variation between studies)

166
Q

shows statistical significance of variability

167
Q

an I ^2 that indicates that the differences in results are more likely due to chance (homogenous)

A

I ^2 closer to 0%

168
Q

an I ^2 that indicates that the differences in results is less likely due to chance (more heterogenous)

A

I ^2 closer to 100%

169
Q

in I ^2 < 50% (homogenous, more likely due to chance), what model is used in the meta-analysis?

A

fixed effect model

170
Q

in I ^2 > 50% (heterogenous, less likely due to chance), what model is used in the meta-analysis?

A

random effect model

171
Q

When looking at a meta-analysis, the starting assumption is that if a summary estimate of tx is provided (across range of pts, interventions, and outcomes) the effect of the interest is _________

A

about the same

172
Q

if combining diverse studies violates the starting assumption that the effect of interest is about the same, it may lead to false conclusions. what is the solution?

A

evaluate the variability/heterogeneity of study results

173
Q

what does a large difference in variability indicate in terms of confidence?

A

less confidence

174
Q

what does a small difference in variability indicate in terms of confidence?

A

more confidence; effect is more or less the same

175
Q

if the cofidence intervals overlap widely, the differences are likely due to ____

A

random error / chance

176
Q

if the cofidence intervals don’t overlap, random error is ____ the cause of the differences

177
Q

Failure to report or publish studies with a negative results is an example of _____ bias

178
Q

When an entire study remains unreported, we have ____ bias

A

publication

179
Q

bias when investigators measure a number of outcomes but report those that favor the experimental intervention or those that favor the intervention most strongly

A

selective outcome reporting bias

180
Q

Network meta-analyses which simultaneously include both direct and indirect evidence are sometimes called a __________ ____

A

closed loop

“your network is a closed loop of people”

181
Q

what type of systematic review allows the comparison of multiple interventions, and provides estimates of effect for all possible pairwise comparisons

A

network meta analysis

182
Q

example of closed loop / network meta-analyses?

A

comparing 7 different triptans

183
Q

Network meta-analyses are subject to what 3 chief considerations?

A
  1. are the studies sufficiently homogenous to combine for each intervention?
  2. are the trials in the network sufficiently similar, except the intervention?
  3. are the findings sufficiently consistent to allow confident pooling of direct and indirect evidence together?
184
Q

formal method that integrates the evidence regarding the beneficial and harmful effects of treatment options with values or preferences associated with those effects

A

decision analysis

185
Q

how are clinical decision analysis built?

A

decision trees (built as structured approaches)

186
Q

What are the 4 clinical decision making approaches?

A
  1. Paternalistic or parental
  2. Clinician-as-perfect-agent
  3. Informed decision making
  4. Shared decision making
187
Q

what type of decision making approach is when the clinician makes minimal effort to establish patient values and preferences, makes decision on behalf of patient?

A

Paternalistic or parental approach

188
Q

what is the con with paternalstic or parental decision making?

A

violates patient autonomy

189
Q

what type of decision making approach is when the clinician ascertains patient’s values and preferences, makes decision on behalf on patient?

A

Clinician-as-perfect-agent

190
Q

what is the con with clinician-as-perfect-agent decision making?

A

some experts think it’s impossible to implement

191
Q

what type of decision making approach is when the clinician provides patient with the information; patient makes the decision?

A

Informed decision making

192
Q

what type of decision making approach is when the patient and clinician both bring information/evidence and values and preferences to arrive at the best course of action?

A

Shared decision making (bidirectional exchange)

193
Q

What are the 3 types of talk that clinicians can have with their patients in shared decision making approach?

A

team talk
option talk
decision talk

“shared DOT”

194
Q

type of talk that offer choices then re-assess based on pt reaction

195
Q

type of talk where you explain all aspect of options; pros/cons

A

option talk

196
Q

type of talk where you assess pt values first then offer options

A

decision talk

197
Q

talk that facilitates patients’ awareness that reasonable options exist and that the clinician will help the patient understand how to consider these options in detail

198
Q

what are the 7 parts of team talk?

A
  1. stepping back
  2. offering choices
  3. justify choices
  4. explain different issues matter more to some people than others
  5. evidence may be lacking, outcomes are unpredictable at the individual level
  6. check patient’s reaction
  7. postpone closure
199
Q

the act of being clear about reasonable treatment alternatives and helping patients compare them

A

option talk

200
Q

what are the 6 parts of option talk?

A
  1. check patient’s knowledge
  2. list options
  3. describe options
  4. explain harms and benefits
  5. provide decision aids
  6. summarize options with teach-back method
201
Q

when you make an effort to ask about what matters most to the patients and help them form their own views and try to work with the patients to see how best to take the next steps in order to make a wise and well-considered decision

A

decision talk

202
Q

what are the 4 parts of decision talk?

A
  1. focus on values and preferences
  2. elicit a preference
  3. move to a decision
  4. offer review of decisions
203
Q

What are 3 methods that protect human subjects during and after clinical investigation?

A

belmont principles
common rules
regulatory criteria

204
Q

contain all elements necessary to protect human subjects

A

regulatory criteria

205
Q

the ethical principles and guidelines for the protection of human subjects of research, of which the procedural requirements of the Common Rule are based on

A

Belmont Report

206
Q

What are the 3 principles of the Belmont Report?

A
  1. respect for persons
  2. beneficence (do no harm)
  3. justice (be fair, equitable)
207
Q

How do the requirements of the Common Rule follow the Belmont Principles?

A
  1. respect for persons = informed consent
  2. beneficence = risk minimized
  3. justice = equitable subject criteria
208
Q

What are the IRB decisions based on for approval?

A

the 8 criteria under Common Rule

209
Q

What are 3 ways to minimize risk based on the IRB approval criteria?

A
  1. precautions (additional monitoring, specific criteria, pregnancy test)
  2. safeguards (restricted access to date, team with expertise)
  3. alternatives (less invasive procedures, de-identified data)

“PSA if you want to minimize risks & get IRB approval”

210
Q

Hypothesis must contain what 3 things to be complete?

A

population
variables
relationship of variables

211
Q

Research must pass the “so what” aka FINER test which stands for what?

A

F = feasible
I = interesting
N = novel
E = ethical
R = relevant

212
Q

defined as no significant difference between 2 populations? (any difference was due to small sample size or error)

A

Null hypothesis (Ho)

213
Q

Which hypothesis is defined as difference between populations was due to an observed effect?

A

alternative hypothesis

214
Q

the basis for all inferential statistics

A

probability

215
Q

If P < 0.05 then ____ the null hypothesis

A

reject

the results are significantly different

216
Q

If P > 0.05 then ____ the null hypothesis

A

retain

results are not significantly different

217
Q

an alpha of 0.05 means there is a 5% probability of ____ error

218
Q

____ error is rejecting the null when the null is actually true

219
Q

___________ error is retaining the null when the null is actually false

A

type 2

“reTain Two”

220
Q

refers to the potential for confounding factors to interfere with the relationship between the independent and dependent variables, or the degree to which the investigator draws the correct conclusions about what actually happened in the study

A

internal validity

221
Q

What are the 3 threats to internal validity?

A
  1. Intended sample vs actual subjects
  2. Intended variables vs actual measurements
  3. Confounding variables
222
Q

refers to the extent to which results of a study can be generalized outside the experimental situation

A

external validitiy (generalizability)

223
Q

What are the 2 threats to external validity?

A
  1. If the intended sample and variables do not sufficiently represent the target population
  2. Phenomena of interest
224
Q

the use of a study plan with minimizing ____ can help protect the internal and external validity of the study

225
Q

What type of validity is defined as how well the assessment represents all aspects of the phenomenon under the study and uses subjective judgements about whether the measurements seem reasonable?

A

content validity

226
Q

What type of validity is defined as whether or not a measurement seems inherently reasonable? ie does your instrument make sense?

A

face validity

227
Q

What type of validity determines if a measurement conforms to theoretical constructs? ie internal performance of survey instruments

A

construct validity

228
Q

What type of validity is defined as the ability of a measure to predict an outcome? ie agrees with accepted norms / measures

A

predictive validity

229
Q

What type of validity is defined as a new measurement as good as the gold standard? ie agrees with already accepted methods

A

criterion-related validity

230
Q

What is the extent to which results can be reproduced when the research is repeated under the same conditions and the degree to which any measuring tool controls random error?

A

reliability

231
Q

unordered categories. what are 4 examples?

A

nominal data (names)
sex, blood type, hair color, alive vs dead

232
Q

ordered categories. what are 2 examples?

A

ordinal data (ordered)

GCS, 10 pt pain scale

233
Q

a numeric scale in which we know the difference between the intervals but there is no absolute 0

what is an example?

A

interval scale

degrees celcius

234
Q

a numeric scale where we know the difference between the intervals and there is an absolute 0 representing lack of an attribute

what are 2 examples?

A

ratio scale

height, weight

235
Q

Dependent variable is also called the _______ variable

236
Q

Independent variable is also called the _______ variable

237
Q

What are the 3 types of IRB applications?

A
  1. Exempt from certain research regulations, but not IRB
  2. Expedited; minimal risk
  3. Full board; greater than minimal risk
238
Q

Exempt
1. is IRB required?
2. does it expire?
3. does it require re- approval/continuing review?
4. can it be FDA regulated?

A
  1. yes
  2. no, but has 3 yr institutional expiration
  3. exempt from continuing review
  4. no
239
Q

what are the 6 categories of Exempt?

A
  1. educational settings
  2. collecting existing data that is de-identified
  3. benign behavioral interventions
  4. surveys, educational tests, interviews, observations of public behavior
  5. projects approved by federal dpt designed to eval public benefit or service programs
  6. taste and food quality eval or consumer acceptance studies
240
Q

Expedited
1. who reviews it?
2. can it be FDA regulated?
3. does it require re- approval/continuing review?

A
  1. single member of IRB
  2. yes
  3. no, unless it’s FDA regulated
241
Q

what are the 7 categories of Expedited?

A
  1. approved drugs, in vitro dx testing
  2. blood samples under 550 mL in 8 wk period for healthy, and 50 mL in 8 wk period for unhealthy, preg, or children
  3. non invasive collection of biological specimens
  4. non invasive data collection
  5. retrospective or prospective materials
  6. data collected from recordings
  7. individual or group characteristics
242
Q

Full Board
1. who reviews it?
2. does it expire?
3. does it require re- approval/continuing review?

A
  1. convened IRB meeting
  2. approved x 1 yr
  3. yes
243
Q

what are the 2 categories of Full board?

A
  1. greater than minimal risk
  2. minimal risk; but not eligible for expedited review
244
Q

What are the 5 steps required to submit an IRB protocol

A
  1. complete human subject protection training
  2. determine which application to submit
  3. obtain appropriate signatures and approvals
  4. assemble study related documents for IRB review
  5. email application to IRB
245
Q

What are the 8 components of a standard research article?

A
  1. title
  2. abstract
  3. introduction
  4. background and significance
  5. design / methods
  6. results
  7. discussion/conclusion
  8. references
246
Q

What are the 10 steps to create a manuscript for submission to a medical journal?

A
  1. Choose appropriate journal for publication
  2. Title and authorship
  3. Abstract
  4. Introduction
  5. Materials and methods
  6. Results
  7. Discussion +/- conclusion
  8. References
  9. Acknowledgements
  10. Conflicts of interest
247
Q

Where do your baseline demographics go in a standard research article?

248
Q

Where is research designs, location/setting of research, IRB and ethical review, population, variables, sample size and statistical analyses in a standard research article?

249
Q

Where does inclusion and exclusion criteria go in a standard research article?

250
Q

Where do descriptive studies like stats tables and graphs go in a standard research article?