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CATM 5 LEVEL ALL > EOC Self Test Questions > Flashcards

EOC Self Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What three methods of distance determination can you use from a concealed position with unfriendly forces in the area?

A
  • 100-meter-unit-of-measurement.
  • Appearance-of-object methods.
  • Front sight post estimation.
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2
Q

What are the two types of range cards?

A
  • Final protective line (FPL).
  • The principle direction of fire (PDF) range cards.
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3
Q

What are the six objectives of an effective measurement program?

A
  • Inform students as to their progress in meeting the objectives of the course.
  • Establish a permanent record of each student’s achievement and allow the student to know that record.
  • Identify the need for a remedial program.
  • Identify students who are failing to meet the prescribed standard of the course so that appropriate action can be taken.
  • Provide a basis for the recognition and use of students who are outstanding.
  • Provide feedback data to establish a constant quality control check on the instructional system.
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4
Q

What are the four basic rifle-firing positions?

A
  • Prone supported.
  • Prone unsupported.
  • Kneeling supported.
  • Foxhole/over barricade.
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5
Q

What are the five firing positions used with the shotgun?

A
  • Ready position.
  • Standing position.
  • Underarm crouch position.
  • Strong-side barricade position.
  • Over barricade crouch position.
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6
Q

What are the four steps in developing a performance checklist?

A
  1. Review the task statements in the course.
  2. Write down the steps involved in doing the task.
  3. Determine how to measure each step in the task.
  4. Put everything together into a predetermined standard.
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7
Q

What are the two types of performance checklists?

A
  • The in-process checklist.
  • The end product checklist.
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8
Q

What are the five major categories of technical orders?

A
  • TMs.
  • TCTOs.
  • Index-type TOs.
  • MPTOs.
  • Abbreviated TOs.
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9
Q

What are the three principles of proper tool usage?

A
  • Use tools properly so they are not broken through abuse.
  • Keep tools clean and protected so that rust, corrosion, and handling does not destroy them.
  • Keep track of tools so they are not lost or stolen.
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10
Q

What is the range command that normally follows “Is the range clear?”

A

“Clear right?”

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11
Q

Which portion of the national stock number 1305–00–968–5892 identifies the item as a specific type of small arms ammunition?

A

00–968–5892.

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12
Q

During an annual inspection of weapons in extended storage, what percentage of weapons must be inspected if you find unsatisfactory conditions in the first 10 percent?

A

10 percent

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13
Q

How many rounds does the M9 magazine hold?

A

15 rounds.

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14
Q

If an outdoor backstop is constructed with fill material (old tires, concrete, etc.), how much rockfree soil must cover the side facing the shooter?

A

2 meters.

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15
Q

What is the maximum range of an M16A2 rifle?

A

3,534 meters.

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16
Q

What is the maximum range of the M240B machinegun?

A

3,725 meters.

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17
Q

In what series of technical orders is the calibration data for most of the Combat Arms gauges found?

A

33K–1–100.

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18
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

A

50 meters (54.7 yards).

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19
Q

What is the maximum effective range for a point target?

A

500 meters.

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20
Q

At a distance of 500 meters, one click of the windage knob moves the strike of the bullet how far?

A

500 meters—one click moves strike 25 cm (10 inches).

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21
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M870 shotgun?

A

68 meters or 74.3 yards.

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22
Q

How deep (from the firing line to the back of the firing platform) should a platform used for firing rifles and handguns be?

A

8 feet.

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23
Q

With the magazine adapter installed and a shell in the chamber, how many rounds can an M870 shotgun hold?

A

8 rounds.

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24
Q

What is the minimum and maximum trigger pull for an M249 automatic rifle?

A

8.5 pounds minimum and 15.5 pounds maximum.

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25
Q

What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M249 automatic rifle?

A

850 rounds per minute.

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26
Q

What is the procedure for sight alignment at a distance of 900 – 1800 meters?

A

900 –1800 meters: Align the sights by centering the front sight blade in the rear sight notch (similar to the M9 pistol).

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27
Q

If a 300-yard surface danger zone is not available behind a Partial Contained range, what additional construction must be installed on the range?

A

A bullet deflector or bullet catch.

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28
Q

Besides Combat Arms personnel, who should be included in scheduled inspections of the firing complex?

A

A CE representative.

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29
Q

What should be used to remove large dirt deposits or grease from the AN\PVS 7 goggles during cleaning?

A

A clean, lint-free cloth dampened with water.

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30
Q

If you must clean your gauges, what type of solution should you use?

A

A dry-cleaning solution that does not leave a film.

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31
Q

What kind of recoil system does the M9 pistol utilize?

A

A falling locking block.

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32
Q

What type of a gauge is the M16 rifle firing pin protrusion gauge?

A

A GO/NO-GO gauge

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33
Q

What kind of inventory must be conducted for armories staffed 24 hours a day?

A

A joint physical inventory conducted by oncoming and off-going armorers.

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34
Q

What is a supply point?

A

A munitions custody account set up between the munitions control activity and your Combat Arms shop.

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35
Q

Which AF form must an individual submit to store a privately owned weapon in a SF armory?

A

AF Form 1314.

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36
Q

What form is used to requisition expendable supplies needed to run your range operation?

A

AF Form 2005.

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37
Q

What Air Force form must be displayed in an ammunition storage area?

A

AF Form 2047.

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38
Q

What form is used to document key inventories?

A

AF Form 2432.

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39
Q

What two AF forms are used for issuing weapons?

A

AF Form 629 and AF Form 1297.

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40
Q

What Air Force directive establishes the training munitions allowances?

A

AFCAT 21–209.

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41
Q

What publications should your Combat Arms publication library contain?

A

All publications necessary to support weapons training on the base or installation.

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42
Q

What is the minimum inspection cycle for weapons?

A

Annually.

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43
Q

Name three of the six elements of the hazard communication program.

A

Any three of the following:

  1. A written hazard communication program.
  2. Hazard determination.
  3. Labels and other forms of warning.
  4. Worker information and training.
  5. Hazardous chemical inventory.
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44
Q

Name two rules of proper management of training equipment.

A

Any two of the following are correct: Check any equipment for operation and safety. Secure the necessary tools and supplies. Check them out, and arrange them for use. Arrange your slides or transparencies in the order that they are to be used. If you are showing a film or video, set up the required equipment before the beginning of class.

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45
Q

When assuming the weaver stance with the M9 pistol, how far apart should your feet be?

A

Approximately 5 to 8 inches, or shoulder width.

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46
Q

A bullet with a black tip is what type of ammunition?

A

Armor-piercing.

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47
Q

What are the major factors that influence the construction of a range?

A

Availability of real estate, installation mission, HQ USAF and MAJCOM policies, base population, annual training days available, training requirements, and type of weapons to be trained.

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48
Q

What determines how much ammunition is stored at your base?

A

Basic load requirement for your base.

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49
Q

What are the minimum and maximum tolerances using the firing pin protrusion gauge with the M203 grenade launcher?

A

Between .032 inches and .047 inches.

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50
Q

What type of firing platforms can be utilized with the M240B machine gun?

A

Bipod, tripod, and vehicular mount.

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51
Q

What sight is used without the M68?

A

BUIS.

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52
Q

What are the two methods of feeding ammunition to the M249 automatic rifle?

A

By disintegrating metallic split-link belt or, in emergencies, a 20- or 30-round M16 rifle magazine.

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53
Q

How does the tower operator control and conduct live fire on the range?

A

By using range commands.

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54
Q

What are the two types of baffle systems?

A

Canopy and overhead.

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55
Q

What are the components of a rifle cartridge?

A

Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant.

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56
Q

What are the different risk categories assigned to weapons and ammunition?

A

Category I, II III, and IV.

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57
Q

In which risk category is the LAW rocket?

A

Category I.

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58
Q

What tool do you use to visually inspect the chamber of an M16A2 rifle to look for pitting or discoloration of the chamber?

A

Chamber reflector tool.

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59
Q

What is the only type of barrel installed on the M16A2 rifle?

A

Chrome lined.

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60
Q

What item is used to loosen and tighten drill bits?

A

Chuck

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61
Q

What is the primary cleaning and lubricating agent used on the M9 pistol when performing preventive maintenance?

A

Cleaner, lubricant, and preservative (CLP).

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62
Q

For what purpose is a 12-gauge shotgun used in the Air Force?

A

Combat operations and guard purposes.

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63
Q

What are the primary methods of calibrating a measurement device?

A

Compare a device that is known to be within specifications with the device being calibrated; use documented dimensions and measure the device to see if it meets, or exceeds, those dimensions.

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64
Q

What types of security measures are given to category I and II weapons in forward-deployed locations without IDS system available?

A

Constant surveillance.

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65
Q

What are the three most common types of operator platforms that a tower operator can use on a range?

A

Control tower, control booth, and stand.

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66
Q

What are the four primary shooting fundamentals that a shooting coach should know?

A

Correct position, proper aiming process, correct breathing, and proper trigger control.

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67
Q

What document identifies every piece of accountable equipment assigned to the range?

A

Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL).

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68
Q

If someone is walking the final protective line (FPL) and that person disappears from view, how do you show this on your range card?

A

Dead space is indicated by a break in the symbol used to show the FPL.

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69
Q

What are the three most commonly used types of torque wrenches?

A

Deflection beam, dial indicating, and micrometer setting.

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70
Q

What is the probable cause for sluggish operation?

A

Dirty receiver.

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71
Q

What is the first step in preventive maintenance for the M203 grenade launcher?

A

Disassemble the weapon.

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72
Q

What are the inspection steps involved in a “preissue” inspection?

A

Disassemble, gauge, lubricate (if necessary), assemble, function check each weapon, and annotate the AFTO Form 105.

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73
Q

What is the most frequently used training aid?

A

Dry erase board.

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74
Q

Why is breath control not a major factor in accuracy when firing the M870 shotgun?

A

Due to the weapon’s short effective range, shot pattern, and sighting system used.

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75
Q

What are the different types of hearing protections?

A

Earplugs and earmuffs.

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76
Q

What is the chief hazard from electric powered hand tools?

A

Electric shock

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77
Q

How is the LALPS zeroed at 25 yards?

A

Fire the weapon at a 25 yard target by aligning the IR laser dot 3.5 inches below the sight’s point of aim.

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78
Q

With respect to the machine gun, which classes of fire can be fired from either a bipod or tripod mounted machine gun?

A

Fixed, traversing, searching, and traversing and searching.

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79
Q

Which feedback characteristic confronts the problem of selectivity—what to say, what not to say, and what to stress, or what to minimize?

A

Flexibility.

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80
Q

How should a chemical burn in or around the eyes be treated?

A

Flush with water immediately.

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81
Q

Which part is used to quietly lock the weapon into battery?

A

Forward assist.

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82
Q

During crew drill, what is the first command given by the leader to place the M60 machine gun into action?

A

GUN TO BE MOUNTED HERE.

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83
Q

What are the most probable causes of a failure to fire with an M9 pistol?

A

Improperly seated magazine, faulty ammunition, or no ammunition in the chamber.

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84
Q

When firing the shotgun from the standing or barricade positions, where on the target should you aim?

A

In the center of the target.

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85
Q

What position must the decocking/safety lever be in for the M9 pistol to fire?

A

In the UP position so you can see the red warning dot on the slide.

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86
Q

How would initial adjustments of the AN/PAQ aiming light be made?

A

Initial adjustment consists of setting the adjuster to the neutral position.

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87
Q

What is the first step in preparing night vision goggles for operation?

A

Install batteries.

88
Q

To operate the AN/PVS–4 sight, what must you do before mounting the sight?

A

Install the batteries.

89
Q

What is evaluated in terms of student attainment or nonattainment of the course or lesson objectives?

A

Instruction.

90
Q

What is the purpose of placing a removable rubber-boot on the butt stock of your shotgun?

A

It absorbs some of the weapon’s recoil.

91
Q

Why should you not look into the laser of the LALPS?

A

It can cause damage to your eyesight.

92
Q

What are the components of a bullet?

A

Jacket, core, point filler, base filler, and cannelure.

93
Q

What type of saw is prone to snap its blade when pressure is applied at an angle other than straight down and forward?

A

Jigsaw

94
Q

What are the two most common electric saws found in your shop?

A

Jigsaw and circular saw

95
Q

Which sight system on the M203 grenade launcher is used for rapid deployment during combat operations?

A

Leaf sight.

96
Q

Why should training aids appeal to more than one sense?

A

Learning is reinforced and the retention of material is improved when more of the senses are used in the learning process.

97
Q

To insure bipod assemblies are serviceable, what should you check?

A

Legs for cracks, twisting, or incomplete assembly.

98
Q

What are the two types of 40mm ammunition? Which one cannot be fired in an M203 grenade launcher?

A

Low-velocity and high-velocity. High-velocity.

99
Q

Which lubricant do you use to oil an M16 rifle if the temperature dips below 0°F?

A

Lubricating oil, arctic weapon (LAW).

100
Q

Which type of 40mm grenade ammunition has a green or opaque white casing and a blue ogive?

A

M781.

101
Q

What equipment is the gunner responsible for during crew drills?

A

Machine gun and at least three bandoleers of ammunition.

102
Q

What are the two methods of employing or using the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggles?

A

Mounted and worn on the face mask or hand held.

103
Q

How is each item in the Department of Defense supply system identified?

A

National stock number (NSN).

104
Q

Since the M9 pistol does not have an adjustable rear sight, how do you make adjustments to hit a target?

A

No adjustment can be made to the weapon, you must adjust your aim.

105
Q

What are the three types of range construction?

A

Non Contained, Partial Contained, and Fully Contained.

106
Q

Which sight, if any, is actually mounted directly to the M203 grenade launcher?

A

None, the leaf sight is attached to the handguard and the quadrant sight is mounted to the M16’s carrying handle.

107
Q

The “error of halo” is a pitfall of which feedback characteristic?

A

Objectivity.

108
Q

Where is instructor qualification training documented?

A

On the specialty training standard (STS) or AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

109
Q

Where are you required to document any maintenance performed on an M870 shotgun?

A

On the weapon’s AFTO Form 105, Inspection Maintenance Firing Data for Ground Weapons.

110
Q

In reference to the M16A2 barrel, what is the twist ratio?

A

one turn in 7 inches.

111
Q

What parts of the AN/PVS–4 can be disassembled for cleaning purposes?

A

Only the eyeguard and daylight cover.

112
Q

In reference to the bolt, what position does the M240B fire from?

A

Open bolt.

113
Q

What is used to clean the gas relief ports on the bolt carrier of an M16A2 rifle?

A

Pipe cleaners.

114
Q

When shooting an M203 grenade launcher, what type of firing technique should you use to deliver a high rate of fire when point-target accuracy is not required?

A

Pointing technique.

115
Q

What is the Air Force policy on hazardous waste management?

A

Protect the health and welfare of Air Force personnel and the general public. Preserve the environment by complying fully with applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations governing hazardous waste management. Reduce the generation of hazardous waste through substitution of nonhazardous materials (where possible), reuse, reclamation, and recycling. Eliminate or lessen the potential for damage to Air Force equipment and facilities.

116
Q

What is the purpose of the heat shield on the M249 automatic rifle?

A

Protect the operator’s hand from the heat of barrel.

117
Q

What should you do if you see a shooter point the muzzle of a rifle at the next shooter?

A

Quietly and quickly approach the shooter and push the weapon’s muzzle down range. Then explain the mistake to the shooter in a calm voice.

118
Q

What must you do if the bore erosion gauge, when inserted into the chamber of the M249 automatic rifle, goes past the second line?

A

Rebarrel the weapon since it has excessive bore erosion (wear).

119
Q

If a student completes the pencil shot drill with the M9 pistol, but a pencil eraser could not cover the shot group, what should you do?

A

Reemphasize the shooting fundamentals and have the student attempt the drill again.

120
Q

What action is taken for a barrel that fails the M16A2 rifle barrel straightness test?

A

Replace barrel.

121
Q

If a primary or spare key to an ammunition storage facility is lost, what must you do?

A

Replace the lock or the cylinder and never it use again.

122
Q

What is the first step in preparing an ammunition forecast?

A

Review previous training records to estimate future ammunition needs.

123
Q

What are the two most common bullet traps?

A

Sand and water traps.

124
Q

What range sensing should you make when a grenade fired from an M203 grenade launcher lands between you and the target?

A

SHORT.

125
Q

What are the two elements of “aiming” a weapon?

A

Sight alignment Sight picture.

126
Q

Besides sight alignment and sight picture, what is the third element of aiming, when you are firing an M203 grenade launcher?

A

Sight manipulation.

127
Q

Why does your breathing not impact the movement of an M9 pistol, compared to an M16A2 rifle?

A

Since the pistol is supported by your hands and arms, the rise and fall of your chest is not as noticeable.

128
Q

What is the purpose of the infrared (IR) illuminator?

A

So the operator can see at close range during total darkness.

129
Q

If shiny spots appear on the receiver of an M9 pistol, what should you use to cover them up?

A

Solid film lubricant.

130
Q

What is the acronym used to learn the proper immediate action procedures?

A

SPORTS.

131
Q

What type of training equipment would electronic test equipment or audiovisual projection equipment be considered?

A

Standard equipment.

132
Q

What type of student feedback takes place when they watch themselves on television and are allowed to critique their own performance?

A

Student self-evaluation.

133
Q

What is the difference between the 5.56mm ball M193 cartridge and the 5.56mm ball M855 cartridge?

A

The 5.56mm ball M193 cartridge was designed for use in the M16 or M16A1 rifle. The 5.56mm ball M855 cartridge was developed for the M249 automatic rifle and the M16A2 rifle.

134
Q

What is the range of the AN/PAQ–4 aiming light limited by?

A

The actual range is limited by the light levels at the time of use and the capabilities of the night vision devices being used for observation.

135
Q

Which marksmanship training technique can only be used during live fire?

A

The ball and dummy drill.

136
Q

What part of the M16 rifle must be removed to install the LALPS?

A

The bottom handguard. There is a handguard already attached to the LALPS that replaces the bottom handguard.

137
Q

What kind of markings do you use to identify the firing line and the ready line on a firing platform?

A

The firing line is a 4-inch-wide red stripe, and the ready line is a 4-inch-wide yellow stripe. They both should run the entire width of the firing platform.

138
Q

Which two parts of the M240B/M249 are reassembled without lubrication?

A

The gas piston and gas regulator.

139
Q

Which weapon does not need a special mounting bracket when you attach the AN/PVS–4 night sight?

A

The M16 series rifles.

140
Q

What does your firing hand grip when you are firing the M203 grenade launcher mounted on an M16A2 rifle?

A

The M16A2 rifle’s magazine.

141
Q

Who must be notified, by letter or message, when a range will be closed for more than 120 days?

A

The MAJCOM Combat Arms program manager.

142
Q

What information should you consider when developing a training schedule?

A

The number of firing points available, type of weapons training required, and the total number of students that manning and the range can handle.

143
Q

What parts make up the receiver assembly on the M870 shotgun?

A

The receiver, ejector, magazine tube, and barrel support.

144
Q

In dusty or sandy weather conditions, what should be used to protect the objective lens of the goggles from being scratched or pitted?

A

The sacrificial filter.

145
Q

What is the probable cause of shells being caught in the magazine adapter?

A

The threads or open end of the magazine becoming deformed.

146
Q

In the TO 11W3–3–5–4, what does the “W” indicate?

A

The TO deals with weapons.

147
Q

What determines the number of assistant instructors in a classroom?

A

The type of weapon being taught and the number of students in the class.

148
Q

When recovering your M9 to the holster, what firing position should you be in when you move the weapon’s decocking/safety lever to FIRE?

A

The weaver ready.

149
Q

What technical order (TO) is an excellent source of information on using hand tools?

A

TO 32–1–2, Use of Hand Tools.

150
Q

What is the purpose of the extracting groove cut into the head of a cartridge?

A

To allow removal of the cartridge casing from the weapon.

151
Q

What is the purpose of the lighting projector on the LALPS?

A

To deliver a high-intensity focused beam of white or infrared (IR) light capable of illuminating a man-sized target out to 100 meters.

152
Q

Why should Combat Arms personnel make a range inspection each day before and after firing?

A

To detect and repair minor damage to the range—shot damage, erosion, peeling paint, etc.

153
Q

What is the primary purpose of publishing trespass notices in the local newspapers?

A

To inform personnel of the location of the range complex and the dangers associated with the firing range

154
Q

What is the primary purpose of preventive maintenance?

A

To keep weapons clean and properly lubricated.

155
Q

Why is it very important to review AFOSH standards?

A

To make sure the shop complies and uses the correct protective gear for any potentially hazardous operations.

156
Q

Why should the metal backstop be installed a minimum of 4 meters beyond the target line?

A

To minimize lead exposure to shooters.

157
Q

What is the purpose of the ejection port cover on an M16A2 rifle?

A

To prevent dirt or sand from getting into the ejection port.

158
Q

When gripping the M9 pistol, why should you ensure that your nonfiring thumb remains on the side of the weapon?

A

To prevent injury to the thumb when the weapon’s slide moves during recoil.

159
Q

Why are the capscrews staked on the M16A2 rifle’s bolt carrier key?

A

To prevent the carrier key capscrews from loosening up.

160
Q

What is the first step to correct headspace problems?

A

Try a new bolt.

161
Q

When issuing firearms, what information must you include on the receipt?

A

Type, caliber, manufacturer, and serial number.

162
Q

While moving a heavy object, when are you most likely to strain yourself?

A

When lifting or putting down the heavy object.

163
Q

What does the term “smack” refer to in stage 3 of the four-stage draw?

A

When the firing and nonfiring hands come together to form the two-handed grip.

164
Q

When must an instructor undergo two instructor training evaluations before being qualified to do lead instructor duties?

A

When they are newly assigned personnel.

165
Q

What colors are used for range warning signs?

A

White background with red letters.

166
Q

What is the probable cause for a failure to eject with the M203 grenade launcher?

A

Worn, broken, or missing cartridge ejector, spring, or retainer.

167
Q

What is required for personnel to use the range for recreational purposes?

A

Written certification authorizing their use of the range.

168
Q

What are the benefits of providing students with written feedback?

A

You can provide complete and carefully considered comments.

169
Q

What is the recommended distance for zeroing the M249?

A

Zeroing should be accomplished at a 500 meter known distance. If 10 meter targets are used, still set the rear sight to 500 meter.

170
Q

What must be done for the AN/PAQ–4 aiming light to accurately project the laser beam along the weapon’s line of fire?

A

Zeroing this light accurately will require a trip to the firing range. To properly zero this device with the M16 rifle requires the use of the night vision goggles and sighting in with live fire. First, at 25 meters, conduct a battle sight zero exercise by placing the weapon’s rear sight to the L (long-range) and firing at a zero target. Adjust the weapon’s sight for zero. Next, fire the weapon at a 25 yard target by aligning the IR laser dot 3.5 inches below the sight’s point of aim.

171
Q

Range TypesHas bays that are separated by walls.

A

Multipurpose

172
Q

Range TypesIs designed and constructed with multiple target lines or arrays.

A

Special purpose

173
Q

Range TypesCan support more than one weapon type being fired at a time.

A

Multipurpose

174
Q

Range TypesCan support only one type weapon at a time.

A

Superimposed

175
Q

Range TypesIs usually a Non Contained range.

A

Special purpose

176
Q

Personnel Training GroupsAir Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) agents.

A

Group A

177
Q

Personnel Training GroupsMedical personnel not listed in any other category.

A

Group C

178
Q

Personnel Training GroupsRED HORSE personnel.

A

Group B

179
Q

Personnel Training GroupsCombat control teams.

A

Group B

180
Q

Personnel Training GroupsAir support operations center personnel.

A

Group A

181
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed with a ratchet handle.

A

Socket wrenches

182
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to turn cross-slotted screws.

A

Cross-point screwdriver

183
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to start holes in metal.

A

Center punch

184
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to tighten the M16 rifle’s bolt gas carrier key.

A

Hex wrenches

185
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to drive and pull nails.

A

Claw hammer

186
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to twist wire or pull cotter pins.

A

Slip-joint pliers

187
Q

Tool IdentificationUsed to cut across the grain of wood.

A

Crosscut saw

188
Q

Maintenance LevelsMaintenance performed to overhaul a weapon.

A

Depot maintenance

189
Q

Maintenance LevelsProvides maintenance support for the Air Force supply system.

A

Depot maintenance

190
Q

Maintenance LevelsMaintenance performed by the individual or organization assigned the weapon.

A

Operator maintenance

191
Q

Maintenance LevelsMaintenance performed by Combat Arms section in direct support of the using organization.

A

Field maintenance

192
Q

M203 CharacteristicsMaximum effective range at a point target, in meters.

A

150

193
Q

M203 CharacteristicsBarrel length in inches.

A

12

194
Q

M203 CharacteristicsWeight (launcher only) in pounds.

A

3

195
Q

M203 CharacteristicsMaximum range in meters.

A

400

196
Q

M203 CharacteristicsMaximum effective range at an area target, in meters.

A

350

197
Q

AN/PVS-4 Characteristics/NomenclatureRubber covering that protects the operator from injurywhen the weapon is fired.

A

Eyeguard

198
Q

AN/PVS-4 Characteristics/NomenclatureUsed to focus the eyepiece.

A

Diopter focus ring

199
Q

AN/PVS-4 Characteristics/NomenclatureUsed to bring the image into focus.

A

Objective focus ring

200
Q

AN/PVS-4 Characteristics/NomenclatureHas the ranging information, with horizontal and vertical lines, for specific types of weapons.

A

Reticles

201
Q

AN/PVS-4 Characteristics/NomenclaturePrevents damage to the sight when it is used in normal light conditions (daytime).

A

Daylight cover

202
Q

Match Position/Body PartIt grasps the pistol grip of the rifle.

A

Firing hand

203
Q

Match Position/Body PartThe placing of your cheek against the stock of the rifle.

A

Stock weld

204
Q

Match Position/Body PartIt is placed into the pocket formed by your shoulder.

A

Rifle butt

205
Q

Match Position/Body PartThe rifle handguard rests on it.

A

Nonfiring hand

206
Q

Match Position/Body PartIt is relaxed and exerts a slight pressure to the rear.

A

Nonfiring hand

207
Q

Match Object/LimitationWhen seen in bright light.

A

Objects appear nearer than they really are

208
Q

Match Object/LimitationIn the clear atmosphere of high altitude.

A

Objects appear nearer than they really are

209
Q

Match Object/LimitationWhen seen over a depression, which is totally visible.

A

Objects appear more distant than they really are

210
Q

Match Object/LimitationWhen seen over a depression, most of which is hidden.

A

Objects appear nearer than they really are

211
Q

Match Object/LimitationWhen only a small part of the object can be seen.

A

Objects appear more distant than they really are

212
Q

Match Object/LimitationWhen seen from high ground.

A

Objects appear more distant than they really are

213
Q

Desctiptions/Characteristics of FirePattern of rounds striking the ground or the target.

A

Beaten zone

214
Q

Desctiptions/Characteristics of FireWhen the trajectory of the bullets do not raise above 1.8 meter.

A

Danger Space

215
Q

Desctiptions/Characteristics of FireHighest point in a bullet’s flight.

A

Maximum ordinate

216
Q

Desctiptions/Characteristics of FirePattern formed by the different trajectories in each burst of fire.

A

Cone of fire

217
Q

Desctiptions/Characteristics of FireThe path a bullet takes during flight.

A

Trajectory

CATM 5 LEVEL ALL (2 decks)

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