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AWS/AWOAC Entrance Exam > Entrance Exam > Flashcards

Entrance Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Mission Statement

A

a short sentence or paragraph that describes the organization’s essential tasks, purpose, and action containing the elements of who what when where and why (JP 5-0, FM 6-0)

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2
Q

Five elements of a mission statement:

A

Who, What, When, Where, and why (JP 5-0)

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3
Q

Air Assault:

A

Movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain (FM 3-99, JP 3-18)

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4
Q

Characteristics of defense:

A

Disruption/ Flexibility/ Maneuver

Mass and Concentration/ Depth

Preparation/ Security

(ADP 3-90)

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5
Q

Decisive Point:

A

Key terrain, Key event, critical factor or function that, when acted upon, enables commanders to gain a marked advantage over an enemy or contribute materially to achieving success.

(JP 5-0)

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6
Q

Tenet’s of Army Unified Land Operations:

A

Simultaneity, Depth, Synchronization, and Flexibility

(ADP 3-0)

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7
Q

Syncrhonizaiton:

A

The arrangement of military actions in time, space, and purpose to achieve maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time

(ADP 3-0)

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8
Q

Flexibility:

A

The employment of a versatile mix of capabilities, formations, and equipment for conducting operations

(ADP 3-0)

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9
Q

Depth:

A

The extension of operations in time, space, or purpose to achieve definitive results

(ADP 3-0)

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10
Q

Simultaneity

A

The execution of related and mutually supporting tasks at the same time across multiple Locations

(ADP 3-0)

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11
Q

Primary Offensive Task

A

(ADP 3-90)
Movement to Contact / Attack

Exploitation/ Pursuit

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12
Q

Pursuit

A

A type of offensive operations designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it. (ADP 3-90)

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13
Q

Movement to Contact:

A

A type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact. (ADP 3-90)

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14
Q

Attack

A

A type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both. (ADP 3-90)

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15
Q

Exploitation:

A

A type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth. (ADP 3-90)

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16
Q

Five paragraph Operational Order

A

(FM 5-0)
Situation, Mission, Execution, Sustainment, and Command and Signal

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17
Q

Defensive Operations

A

Area Defense, Mobile Defense, Retrograde (ADP 3-90)

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18
Q

Retrograde

A

A type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy.

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19
Q

Mobile Defense:

A

A type of defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force (ADP 3-90)

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20
Q

Area Defense:

A

A type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright

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21
Q

Principles of Joint Operations

A

(JP 3-0)

Objective / Offensive / Mass / Maneuver

Economy of Force / Unity of Command / Security / Surprise

Simplicity / Restraint / Perseverance / Legitimacy

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22
Q

Friendly Force Information (FFIR)

A

Information that the commander and staff need to understand the status of friendly force and supporting capabilities. _______ identify the information about the mission, troops and support available, and time available for friendly forces that the commander considers most important. (JP 3-0)

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23
Q

Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR)

A

Information the commander and staff need to understand the adversary or other aspects of the operational environment. _________ identify the information about the enemy, terrain, and weather, and civil considerations that the commander considers most important (JP 3-0)

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24
Q

Two key elements of a commander’s critical information requirement

A

FFIR and PIR (JP 3-0)

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25
Q

Characteristics of the Offense

A

(ADP 3-90)

Audacity / Suprise

Concentration/ Tempo

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26
Q

Five Military Aspects of Terrain

A

(OAKOC)
Observation and Fields of Fire / Avenues of Approach/ Key and Decisive Terrain

Obstacles/ Cover and Concealment

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27
Q

Troop Leading Procedures:

A

(ADP 5-0)

  1. Receive the mission
  2. Issue a Warning Order
  3. Make a Tentative Plan
  4. Initiate Movement
  5. Conduct Reconnaissance
  6. Complete the Plan
  7. Issue the Order
  8. Supervise and Refine
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28
Q

Forms of Maneuver

A

(ADP 3-90)

Envelopment/ Frontal Assault/ Infiltration

Penetration/ Turning Movement

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29
Q

Air Assault Reverse Planning Sequence

A

Ground Tactical Plan, Landing Plan, Air movement plan, Loading Plan, Staging Plan.

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30
Q

Fundamentals of Security

A

ADP 3-90
Provide reaction time and maneuver space.

Perform continuous reconnaissance.

Provide early and accurate warning.

Maintain enemy contact.

Orient on the force, area, or facility.

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31
Q

Fundamentals of Reconnaissance:

A

ADP 3-90

Ensure continuous reconnaissance.

Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve

Orient on reconnaissance objectives

Report information rapidly and accurately

Retain freedom of maneuver

Gain and maintain enemy contact

Develop the situation rapidly

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32
Q

Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB) Process steps: IPOE

A

ATP 2-01.3 JP 2-0

Define the operational environment (OE)

Describe the environment effects on operations

Evaluate the threat

Determine threat courses of action (COA)

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33
Q

Warfighting Functions:

A

ADP 3-0

Command and Control / Movement and Maneuver/ Intelligence

Fires / Sustainment / Protection

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34
Q

Engagement Area Development Process

A

ADP 3-90

Identify likely enemy avenues of approach
Determine likely enemy schemes of maneuver
Determine where to kill the enemy force
Plan and integrate obstacles
Emplace weapon systems.
Plan and integrate indirect fires.
Rehearse.

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35
Q

Fire Control Measures:

A

FM 3-90

Engagement Criteria
Engagement Priorities
Sectors of Fire
Target Reference Points

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36
Q

Aviation Core Competencies

A

Provide accurate and timely information collection on the enemy, terrain, local populations and friendly forces

Provide reaction time and manuever space

Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces

Air assault ground manever forces

Air move personnel, equipment, and supplies

Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel.

Enable C2 over extended ranges and complex terrain.

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37
Q

Express the time in an OPORD: 6 August 20XX at 1145 Zulu

A

061145Z August 20XX (FM 5-0)

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38
Q

Air Interdiction: (AI)

A

Air operations conducted to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy’s military surface capabilities before it can be brought to bear effectively against friendly forces, or to otherwise achieve objectives that are conducted at such distances from friendly forces that detailed integration of each Air mission with the fire and movement of friendly forces is not required.

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39
Q

Air Movement:

A

Air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and air landings. (JP 3-36/FM 3-99)

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40
Q

Ambush:

A

A variation of attack from concealed postions against a moving or temporarily halted enemy. (FM 3-90)

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41
Q

Attacks by Fire:

A

A tactical mission task using direct and indirect fires to engage an enemy from a distance (FM 3-90)

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42
Q

Block:

A

A tactical mission task that denies the enemy access to an area or an avenue of approach. Also, an obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to stop an attacker along a specific avenue of approach or prevent the attacking force from passing through an engagement area.

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43
Q

Breach:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit breaks through or established a passage through an enemy obstacle. (Fm 3-90)

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44
Q

Bypass:

A

A tactical mission task in which the unit deliberately avoids contact with an obstacle or enemy force. (FM 3-90)

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45
Q

Clear:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit eliminates all enemy forces within an assigned area (FM 3-90)

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46
Q

Close Air Support (CAS)

A

Air action by Aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each Air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.
JP 3-0

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47
Q

Combat Power

A

The total means of destruction and /or disruptive force which a military unit/formation can apply against the opponent at a given time (JP 3-0)

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48
Q

Contain

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit stops, holds, or surrounds an enemy force. (FM 3-90)

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49
Q

Defeat:

A

To render a force incapable of achieving its objectives. (ADP 3-0)

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50
Q

Delay:

A

When a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy’s momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged

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51
Q

Destroy:

A

A tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until reconstituted. (FM 3-90)

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52
Q

Disrupt

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit upsets an enemy’s formation or tempo and causes the enemy force to attack prematurely or in piecemeal fashion. Also, an obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to cause the enemy to break up its formation and tempo, interrupt its timetable, commit breaching assets prematurely, and attack in a piecemeal effort.

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53
Q

Envelopment:

A

A form of manuever in which attacking force avoids an enemy’s principal defense by attacking along an assailable flank. (FM 3-90)

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54
Q

Fix:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit prevents the enemy from moving from a specific location for a specific period. Also, an obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to slow an attacker’s movement within a specified area, normally an engagement area. (FM 3-90)

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55
Q

Guard

A

A type of security operation done to protect the main body by fighting to gain time while also preventing enemy ground observation of and direct fire against the main body. (ADP 3-90)

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56
Q

Infiltration:

A

A form of manuever in which an attacking force conducts undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces.

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57
Q

Interdict:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit prevents, disrupts, or delays the enemy’s use of an area or route in any domain

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58
Q

Isolate:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit seals off an enemy, physically and psychologically, from sources of support and denies it freedom of movement

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59
Q

Movement to Contact:

A

A type of offensive operation designed to establish or regain contact to develop the situation. (FM 3-90)

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60
Q

Neutralize:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit renders the enemy incapable of interfering with an operation (FM3-90)

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61
Q

Retain:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit prevents the enemy occupation or use of terrain. FM 3-90

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62
Q

Screen

A

A type of security operation that primarily provides early warning to the protected force. ADP 3-90

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63
Q

Secure

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit prevents the enemy from damaging or destroying a force, facility, or geographical location.

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64
Q

Seize:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit takes possession of a designated area by using overwhelming force. FM 3-90

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65
Q

Support by Fire:

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit engages the enemy by direct fire in support of another maneuvering force.

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66
Q

Suppress:

A

A tactical misison task in which a unit temporarily degrades a force or weapon system from accomplishing its mission

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67
Q

Turn

A

A tactical mission task in which a unit forces an enemy force from one avenue of approach or movement corridor to another. Also, an obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to divert an enemy formation from one avenue of approach to an adjacent avenue of approach or into an engagement area (FM 3-90)

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68
Q

Alpha Check

A

Request for confirmation of bearing and aircraft to described point

69
Q

Angels

A

Height of FRIENDLY aircraft in thousands of feet from mean sea level (MSL)

70
Q

Avalanche

A

Informatory call indicating friendly forces require reinforcment in a specific location

71
Q

Awake

A

Land/Surface emitter activity detected via communications intelligence

72
Q

Bandit

A

Positively identified as an Enemy IAW theater ID criteria. The term does not necessarily imply direction or authority to engage

73
Q

Bent

A

System indicated is inoperative

74
Q

Bingo

A

Pre-briefed fuel state needed for recovery

75
Q

Blind

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship or ground position

76
Q

Broken Spur

A

Helicopter buddy or self-extraction is not possible

77
Q

Bugout

A

Seperation from a particular engagement or attack or operation with no intent to reengage or return

78
Q

Buzzer

A

Electronic communications jamming

79
Q

Captured

A

Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor

80
Q

Cherubs

A

Height of a FRIENDLY aircraft in hundreds of feet above surface

81
Q

Cleared HOT

A

Type 1 and 2 CAS terminal attack control when granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target.

82
Q

Cleared to Engage

A

Term used by JTAC/forward air controller, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight to attack a target or targets within the parameters prescribed by the JTAC/FAC. Clearance to fire on designated GROUP target.

83
Q

Closing

A

Decreasing seperation.

84
Q

Contact

A

Acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)

85
Q

Dark Star

A

An illumination round that fails to properly ignite or deploy its parachute

86
Q

Dash [number]

A

Aircraft position within a flight. Use if specific call sign is unknown

87
Q

Farm

A

Helicopter status of fuel (expressed in PLAYTIME), ammunition, rocket, and missile.

88
Q

Fence [IN/OUT]

A

Set cockpit switches as appropriate before entering or exiting the combat area.

89
Q

Handshake

A

A video data link established

90
Q

Home Plate

A

Home airfield or ship

91
Q

Kick

A

Change radio or data link to a specified net or frequency, typically used for an unplanned change in frequency

92
Q

Looking

A

The aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight

93
Q

Music

A

Radar electronic deceptive jamming

94
Q

No Joy

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT

95
Q

Pigeon

A

Magnetic bearing and range in nautical miles to HOMEPLATE

96
Q

Playtime

A

Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g. ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes)

97
Q

POGO

A

Switch to communication channel number preceding _____. If unable to establish communications, switch to channel number following _____. If no channel number follows, return to this channel.

98
Q

Push [channel]

A

switch to designated frequency; no acknowledgment required

99
Q

Red

A

Aircraft is at weapon and/or fuel state that is insufficient to continue execution of the mission.

100
Q

Remington

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

101
Q

Rifle

A

FRIENDLY A/S missile launch

102
Q

Rope

A

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the FRIENDLY ground position

103
Q

Saddled

A

Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position

104
Q

Shallow

A

Follow indicated target

105
Q

Smack

A

Clearance to employ ordnance or fires on surface target coordinates. Link-16 track, ROE, PID, CDE, clear field of fire, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target or track have been satisfied. Not to be utilized in a CAS engagement

106
Q

Snake

A

Oscillate an IR pointer in figure eight about a target

107
Q

Sparkle

A

Mark or marking target by IR Pointer. platform is IR capable

108
Q

Squirter

A

A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

109
Q

Stare

A

Cue the laser spot search or tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. Reference point may include the following: steer point, geographic reference (GEOREF), bearing and range, or data link point

110
Q

Status

A

Request for an individuals tactical situation.

111
Q

Steady

A

Stop oscillation of IR pointer

112
Q

Sunshine

A

Illuminating target with artificial illumination

113
Q

Tally

A

Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position.

114
Q

Technical

A

Improvised fighting vehicle (usually civilian vehicles modified with mounted weapons.)

115
Q

Tiger

A

Enough fuel and ordnance to accept a commitment

116
Q

Timber

A

Link 16 Network

117
Q

Visual

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship

118
Q

Wagon [left/right]

A

Rotary wing directive call to orbit around the target

119
Q

Weapons tight

A

Weapons control status. Fire only at targets positively identified as Hostile IAW current ROE

120
Q

Winchester

A

No ordnance remaining.

121
Q

Yellow

A

Weapon and/or fuel status that is approaching a level insufficient to continue execution of the mission.

122
Q

Wheeled Vehicle

A
123
Q

Block

A
124
Q

Disrupt

A
125
Q

Fix

A
126
Q

Turn

A
127
Q

Fire Support Coordination Line

A
128
Q

Air Assualt

A
129
Q

Main Axis of Advance

A
130
Q

Observation Post

A
131
Q

Platoon Echelon

A
132
Q

Airborne or Aviation Axis of Advance

A
133
Q

Command Post (CP)

A
134
Q

Planned Battle Position

A
135
Q

Air Defense Gun

A
136
Q

Target Reference Point

A
137
Q

Strong Point

A
138
Q

Armored

A
139
Q

Secure (Tactical Mission Task)

A
140
Q

Forward Line of Troops

A
141
Q

Machine Gun (Light)

A
142
Q

Headquarters

A
143
Q

Regiment

A
144
Q

Brigade

A
145
Q

UAS/ UAV

A
146
Q

Transportation

A
147
Q

Armored Track (Self-propelled)

A
148
Q

Attack by Fire

A
149
Q

Task Force (Box around Echelon)

A
150
Q

Screen Cover or Guard

A
151
Q

Phase Line

A
152
Q

Isolate

A
153
Q

Airborne

A
154
Q

Support by Fire

A
155
Q

FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production

A

Which Army publication covers operation orders?

156
Q

An operation order OPORD

A

What is a directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinated execution of an operation? JP5-0

157
Q

Commanders issue OPORDs to direct the execution of long-term operations as well as the execution of discrete short term operations within the framework of a long-range OPORD

A

Why do commanders issue OPORDs? FM 5-0, D-9

158
Q

Attachments (annexes, appendixes, tabs, and exhibits)

A

What parts of a base plan or order are information management tools that expand on the base plan or order? FM 5-0, D-45

159
Q

Annexes I, N, O, T, X, Y

A

Which annexes are labeled as “Spare” in Army and Joint OPORD’s? FM 5-0, Fig D-2

160
Q

Omitted

A

When an attachment required by doctrine or SOP is unnecessary, what is it labeled as? FM 5-0, D-47

161
Q

Annex A-Task Organization

A

Which annex does not follow the five-paragraph attachemnt format?

162
Q

Annex A-Task Organization

A

Which annex discusses the fundamentals of task organization and provides the format for the base plan or order? Fm 5-0, E-1.

163
Q

Annex-B Intelligence

A

Which annex’s purpose is to provide detailed information and intelligence on the characteristics of the operational environment and to direct intelligence and counterintelligence activities?

164
Q

Tab A-Pickup Zone Diagram, Tab B- Air Movement Table, and Tab C Landing Zone Diagram

A

Under Annex C-Operations, Appendix 5-Air Assault Operations contains what?

165
Q

Annex C-Operations.

A

Which annex describes how the commander intends to accomplish the mission in terms of the commander’s intent, an overarching concept of operations, scheme of employing maneuver, assessment, specified tasks to subordinate units, and key coordinating instructions in the subparagraphs below only if this annex is distributed separately from the base order

166
Q

That it is consistent with their intent and that of the next two higher echelon commanders

A

In an OPORDER, what should Commanders ensure regarding their scheme of maneuver? FM 5-0, Figure E-3 “Execution”

167
Q

Annex D-Fires

A

Which annex includes a discussion of the concept, and refers to the execution matrix to clarify timing relationships among various fires tasks?

168
Q

Label Annex’s

A

A-Task Organization
B-Intelligence
C-Operations
D-Fires
E-Protection
F-Sustainment
G-Engineer
H-Signal

AWS/AWOAC Entrance Exam (5 decks)

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