Entrance Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the fundamental purpose of healthcare?

A

To enhance quality of life [in the population] by enhancing overall health [of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is healthcare?

A

The organized provision of medical care to individuals or a community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a healthcare setting?

A

any location where someone may receive health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are examples of a healthcare setting?

A
Hospital
Clinic
Urgent Care
Rehab Facility
Home (Home Healthcare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four principles of healthcare?

A

Autonomy
Justice
Benefice
Non-maleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does autonomy refer to?

A

The right of a patient to make decisions about their medical care without their health care provider trying to influence the decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does justice refer to?

A

The principle that there should be an element of fairness in all medical decisions.

  • Fairness in decisions that burden and benefit society
  • Equal distribution of scare resources and new treatments
  • Medical practitioners are required to uphold applicable laws and legislation when making decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does patient autonomy allow for health providers to do?

A

To educate the patient, but does not allow the health care provider to make the decision for them. The decision-making process must be free of coercion or coaxing. In order for a patient to make a fully informed decision, she/he must understand all risks and benefits and the likelihood of success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does beneficence refer to?

A

The act of charity, mercy, and kindness with a strong connotation of doing good to others including moral obligation. All professionals have the foundational moral imperative of doing right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does beneficence, as a principle, demand that health care providers do?

A

Develop and maintain their skills and knowledge. To continually update their training, consider individual circumstances of all patients, and strive for net benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Non-maleficence refer to?

A

Not harming or inflicting the least harm possible to reach a beneficial outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What principle is is sometimes difficult for a healthcare provider to successfully apply?

A

In some cases, it is difficult for healthcare providers to successfully apply the do no harm principle (Non-maleficence).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a medical scribe?

A

A healthcare worker who assists providers in documenting all aspects of patient encounters, from initial examination to the end of the visit. The scribe will follow the provider into patient rooms and document the entire patient encounter in real-time directly into the EHR in a structured manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a medical scribe’s number one priority?

A

Proper documentation of the provider’s encounter with each patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a medical scribe document through the entirety of a patient’s stay?

A

Re-evaluations, procedures, orders, results, and calls/consults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is within the scope of a medical scribe’s role?

What are they allowed to complete

A

They are allowed to:

  • Document a patient’s entire visit for the provider
  • Alert provider when test results become available
  • Alert provider when there is a new patient if they are not already aware
  • Alert nursing staff when new orders have been placed
  • Give patients blankets and water if requested (check with nurse first)
  • Get supplies for the provider (gloves, suture materials, saline, etc…. excluding EXCLUDING Medications
  • Hold supplies for the provider (hold the light for the provider, hold a bottle of lidocaine for the provider, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are medical scribes NOT allowed to do?

A
  • TOUCH PATIENTS
  • Make medical decisions
  • Administer medications
  • Obtain history from the patient independent of the provider– they should always accompany the provider
  • Take vital signs (oxygen saturation, blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, etc.)
  • Obtain specimens for labs (blood samples, flu tests, etc.)
  • Perform CPR– when working as a scribe, they are to only scribe and must NOT TOUCH PATIENTS, regardless if they have a CPR certification
  • Give results or diagnostic info to patients – leave this to the provider
  • Give nurses verbal orders (“Give the patient Morphine” or “Give the patient 1 bolus of IV fluids”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is a Medical Scribe ever permitted to touch a patient

A

NAH NEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three kinds of healthcare providers a scribe will work directly with on a regular basis?

A
A Physician (MD, DO)
Physician Assistant (PA)
Nurse Practitioner (NP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a physician?

A

A medical doctor, either an M.D. (Doctor of Medicine) or D.O. (Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine), who has completed graduate training to diagnose and treat injuries or illnesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 6 duties of a physician?

A
Examining Patients
Taking medical histories
Performing medical procedures/surgeries
Prescribing medications
Ordering/interpreting diagnostic tests
Counseling patients on diet, hygiene, and preventive healthcare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 6 duties of a physician assistant or PA?

A

Examining patients
Taking medical histories
Performing some and assisting in other medical procedures
Ordering/ interpreting diagnostic tests
Prescribing medications (in most states)
Counseling patients on diet, hygiene, and preventive healthcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a Physician Assistant or a PA?

A

A mid-level healthcare provider who practices medicine in collab with physicians. They practice under the license of their supervising physician.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a nurse practicioner or NP?

A

An advanced practice registered nurse and a type of mid-level healthcare provider health care provider. NP’s like PA’s also practice in collab with a physician under the physician’s license, but additionally they have the capacity to work under their own license.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 6 duties of a nurse practitioner or a NP?

A
Examining Patients
Taking medical histories
Performing medical procedures/surgeries
Prescribing medications
Ordering/interpreting diagnostic tests
Counseling patients on diet, hygiene, and preventive healthcare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Medical providers, or simply providers, are unable to interview, examine, and document the patient’s entire visit… so who fills in?

A

Medical scribes, aka scribes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are medical scribes, or scribes, trained to do?

A

Accompany a provider during patient encounters to assist in documenting the entirety of the visit (from all answered questions to physical findings into the patient’s record)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Providers see patients in a variety of healthcare settings, therefore…

A

Scribes work in a variety of healthcare settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 12 additional healthcare roles?

A
*Nurse (RN/BSN)
>Charge Nurse
*Medical Assistant (MA)
*Nurse Technician/Certified Nurse Assistant (CNA)
*Paramedic (Medic)
*Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
*Lab Technician
*Phlebotomist
*Pharmacist
*Pharmacy Technician
*Respiratory Therapist
*Clerical Staff
*Billing Staff
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a nurse?

A

A healthcare professional who plays a significant supporting role in hospitals, clinics, and private practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

____ make up the largest healthcare occupation in the U.S.

A

Nurses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two types of nurses?

A

RNs (Registered Nurses) and those with a BSN (Bachelor’s of Science in Nursing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between RNs (Registered Nurses) and those with a BSN (Bachelor’s of Science in Nursing)?

A

The difference between the two titles relates to their years of schooling, but doesn’t change their responsibilities or duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a nurse’s duties include?

A
Communicating between patients and providers
Caring for patients
Assisting providers when needed
Administering medicine
Supervising nurses' aides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a charge nurse?

A

A charge nurse is in charge of the nursing staff of a specific ward at a healthcare facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What re the duties of a charge nurse?

A

Caring for patients and other typical nursing tasks
Supervising Staff
Ensuring that everything runs smoothly during their shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a medical assistant, or a MA?

A

A health careprofessional who supports the work of physicians and other health professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the duties of a medical assistant or a MA?

A
  • Verifying patient by interviewing patients
  • Recording medical history
  • Confirming the purpose of the visit
  • Preparing patients for examination by performing preliminary physical tests and taking blood pressure, weight, and temp
  • Reporting patient history summary to the provider
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A nurse technician is also referred to as?

A

A nurse tech, nursing aide, or certified nursing assistant (CNA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the duties of a nurse technician?

A
  • Feeding, bathing, and dressing patients
  • Taking patient vital signs
  • Serving meals, making beds, and keeping rooms clean
  • Setting up medical equipment and assisting with some medical procedures
  • Answering calls for help
  • Observing changes in a patient’s condition or behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a nurse technician?

A

A healthcare professional who helps patients with activities of daily living and other healthcare needs under the direct supervision of a nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a job task that a nursing technician DOES NOT DO?

A

They don’t administer medications or start I.V.S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a paramedic, or a medic?

A

A professional who responds to emergency calls for medical help outside of a hospital. Paramedics mainly work as part of emergency medical services and are often also firefighters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three duties of paramedic?

A
  • Responding to 911 calls for emergency medical assistance
  • Assessing a patient’s condition and administering treatments (including invasive treatments such as starting IV’s, giving medications, intubating the patient, etc.)
  • Providing first-aid or life support care to sick or injured patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an EMT, or an Emergency Medical Technician?

A

A healthcare professional who is trained to respond quickly to emergency situations regarding medical issues, traumatic injuries, and accident scenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the duties of an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)?

A
  • Responding to 911 calls for medical assistance
  • Assessing a patient’s condition and administering treatment (not including invasive treatments)
  • Providing first-aid or life support care to sick or injured patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the difference between an EMT and a paramedic?

A

Their level of education and procedures thy are allowed to perform.

EMTS can administer CPT, glucose and oxygen (noninvasive treatments),

Paramedics can perform more complex procedures such as inserting IV lines, intubations, administering drugs, and applying pacemakers (invasive treatments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a lab technician?

A

A skilled healthcare professional that works with complex systems to perform highly technical mechanical or diagnostic tests in medical labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the duties of a lab technician, aka lab tech?

A
  • Setting up and sanitizing laboratories
  • Preparing specimens
  • Matching blood compatibility for transfusions
  • Analyzing fluid chemical content
  • Collecting blood samples
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a phlebotomist?

A

A healthcare professional trained to draw blood from a patient (mostly from veins) for clinical or medical testing, transfusions, donations, or research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 5 duties of a phlebotomist?

A
  • Collecting blood samples from patients
  • Labeling vials with patient names and dates
  • Identifiying the best method for drawing blood depending on the specific patient
  • Transport all specimen samples to a nearby lab
  • Centrifuging blood samples– depending on if this is allowed in the state they are working in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the differences between a phlebotomist and a lab tech?

A

Both of them collect bodily fluids from patients. However, phlebotiomists take only blood samples and perform more clerical tasks like printing orders and storing supplies. Lab techs, on the other hand, help lab technologist collect samples and run tests in a lab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a pharmacist?

A

A healthcare professional who specializes in the use of medicines, with extensive knowledge of their composition, effects, mechanism of action, and proper and effective usage of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the duties of a pharmacist?

A
  • Preparing medications by reviewing and interpreting physician orders
  • Detecting therapeutic incompatibilities
  • Dispensing medications by compounding, packing, and labeling pharmaceuticals
  • Controlling medications by monitoring drug therapies and advising interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a pharmacy technician, or pharmacy tech?

A

A healthcare professional who performs pharmacy-related functions, such as dispensing medications, while working under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the duties for a pharmacy tech?

A
  • Dispensing medications for patients
  • Receiving and verifying prescriptions
  • Pricing and filling prescriptions
  • Obtaining pharmacist’s approval
  • Completing patient paperwork related to the filling of prescriptions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a respiratory therapist or a RT?

A

A specialized healthcare practitoner trained in critical care and cardiopulmonary medicine in order to work therapeutically with people suffering from acute critical conditions, as well as cardiac and pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 6 duties of a respiratory therapist?

A
  • Interviewing and examining patients with breathing or cardiopulmonary disorder
  • Consulting with physicians
  • Performing diagnostic tests, such as measuring lung capacity
  • Treating patients using a variety of methods, including aerosol medications
  • Monitoring and recording a patients’ progress
  • Teaching patients how to take medications and use equipment, such as at-home ventilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a health information clerk, aka medical records clerk?

A

A healthcare professional responsible for the medical records of patients. They are often a patient’s first point of contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the duties of a health information clerk, aka medical records clerk?

A
  • Compiling, coding, organizing and evaluating a patient’s medical records
  • Creating a new medical record for new patients
  • Closing medical records as needed
  • Organizing patient appointments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a medical biller, aka medical coder?

A

A healthcare professional in charge of calculating and collecting payments for medical procedures and services. They work in medical administrative offices to ensure that patients are billed quickly and accurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the duties of a medical biller, aka medical coder?

A
  • Ensuring accuracy of patient note coding for precise billing
  • Developing payment plans for patients to pay off their medical debt
  • Preparing invoices to be sent to patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is HIPPA?

A

A law passed in 1996 that protects the privacy of patient info in the form of Protected Health Information, of PHI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does the law state about HIPAA?

A

That healthcare professionals may only access information necessary to do their job and to only share said information with others who need it to do their job. This is known as the Minimum Necessary Standard and covers written, spoken, or electronic forms of communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Minimum Necessary Standard ?

A

That healthcare professionals may only access information necessary to do their job and to only share said information with others who need it to do their job. (covers written, spoken, or electronic forms of communication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the two types of penalties for violating HIPAA?

A

*Civil Penalties
>100-50k in fines per year, per violation

*Criminal Penalties
>50k - 1,500,000 in fines per year, per violation
>Possibility of imprisonment for up to 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is Protected Health Information of PHI?

A

Any health data created, received, stored, or transmitted by HIPAA-covered entities and their business associates in relation to the provision of healthcare, healthcare operations, and payment for healthcare services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is considered PHI?

A

There are 18 items that are considered pieces of personal info or identifiers under HIPAA:

  1. Name
  2. Postal Address
  3. All elements of dates except year
  4. Phone number
  5. Fax Number
  6. Email
  7. Web Universal Resource Location (URL)
  8. Internet Protocol
  9. Social Security Number (SSN)
  10. Other account numbers
  11. Certificate/driver’s license number
  12. Medical record number (MRN)
  13. Health plan (insurance) beneficiary number
  14. Medical device identifiers and serial numbers
  15. Vehicle identifiers i.e. VIN, license plate number, etc.
  16. Biometric information, i.e. DNA, fingerprints, etc.
  17. Full face photos
  18. Any other unique identifying number code, or characteristic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When linked to a patient using a personal identifier, what is also considered PHI?

A
  • Health records
  • Patients’ past and present physical and mental health conditions
  • Diagnostic results
  • Medical bills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a privacy breach?

A

The acquisition access, use, or disclosure of Protected Health Information in a prohibited manner which compromises the security or privacy of the protected health information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the types of privacy breaches?

A
  • Compromised computer system i.e. Hacking
  • Info which is lost/stolen, i.e., papers, electronic devices, films, tapes, etc.
  • Sending info which is not HIPAA compliant, i.e. sending unencrypted info which includes patient identifiers
  • Sending info to the wrong person
  • Talking in public areas too loudly and/or to someone not covered by the Minimum Necessary Standard
  • Allowing or granting patient record access to someone other than the login owner (sharing log-in)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Scribes are healthcare professionals and meet the minimum necessary standard and may access info necessary to do their job and…

A

only share info with others who need it to do their job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The access to information that medical scribes have may create the risk of privacy ____

A

breaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How can I scribe prevent a privacy breach from occurring?

A

Protecting the access they have been granted by safeguarding their logins and only accessing the Electronic Medical Records while following appropriate protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

While I am on shift, I see a famous celebrity check in. It is Nahko Bear. Although, I won’t see Nahko, I am curious about the conditions that they have and why they are being seen. So, I decide to open up the record, but I don’t read any past charts…. Did I violate HIPAA?

A

Yeah, thats a HIPAA violation. Despite not reading any past charts. The Minimum Necessary Standard states that only those who need PHI to complete their job are permitted to access a patient’s record.

Since the scribe was not going to be seeing the patient, they did not fulfill the requirements of the Minimum Necessary Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

I decide to go into the shift after I find out that my cousin is admitted at their facility. The scribe wishes to send their cousin an appropriate “get well” card, but isn’t sure why the cousin was admitted…

How should I approach finding out why my cousin was admitted without violating HIPAA?

A

I should ask my cousin or family directly. Accessing the cousin’s recrd or asking their physician for information would be HIPAA violations.

Me, as the scribe, may not access my own health record, as this would also be a HIPAA violation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

While I am on shift, a scribe recognizes a patient walking down the hall as a friend from highschool. Wanting to catch up, the scribe approaches their friend and strikes up a conversation. They don’t discuss the reason why the friend is patient. This is still a violation of HIPAA…..

So what did the scribe do wrong??

A

The scribe should have not approaches their friend and should have treated the friend the same way as other patients. Doing so was a HIPAA violation; the scribe revealed personal information about the scribe about the patient –their connection to the scribe….

However if the patient approached the scribe to engage in conversation, it would not have been the patient’s decision to disclose their connection to the scribe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Scribe #1 has split their shift with another Scribe who is just coming in to take over. As the Scribe #1 is leaving, the provider asks them to email any notes they have on active patients to Scribe #2 before they leave

So, is this a HIPAA violation?

A

Yes, both Scribes #1 and #2 would be violating HIPAA by sharing PHI through non-encrypted means.

The best way to handle this situation would be for Scribe #1 to give a verbal report on each active patient to Scribe #2 before leaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Throughout a busy shift, a scribe was unable to finish their charts. By the scheduled end of their shift, the scribe has various tasks to complete in a number of charts. The scribe decides to write everything down to bring home with them so they can eat dinner and come back to finish up the charts.

Was this a HIPAA violation?

A

Noooo not yet, but the scribe is creating a potential HIPAA vilation by removing documents with PHI from the facility and putting them in a vulnerable location where they could potentially be viewed by those not involved in the patient’s case….

Best way to handle this situation would have been to notify the Leadership team/Provider and stay after shift or come in early during the next shift to finish the notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

I’m waiting in line at Starbucks before my shift. I hear a scribe talk to a nurse and a CNA discuss a patient. They use the patient’s name. They don’t say anything negative about the patient. They disclose why he was in the hospital and some of his test results.

Was this a HIPAA violation?

A

Yes, the nurse and CNA both violated HIPAA by discussing a patient in a public place and using the patient’s name which is PHI.

What should the scribe do….
Report the violation to their immediate supervisor/ lead scribe, who will pass it to the appropriate parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

While at the grocery store, a scribe sees a patient how they saw recently on shift. The patient had a very difficult recovery and the scribe is excited to see they are up and about. The scribe decides to walk up to the patient and ask how they are doing.

Was this a HIPAA violation?

A

Yeah, the scribe violated HIPAA by approaching the patient outside of the hospital and healthcare setting where the patient was treated.

It would not be a HIPAA violation if the patient decided to approach the scribe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the purpose of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?

A

To ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training outreach, education, and assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the mission of OSHA?

A
  • Prevent work injuries, illnesses, and deaths
  • Develop job safety and health standards and enforce them through worksite inspections
  • Have worksites maintain a reporting and recordkeeping system to keep track of job-related injuries and illnesses
  • Provide training programs to increase knowledge occupational safety and health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the Joint Commission?

A

A non-profit organization that sets standards and accredits healthcare organizations and programs based on their safety standards and quality of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the overall mission of the Join Commission?

A
  • Continously improve the safety and quality of healthcare provided to the public through the provision of accreditation and related services
  • Evaluate healthcare organizations and inspire them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

T/F

The Joint Commision DOES NOT endorse, nor prohibit the use of Medical Scribes…

A

True..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When scribes are used, what conditions must they follow according to the Joint Commission

A

They must complete training on the following topics:
> Medical terminology
> Health INsurance Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
>Principles of billing, coding, and reimbursement
>Patient record navigation
>Computerized order entry

*Scribes must sign and date theri entry into the patient’s record. This is known as the scribe attestation
>The provider will also sign and date, acknowledging the scribe’s entries. The scribe cannot enter the date or time for the provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services OR CMS?

A

An organization that oversees many federal healthcare programs, including those that involve health info technology, such as the meaninful use incentive program.

  • This program offers incentive payment sthrough Medicare and Medicaid to providers and hispitals when they use electronic records to achieve specified improvements in healthcare delivery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

According to the CMS, Centers of Medicare & Medicaid Services, the U.S. healthcare system is moving from that pays for the _____ of services to one that pays for the ____ of services

A

volume; value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the core goal of the CMS, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services?

A

Their goal is to standardize how to document, how to report treatment information for billing, and how payments for medical services are made based on quality of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does the CMS, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, aim to meet their core goals?

A

They have put in place a set of core measures that are designed to be meaningful to patients, consumers, and physicians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the American Medical Association? (AMA)

A

The American Medical Association, or AMA, is the largest association of physicians - both MDS and DOs- and medical students in the United States.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the original goals of the American Medical Association at the time of their establishment in 1845?

A
  • Scientific advancement
  • Standards for medical education
  • Launching a program of medical ethics
  • Improved public health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the stated mission of the AMA?

A

To promote the art and science of medicine and the betterment of public health

The AMA is dedicated to driving medicine toward a more equitable future, removing obstacles that interfere with patient care and confronting the nation’s greatest public health crises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does the AMA advocate for?

A

The use of scribes in various clinical settings, citing the benefits their use has on overall patient care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is anatomical positioning?

A

The standardized method of describing the position of any region or part of the body at any given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Why is anatomical positioning standardized?

A

This method is standardized so that anyone reading the note after the patient has been evaluated will know exactly what area of the body is being referenced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is anatomical position?

A

A standard position of the patient’s body used as a reference in describing the relation of body parts to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are anatomical planes?

A

Hypothetical planes used to transect the body, in order to describe the location of structures or the direction of movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define the term anatomical position

A

Standing erect, feet together, and arms at the sides with palms facing forward

(Icon of someone standing tall - visualized )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Define transverse plane

A

Divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) sections

(There is a photo of a body model with a square horizontally positioned at the pelvis level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Define the sagittal plane

A

Divides the body into right and left sections that may be even (midsagittal) or uneven

(Vertically positioned rectangle around the model that is dividing the model into two sections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Define Coronal (frontal) plane

A

Divides body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) sections

*(A rectangle positioned at the crown of head and around the body, dividing the body into front and back sections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are anatomical directions?

A

Directions used to describe the locations of structures in relation to other structures or locations in the body, in the same way the directions North, South, East, and West are used on a map

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the terms that describe anatomical directions?

A
Prone
Supine
Anterior
Posterior
Ventral
Dorsal
Superior
Inferior
Superficial
Deep
Medial
Lateral
Proximal
Distal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Define Prone

Anatomical Direction

A

The body lying flat, facing downward

(Model lying down flat and facing downward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Define the term Supine

Anatomical Direction

A

The body lying flat, facing upward

Model lying flat and facing upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Define the term Anterior

Anatomical Direction

A

In front of or further toward the front

EX: The sternum is anterior to the heart

*(Body model is facing left with arrows facing in the left direction, signaling to look in front of the model)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Define the term Posterior

Anatomical Direction

A

Further back in position; of or nearer to the rear or hind end

EX: The spine is posterior to the sternum

(Body model facing left with arrows facing right, signaling behind the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Define the term Ventral

Anatomical Direction

A

Pertaining to the front of any structure. The ventral surfaces of the body include the chest, abdomen, shins, palms, and soles

(Body with arrows facing forward - sternum, pelvis, and leg… and arrow signaling down to soles of feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Define the term Dorsal

Anatomical Direction

A

Pertaining to the back of any structure. The dorsal surfaces of the body are the back, buttocks, calves, and the knuckle side of the hand

(Body icon showing arrows signaling to the back of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Define the term Inferior

Anatomical Direction

A

Lower, below, or farther from the top of the head

EX: The feet are inferior to the knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Define the term Superficial

Anatomical Direction

A

Nearer to the surface

EX: The skin is superficial to the bones

(Body model has straight lines around the pecs…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Define the term Deep

Anatomical Direction

A

Farther away from the surface

EX: The heart is deep to the ribs

(Two Lines around pecks pointing at each other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Define the term Medial

Anatomical Direction

A

Nearer to the midline. May also be the midline of an individual body part

EX: The medial aspect of the left forearm

(There is a middline line in the body… two lines on each side of the middle line pointing at it around the pecks area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Define the term Lateral

Anatomical Direction

A

Farther from the midline. May also be the midline of an individual body part

EX: The lateral aspect of the left forearm

(Arrows facing away from the Midline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Define the term Proximal

Anatomical Direction

A

Closer to the center of the body or point of attachment

EX: The elbow is proximal to the hand

(Arrows on the side of the arms and legs facing upward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Define the term Distal

Anatomical Direction

A

Further away from the center body or point of attachment; nearer to the end

EX: The foot is distal to the knee

(Arrows pointing down from the sides of the arms and legs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are anatomical movements?

A

Terms used to describe movement of organs, joints, limbs, and specific sections of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Review anatomical movement terms

A

Flexion

Extension

Supination

Pronation

Abduction

Adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Define the term Flexion

Anatomical Movements

A

To bend, decreasing the angle between body parts

EX: Bending the knee is flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Define the term Extension

Anatomical Movements

A

To straighten, increasing the angle between body parts

EX: Bending the knee is flexion

(A leg moving itself back «< is flexion and forward&raquo_space;> extension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Define the term Supination

Anatomical Movements

A

Turning the palm of the hand upward by rotating the forearm

EX: Pain with supination

(Think carrying bowls of soup = supination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Define the term Pronation

Anatomical Movements

A

Turning the palm of the hand downward by rotating the forearm

EX: Pain with pronation

THINK “Dribbling like a pro-basketball player = pronation.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Define the term Abduction

Anatomical Movements

A

A motion where the body part goes away from the body

EX: Pain with should abduction

THINK: Providers will sometimes say A-B-duction.” Think: Abduction abducts from the body

(Model is lifting arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Define the term Adduction

Anatomical Movements

A

A motion where the body part goes towards the body

EX: Pain with should adduction

THINK: Providers will sometimes say A-D-duction…. adduction adds to the body think…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are abdominal quadrants?

A

Any one of the 4 areas on the anterior of the abdoment formed by the 2 imaginary lines one vertical and one horizontal intersecting at the navel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the terms for the abdominal quadrants?

A

Right Upper Quadrant
Right Lower Quadrant
Left Upper Quadrant
Left Lower Quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Define the term Right Upper Quadrant

Abdominal Quadrant

A

Abbreviation: RUQ

Location of the gallblader

Think - North Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Define the term Right Lower Quadrant

Abdominal Quadrant

A

RLQ

Location of the appendix and the right ovary in females

South Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Define the term Left Upper Quadrant

Abdominal Quadrant

A

Abbreviation: LUQ
Location of the stomach and spleen

North Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Define the term Left Lower Quadrant

Abdominal Quadrant

A

Abbreviation: LLQ

Location of the sigmoid colon and left ovary in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are abdominal regions?

A

Any of the topographical subdivisions of the abdomen, including one posterior region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What terms are associated with abdominal regions?

A

Epigastric Region
Periumbilical Region
Suprapubic Region
Costovertebral Angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Define the term Epigastric Region

Abdominal Regions

A

AKA - Midepigastric Region

The region of the upper abdomen immediately below the ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Define the term Periumbilical Region

Abdominal Regions

A

AKA - Umbilical Region

Def - The region surrounding the umbilicus

(Center of the model - or stomach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Define the term Suprapubic Region

Abdominal Regions

A

AKA Pelvic Region

The region of the abdomen located below the umbilical region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Define the term Costovertebral Region

Abdominal Regions

A

Abbreviation: CVA
AKA - Right and left flanks

A region on the back between the 12th rib and the vertebral column, overlying the kidneys

Video for reference…
https://youtu.be/fSIiAH1KaJI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Define skull regions

A

Skull regions are divided by three of the four cranial sutures which fuse together over time. Each region is named after the respective underlying bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What terms are associated with the skull regions?

A

Frontal Region

Retro Orbital Region

Temporal Region

Parietal Region

Occipital Region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Define Frontal Region

Skull Regions

A

The region overlying the forehead. Can be a location for headaches.

Literally its the front of the forehead….
EX: Patient Reports a frontal Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Define Retro Orbital Region

Skull Regions

A

The region behind the eyes. Common place for migraines.

(Right behind eye sockets)

EX: Patient reports a retro orbital headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Define Temporal Region

Skull Regions

A

The region over the temple/ears. Can be a location for headaches

EX: Patient reports a temporal headache

(* Think ear muffs area or headphones* )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Define Parietal Region

Skull Regions

A

The region at the top of the head. Can be a location for headaches

EX: Patient reports a parietal headache

(Start around crown and covers some of the upper back of the head and a bit above the temporal area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Define Occipital Region

Skull Regions

A

The region at the back of the head. Can be a location for headaches.

Example: Patient reports a occipital headache

(Lowerback of head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is a patient encounter/ visit and what is the provider responsible for during the encounter/ visit?

A

Each time a patient is treated by a Medical Provider (MD, DO, PA, NP), thi sis called a patient encounter or visit and the provider is responsible for documenting what occurred during that patient encounter/visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How is the patient encounter/visit recorded?

A

It is recorded in distinct and separate sections; each section has an exact purpose and contains a specific type of information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is a note?

A

Also known as the patient’s encounter note

It is The final document that is created with all of the distinct and separate sections recorded for the patient’s encounter/visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Where are the patient encounter notes and other data that make up the patient’s medical records?

A

This info is housed in a computer program called an Electronic Health Record, or EHR. There are many different EHRS in healthcare (site-specific EHR training will occur at a later stage).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Providers see patients in a variety of healthcare settings, therefore…

A

scribes work in a variety of healthcare settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Healthcare Setting:

Acute Care Setting-
Emergency Department (ED)
Inpatient
Intensive Care Units (ICUs)
Urgent Care

How many hours are these facilities running for?

A

24/7 or extended hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Healthcare Setting:

Acute Care Setting-
Emergency Department (ED)
Inpatient
Intensive Care Units (ICUs)
Urgent Care

What is the acuity level for these facilities?

A

Low, medium, and high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Healthcare Setting:

Acute Care Setting-
Emergency Department (ED)
Inpatient
Intensive Care Units (ICUs)
Urgent Care

What type of visit is this for?

A

New complaints/ symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the four examples of acute care setting?

A

Emergency Department (ED)
Inpatient
Intensive Care Units (ICUs)
Urgent Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What does acuity mean?

What is an example?

A

Acuity means the level of severity.
EX: A hatchet sticking out of someone’s chest is Acuity level 1 (high acuity) where as a stubbed tow would be an Acuity level 5 (low acuity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Ambulatory Care Setting:

Primary Care clinics -
(Family medicine, OB/Gyn, Pediatrics)

Specialty Medicine Clinics -
(Cardiology, Neurology, Pulmonology, etc.)

What are the business hours for these care settings?

A

M-F 8am-5pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Ambulatory Care Setting:

Primary Care clinics -
(Family medicine, OB/Gyn, Pediatrics)

Specialty Medicine Clinics -
(Cardiology, Neurology, Pulmonology, etc.)

What are the acuity levels for these care settings?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Primary Care clinics -
(Family medicine, OB/Gyn, Pediatrics)

What types of visits are these care settings for?

A

Chronic & Long-term conditions, new complaints/ symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Specialty Medicine Clinics -
(Cardiology, Neurology, Pulmonology, etc.)

What type of visits are these for?

A

Very specialized & long-term conditions, new complaints/ symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Review Patient Note Sections for an Ambulatory Care Setting

A
>Reason for visit
>History of present illness (HPI)
>Review of Systems (ROS)
>Past Medical + Surgical, Family, and Social History (PMFSHx)
>Allergies/Home Medications
>Physical Examination
>Procedures
>Impression/Assessment/Diagnosis
>Plan
*Patient instructions
*Patient Education
*Orders
--Labs, imaging, other testing
*Follow up info
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Review Patient Note Sections for Acute Care Settings

A
>Reason for visit
>History of present illness (HPI)
>Review of Systems (ROS)
>Past Medical + Surgical, Family, and Social History (PMFSHx)
>Allergies/Home Medications
>Physical Examination
>Medical Decision Making (MDM)
*Differential Diagnosis
*Diagnostic Studies (Labs, Imaging, EKGs)
*Procedures
*Reevaluations
*Consultations
>Impression/Assessment/Diagnosis
>Disposition
>Plan
*Patient Instructions
*Patient Education
*Follow Up Information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Each note section has specific info that belongs to it - Review note sections

A
SUBJECTIVE FROM PATIENT
>Reason for visit
>History of present illness (HPI)
>Review of Systems (ROS)
>Past Medical + Surgical, Family, and Social History (PMFSHx)
OBJECTIVE
>Physical Examination
>Medical Decision Making (MDM)
*Differential Diagnosis
*Diagnostic Studies (Labs, Imaging, EKGs)
*Procedures
*Reevaluations
*Consultations
>Impression/Assessment/Diagnosis
>Disposition
>Plan
*Patient Instructions
*Patient Education
*Follow Up Information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the Reason for Visit, or the Chief Complaint?

A

The main reason the patient is being seen by the provider. The reason for visit is subjective and comes directly from the patient and/or their family. The reason for visit is usually one symptom or one reason.

EX: Chest pain, Asthma follow up, Medication refill etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the History of Present Illness aka HPI?

A

A paragraph of multiple paragraphs further expanding on and describing the Reason for Visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

The History of Present Illness (HPI) is _____ and comes directly from the patient and/or their family

A

subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Provide an example of how HPI is subjective and comes directly from the patient and/or their family

A

2 Patients Complain of Cough

1 experiences Cough fever and green sputum

Another patient may be experiencing a cough, scratchy throat and watery eyes. The symptoms and and details for each individual HPI are different.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Provide an example of HPI

A

Mary Wallace is a 45 yr old female with a history of htn who presents to the ed with complaints so fsharp chest pain which began 3 days ago. Her chest pain radiates down her left arm. She reports associate dnauser ana dplalitations she reports improvemetn after taking tylenol.

SOOOO the reason for visit is “chest pain” and

everything else is HPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

The HPI is written in a very specific way. T/F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is a completed review of systems, or ROS, or systems inquiry, or systems review?

(its all the same name)

A

A template of body systems (cardiovascular, neurological, etc.) which each contain specific symptoms. The ROS is a more condensed, easy to read list of all symptoms. The ROS is subjective and comes directly from the patient and/or their family. Any and all symptoms that the patient is experiencing must be listed in the ROS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Who is responsible for documenting all the symptoms a patient is experiencing as either positive or negative, respectively?

A

Medical Scribe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Most symptoms will be documented in ____ and all symptoms will be listed in the ___

A

HPI;ROS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the 14 most commonly recognized body systems?

A
Constitutional
Skin
Eyes
ENMT (Ears, Nose, Mouth, and Throat)
Respiratory
Cardiovascular
Gastrointestinal
Geintourinary
Musculoskeletal
Neurologic
Psychiatric
Endocrine
Heme/ Lymph (Hematologic/ Lymphatic)
Allergy/Immunologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Review a completed review of systems template

A

Constitutional: Negative for fever or chills
Skin: Negative for rash or open wounds
Eyes: Negative for blurred vision or double vision
ENMT: Negative for sore throat, ear pain, or rhinorrhea
Respiratory: Negative for shortness of breath or coughing
Cardiovascular: Positive for chest pain and palpitations
Gastrointestinal: Positive for nausea. Negative for vomiting, diarrhea or abdominal pain
Genitourinary: Negative for dysuria or hematuria
Musculoskeletal: Negative for back pain, joint pain, or joint swelling
Neurological: Negative for headache, dizziness, weakness, numbness, or tingling
Psychiatric: Negative for suicidal ideations or auditory or visual hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What does the Past Histories section of a patient’s note include

A

Past Medical + Surgical, Family, and Social Histories. Each section contains specific information.

EX:

Past Medical History: Hypertension
Surgical History: Tonsillectomy
Family History: No family history of hypertension
Social History: Non smoker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What does Past Medical History refer to?

A

The patient’s long term, previously diagnosed medical conditions

EX: Hypertensions (HTN) - high blood pressure
Hyperlipidemia (HLD) high cholesterol
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) - acid reflux
Asthma - Respiratory Illness

The Past Medical History sections is typically subjective and can also include info from sources other than the patient ( family member, prior visits, PCP, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is past surgical history?

A

This refers to the patient’s prior medical procedures and surgeries. This is considered part of Past Medical History, but often documented differently.

EX: Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) - heart “bypass” surgery
Hysterectomy - removal of the uterus
Colonoscopy - Exploration of the rectum, colon, and lower gastrointestinal tract by camera

This is also considered subjective, and can include info from other sources other than patient (family member, prior visits, operative report, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What do you do if there isn’t a separate section for Past Surgical History?

A

The patient’s prior procedures and surgeries can be recorded in the Past Medical History section.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is past family history?

A

The long-term diagnosed medical conditions that affect a patient’s immediate family members

EX: father has hypertensions
Mother died of myocardial infarction at 45
brother has diabetes

Past Family History is typically subjective, although we can include info from sources other than the patient…

EX: Family member, prior visits, pcp, etc…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Patients may misunderstand and give history of their spouse or step-relative…. Providers only include history from a __________ who have have had similar hereditary conditions

A

blood relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is Past Social History?

A

The patient’s social status and habits that may affect their medical history

EX: Tobacco use, Alcohol use, illicit drug use, marital status, employment status, living situation, activity level (sedentary vs. active)

The past social history is usully subjective although we can also include info form sources other than patient (fami, prior v, casework, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is a completed physical examination or physical exam?

A

A template of body systems (cardiovascular, neurological, etc.) each of which contain specific findings. Providers will communicate the exam findings directly to the scribe, who will record them verbatim into the note. These body system findings can be normal or abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

When it comes to physical examinations, do providers perform the same exam on every patient?

A

Yeah, although there are exceptions based on reason for visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

The physical examination section is __________ and only includes findings from the _______. This means that the patient reports will not be recorded here.

A

Objective; findings from the provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

When it comes to physical exams, providers typically have their routine exam as a _________, which can be _______ after it is generated into each note.

A

template; modified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is an example of a normal Physical Exam template?

A

Constitutional: Alert, no acute distress
Skin: Warm. Dry. Intact.
Head/Neck: Normocephalic. Atraumatic. Neck soft and supple. Trachea midline.
Eyes: PERRL. EOMI. Normal conjunctiva
ENMT: TMs clear. Moist mucous membranes. No pharyngeal erythema or exudate.
Lymphatics: No lymphadenopathy
Cardiovascular: Regular rate and rhythm. No murmur. No edem.
Respiratory/Chest Wall: Lungs CTA. Non-labored respirations. No wheezes, rales, or rhonchi. No chest wall tenderness or deformity.
Gastrointestinal: Soft, nontender, nondistended No rebound or guarding
Genitourinary: Normal external genitalia
Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremeties: Normal ROM of back and extremities. Normal strength. No back or extremeity tenderness. No swelling. No deformities.
Neurological: A/O x4. Cranial nerves II-XII intact. No focal neurologic deficits. Normal speech.
Psychiatric: Cooperative. Normal affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the medical decision making or MDM section?

A

This section includes documentation for everything that occurred to or for the patient during the visit.

This includes:

  • Differential diagnosis (possible other causes of symptoms)
  • Diagnostic Studies (Labs, Imaging)
  • Procedures
  • Reevaluations
  • Consultations (speaking with another provider for assistance on case)
  • … and many more

The MDM section may vary based in the acute care or ambulatory setting

The MDM is objective and based on provider findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the most complex section of the patient’s note?

A

The MDM is the most complex section. Some providers will fill out areas of the MDM on their own or dictate them to the scribe, such as the differential diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the differential diagnosis?

A

An initial list of possible conditions or diseases that could be causing the patient’s symptoms

For example, a paitnet presents to a clinic coplaining of a cough and fever the differential diagnosis may include:

  • Asthma
  • Bronchitis
  • Pneumonia
  • Viral upper respiratory infection
  • Influenza
  • … and many more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How does a provider further narrow down the final diagnosis when it comes differential diagnosis?

A

They may order testing to further down the final diagnosis. Its typically only one, or in rare cases two, of the Differential Diagnoses are determined to be the final cause of the patient’s symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Who may a provider dictate a patient’s differential diagnosis to? What will they do?

A

They will dictate a patient’s differential diagnosis to a Medical Scribe who will record them vertabim in the Medical Decision Making section of the chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are laboratory studies or labs?

A

Tests ordered to measure levels of specific chemicals in the patient’s body. The results of these levels assist the provider in determining any abnormalities in the patient. Lab results are objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Where are a patient’s individual lab results compared to a “reference range” (a normal value across all populations) ?

A

The lab section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Can lab results be generated into a note with a click of a button, or copy and pasted from another location?

A

Yeah, they can depending on the EHR used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Can labs be order in an ambulatory care setting?

A

Yeah, but results aren’t available until several days later. The results are documented in at their follow up visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are imaging studies or imaging?

A

Techniques and processes of creating visual representations of the interior of a body for representations of the interior of a body for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Imaging is objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Can imaging results be generated into the note with the click of a button or copy and pasted from another location?

A

It would depend on the EHR used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What may a provider do if there isn’t a designated section in an ambulatory care note for imaging?

A

The provider may still order imaging for the patient that will be included in the Plan, as a referral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What are the different imaging modalities which can be selected by the provider to evaluate for specific concerns?

A
  • X-rays
  • Ultrasonography/Ultrasound (US)
  • Computed Tomography scan (CT)
  • Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
  • Nuclear Medicine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Who reviews images from a study? What do they do after they review it?

A

Visual images from a study are reviewed by a radiologist who then creates a narrative summary of the results, often called the “report.” This report is copied verbatim into the patient note.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Do all providers wait for a radiology report?

A

Some providers will review and interpret their own x-rays without waiting for the radiology report. However, providers don’t read other modalities given their complexity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What is a procedure?

A

Any activity directed at or performed on a patient with the purpose of improving health, treating disease or injury, or determining a diagnosis.

This includes: 
Foreign body removal
Pap smear
Laceration repair
Intubation
CPR

Procedures are objective….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Are procedures exclusive to the acute care setting?

A

They are not exclusive to the acute care setting. There are many outpatient procedures performed in the ambulatory care setting such as colonoscopy, speculum (pelvic) exam, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are re-evaluations - or revals or reexams?

A

Any instance when the provider’s attention is brought back to the patient case after the initial evaluation.

Reevaluations typically consist of updates on the patient case.

Reevals are objective.

EX:

2034 - On reexam, patient reports feeling improved after ibuprofen 800 mg. Still reporting nausea and one episode of vomiting despite medication. Will order additional dose. Pending CT imaging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What do reevaluations always include and in what format?

A

They always include a timestamp in military time and provide as much detail as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What are consultations or consults?

A

Any instance when the provider speaks with another healthcare professional for assistance on the patient’s case; this healthcare professional is often a specialist in their field

(Cardiologist, Pharmacist, Social Worker, etc.).

EX:

1809 - Called and spoke with Dr. Murphy, OG/GYN and discussed patient’s case at length. Recommend ultrasound to evaluate for ovarian cyst. Will see patient in the ED.

Consults are objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What must a consultation include?

A

A timestamp, name of the consulting professional, the specialty of the consulting professional, what was discussed, and the outcome of that discussion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What is an impression / assessment / diagnosis?

A

A clinical summation of info and/ or an opinion based upon the patient’s symptoms, their clinical history and presentation, as well as the outcome of the objective data and findings.

  • Acute care setting = Impression
  • Ambulatory care setting = Assessment
  • In both settings = Diagnosis

The assessment is objective and is based on the provider’s findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the disposition?

A

This refers to where the patient goes after leaving a healthcare setting; the patient can be dispositioned to a lower or higher level of care based on their status and/or findings.

These include: 
*Lower acuity
>Discharged home
>DChg to rehab
>DCHg to Skilled Nursing Facility

*High Acuity
>Admitted to hospital (ICU)
>Admitted to the cardiac catheterization lab (cath lab)
>Transferred to an outside hospital (OSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What is an outside hospital?

A

A healthcare facility that a patient needs to be transferred to for additional care or monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What is the plan section?

A

An explanation of how the provider would like to treat the patient’s diagnosis and can include the following:

  • Changes in or new medications
  • Orders for labs, imaging, or additional testing
  • Referals to other healthcare professionals
  • Procedures to be performed

EX:

PLAN: Patient’s imaging today shows evidence of pneumonia. We will treat with Z-pak. She can take Tylenol as needed for pain or fever. I also encouraged her to continue using her albuterol inhaler. Given that she had had pneumonia 3 times in the past 2 months, will place a referral to pulmonology for further evaluation. She understands to present to the ED for any worsening shortness of breath, uncontrollable fevers, or other concerning symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

The assement and the plan are usually…

A

Grouped together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are patient instructions?

A

A shorter, easy to read version of the Plan which is often printed and physically handled to the patient

EX: 1. Start Z-pak

  1. Continue to use your albuterol inhaler
  2. Take tylenol as needed for pain and fever
  3. follow up with the referral to pulmonology
  4. Present to the ED for any worsening pain, uncontrollable fevers, or other concerning symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is patient education?

A

Educational materials on each specific diagnosis which is often printed and physically handed to the patient as well

EX:
How to treat pneumonia
Proper use of inhalers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is the core goal of the Centers of Medicare & Medicaid Services
(CMS)

A

Their goal is to standardize how to document, how to report treatment info for billing, and how payments for medical services are made based on quality of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What is the chief complaint also known as

A

The reason for visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is the main reason a patient is seen for the provider

A

The Reason for Visit AKA Chief Complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What are some examples for a reason for visit

A

Typically one symptom or reason

EX:

  • Chest pain
  • Routine follow up
  • Urgent Follow up

The reason for visit is subjective and comes directly from the patient and/or their family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

The reason for visit will vary based on…

A

the healthcare setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What are some example reasons for visit in an acute care care setting?

A
  • Acute complaint
  • Medication refill
  • Sent in by another provider
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What are example reasons for visits in an ambulatory care setting for new patients?

A
  • Establish care
  • Establish care + Acute complaint
  • Initial consultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What are some reasons for visit for established patients in an ambulatory care setting?

A
  • Acute complaint
  • [Medical Condition] routine follow up
  • [Medical Condition] urgent follow up
  • Follow up after acute care setting visit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

An acute complaint is a…

A

new symptom or problem the patient would like evaluated by a healthcare provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What is are examples of acute complaints?

A
  • Chest pain
  • Vomiting
  • Right-sided weakness
  • Rash
  • Sore throat
  • Coughing
  • Left ear pain
  • Headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Providers only aim to focus on ____ reason for visit

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Due to the occasional delay between healthcare visits, what will patients do?

A

report a list of multiple issues at once *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Where are home medications typically prescribed and refilled?

A

Ambulatory care settings such as a primary care clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Can a patient present to an acute care setting to request a prescription refill?

A

Yes, they may if they are unable to obtain their home medications from their usual provider for various reasons

EX; Not calling the office, or not being seen in the office regularly enough for refills, traveling, losing their medications, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What is a medication refill visit?

A

Acute care setting visit to refill a home medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What will typically happen during a medication refill visit?

A

The acute care provider will often refill the medication for a short time to bridge the patient until they can be seen by their usual provider for a longer refill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What will typically happen in an ambulatory care setting?

A

Patients seen may occasionally have abnormal symptoms, vital signs, imaging or testing results which would require an emergent evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

If a patient was at an ambulatory setting and an emergent evaluation is needed, where would a patient go and why?

A

They’d go to an acute care setting, such as a Emergency Department for further evaluation. The ambulatory setting ( like a primary office ) is typically not designed for an emergent evaluation.

These visits are referred to as SENT IN BY ANOTHER PROVIDER

EX:

  • Abnormal CT imaging scan
  • Hypokalemia (low potassium levels)
  • Elevate blood pressure
  • Vision changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Where are chronically ill, elderly, and/or complex patients commonly sent and why?

A

They are sent to the Emergency Department with abnormal symptoms or testing results to expedite their treatment and minimize complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Why would patients be seen in an ambulatory setting, such as a primary care clinic?

A

To evaluate and monitor non-emergent conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What will happen to a patient prior to the first time being seen?

A

They will be considered a new patient and will need to schedule a clinic visit to ESTABLISH CARE with the provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What does it mean to establish care and after it is established what happens?

A

The provider will often spend a longer amount of time with the patient during their first visit and will go into greater detail about their Past Medical, Surgical, Family and Social History (PMFSHx)

This is where a relationship with a provider will be established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What will occasionally happen with new patients establishing care?

A

New patients establishing care will occasionally have an acute complaint they would like evaluated during their visit as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What will happen happen to a patient who has a more complex symptom or problem?

A

They may need to be seen by a specialist in a specific ambulatory setting, like a cardiology office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What will a patient need in order to be seen by a specialist?

A

They’d need a referral (documented recommendation from their usual provider in order to be seen by the specialist…

After the referral is placed, the patient will be considered a new patient by the specialty clinic and the patient will schedule an INITIAL CONSULTATION visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What happens during an initial consultation visit?

A

The provider and the patient will discuss the symptom or problem. The provider will examine the patient and may recommend a treatment, further testing, or no intervention at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

When can a patient go back to visit a clinic on a regular, ongoing basis?

A

After the patient is seen in the ambulatory care setting for the first time to establish care or for an initial consultation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What are routine follow up appointments and how are they used by providers?

A

Regular visits to a clinic on an on-going basis. They are used by providers to monitor the patient’s medical conditions. They’d be ideally used to prevent the development of disease-related complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

To prevent the development of disease-related complications, when should a patient be seen (routine follow up)

A

they should be seen at scheduled intervals on a regular basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What happens during a routine follow up?

A

The provider will evaluate the patient and discuss any changes or ongoing problems, order labs/diagnostic testing, and update medication dosages as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What is an urgent follow up and what happens during these appointments?

A

When a patient is needed to be seen more urgently in a clinic. During these visits, the provider will address more urgent issues like a new symptom, side effects from meds, recent abnormal labs/imaging results, or other urgent concerns.

Referrals may be given so a patient can see a specialist for an initial consultation, the provider may prescribe new medication, change existing medications, or order additional testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What happens if a patient’s complaints are more severe during an urgent follow up appointment?

A

The patient may be referred directly to the ED for a more emergent work up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Patients often need to follow up after _________

A

an acute care visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Where will patients follow up after an acute care visit?

A

They will do this with providers in an ambulatory setting, like their primary care provider and/or other specialists, such as Cardiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What will a provider determine during a follow up after an acute care visit?

A

This is where the provider will determine that the problem which brought the patient to the acute care setting was properly evaluated and tested. The provider will ensure the patient is receiving proper treatment and that their problem is improving, or has resolved. Additional testing or referrals may be given for the patient to follow up with another provider if it is necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What is the history of present illness, HPI?

A

A paragraph or multiple paragraphs further expanding on and describing the patient’s reason for visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Is the HPI objective or subjective?

A

Subjective

It usually comes directly from the patient and/or their family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Since the HPI is subjective….

Two patients come in for cough, but their HPI is

A

unique to the specific patient. One might have watery eyes whereas the other may have scratchy throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Where can patients be seen?

A

In both Acute Care and Ambulatory Settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Will the HPI structure vary based on the healthcare setting?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Although HPI structures vary depending on the healthcare setting, the HPI will begin with what?

A

A specific formatted sentence which will introduce the patient, their age, sex, pertinent history and reason for visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

What is the HPI structure for an Acute Care Setting?

A

Patient is a (AGE) year old (SEX) with a history of (PERTINENT MEDICAL/SURGICAL HISTORY) who…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What is the HPI structure for an Ambulatory Care Setting?

A

(Patient Name) is a (Age) year old (Sex) with a history of (Pertinent Medical/Surgical History) who…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What is the difference between the HPI structure in an acute care setting and an ambulatory care setting?

A

In an acute care setting, HPI begins with just PATIENT whereas in an ambulatory care setting the HPI begins with the patients first and last name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

What is an example of the HPI structure in an acute care setting?

A

Patient is 16 years old male with a history of asthma who presents to the ED with complaints of…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What is an example of the HPI structure in an ambulatory care setting?

A

Donald Duck is a 16 year old male with a history of asthma who presents to the Primary Care Clinic with complaints of…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What is an example of a HPI structure in an acute care setting?

A

Patient is 53 year old female with a history of hypertension and COPD who presents to the ED for a medication refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What is an example of a HPI structure in an ambulatory care setting?

A

Daisy Duck is a 53 year old female with a history of hypertension and COPD who presents to the Primary Care Clinic for a routine follow up visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What are the reasons that a patient would present for an evaluation at an acute care setting?

A
  • Acute complaint
  • Medication refill
  • Sent in by another provider
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What are the reasons that a NEW patient would present for an evaluation at an ambulatory care setting?

A
  • To establish care
  • To establish care &&& Acute Complaint
  • Initial consultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What are the reasons that an ESTABLISHED patient would present for an evaluation at an acute care setting?

A
  • Acute complaint
  • [MEDICAL CONDITION] routine follow up
  • [MEDICAL CONDITION] urgent follow up
  • Follow-up after ED visit or hospitalization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What is an acute complaint?

A

A new symptom or problem the patient would like evaluated by a healthcare provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What are the 8 elements used to describe an acute complaint?

A

You’d use a mnemonic, SCRATCH-MD for the 8 elements.

Severity
Context
Region/Radiation
Associated Symptoms
Timing
Character
History
Modifying Factors
Duration/Onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What is severity?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Refers to the intensity of the complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

How is severity reported?

A

Mild, moderate or severe
On a scale of 1 - 10/10

EX:

She grades her pain as a 6/10

Her pain is MILD and improves with certain position changes

Patient’s abdominal pain is currently a 5/10, but was an 8/10 after eating this morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

How is severity commonly documented?

A

Using the number scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

When documenting severity, HPI rarely used the term ____ in the HPI?

A

Severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What is context?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Refers to the circumstances surrounding the acute complaint. Essentially, what the patient was doing when symptoms began or the circumstances that lead to the development of the complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

What is an example of context?

SCRATCH-MD

A
  • Patient was attempting to jump over a fence, but caught her right arm on a piece of metal*, resulting in a laceration to her right forearm.
  • He was mowing the lawn* when his chest pain began.

His shortness of breath began about 10 hours after he arrived home after undergoing a colonoscopy earlier this morning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What is region?
(SCRATCH-MD)

What is Radiation?
(SCRATCH-MD)

R/R are together in the scratch

A

Region: This refers to the location of the body that is affected by the acute complaint

Radiation: to any area on the body besides the primary location that is also affected by the acute complaint

EX: He is complaining of right low back pain which radiates down his right leg to the level of his knee.

…presents with complaints of nonradiating, right upper quadrant abdominal pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What does the term migration?

A

Rare term used is when pain starts in one area and moves into a completely different area of the body and is no longer present in the first area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

What are associated symptoms?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Symptoms the patient reports or denies which are directly related to the acute complaint

EX:
She reports chest pain with associated shortness of breath and nausea

Patient notes associated nausea and 2 episodes of vomiting today, but denies fever or diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What is timing?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Refers to how frequently the acute complaint occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What are the several specific terms used to describe timing?

A
  • Constant
  • Constant and fluctuates with intensity
  • Intermittent
  • Episodes
  • Progressively worsening
  • Resolved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What is constant?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

Acute complaint is there the whole time and doesnt change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What is constant and fluctuates in intensity?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

Acute complaint always present, but gets better and worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

What is intermittent?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

Acute complaint comes and goes. There may be periods of time it does not occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

What is episodes?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

Similar to intermittent, but can be quantified. typically used for vomiting, diarrhea, syncope, and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

What are progressively worsening?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

Acute complaint is becoming worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

What is resolved?

Term used to describe timing from SCRATCH-MD

A

acute complaint has gone away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

What are timing examples?

SCRATCH-MD

A

His abdominal pain is constant and fluctuates in intensity

She reports 3 episodes of vomiting since yesterday

Patient states her pain has been progressively worsening since initial onset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What is character?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Refers to how the patient describes the acute complaint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

What are common terms that a patient may used to characterize an acute complaint?

A
*Dull
Sharp
Stabbing
Aching
Burning
Pressure

EX: Her pain is sharp and fluctuates with intensity

He describes a burning in his right upper quadrant after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

What is history?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Refers to any pertinent past history listed directly in the HPI’s first sentence, as well as any past events or history directly related to the acute complaint such as prior episodes of similar symptoms or other recent evaluations for the current symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

What are examples of history

SCRATCH-MD

A

Patient is 32 year old male with a history of hypertension who…

Patient states *he was seen by his PCP for these symptoms 2 days ago and he was prescribed Penicillin, which he has been compliant with.

She reports a similar episode of pain 2 months ago.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

What is the only element in the HPI that is not included in billing?

A

History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What are Modifying Factors?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Anything the patient does or takes which causes a change (or no change) to their symptoms

These include:

  • Medications/localized treatments
  • Actions (walking, eating, vomiting, etc.)
  • Inaction (no attemmpt was made by the patient to treat the acute complaint)
  • Events (prior urgent care visit, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

What are some examples of Modifying Factors?

SCRATCH-MD

A

Patient reports improvement after taking Tylenol

Her pain is alleviated by sitting

His sore throat is *worse with swallowing, though he notes some relief from drinking hot beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

What is Duration aka Onset?

SCRATCH-MD

A

When the acute complaints began and how long it has been ongoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

What are some examples of Duration?

A

presents to the ED with complaints of upper abdominal pain which began 6 hours ago.

… presents to the ED with complaints of intermittent chest pain for the past 2 weeks

…with complaints of left flank pain which started yesterday afternoonand became worse today.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

When it comes to Duration it is best to be ____ ? (SCRATCH-MD)

A

To be specific - “2 days ago” is more clear than “on monday” Full dates are also a good way to be specific, For example. “Patient has been having pain since her hysterectomy on 2/12/2012)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

What is an example template of how to use t he elements of SCRATCH-MD to construct an acute complaint:

A

[PATIENT/PATIENT NAME] is [AGE year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to ED with complaints of [REGION/TIMING/CHARACTER] [CHIEF COMPLAINT] which began [DURATION/ONSET]. Her pain is… (connect remaining elements directly describing the chief complaint [REGION/RADIATION, CHARACTER, SEVERITY that were not already included in the first sentence). She reports [Modifying Factors]. Patient notes associated [Associated Symptoms]. Patient denies a history of similar pain, but states… [PERTINENT HISTORY specifically related to the complaint, CONTEXT]. Additionally,… (add any info not related to chief complaint, such as social history or other unrelated complaints).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Review an example of an acute complaint using the elemtns of Scratch MD

A

Patient is a 3 year old female with a hisotyr of uterine cancer in 2013 who presents to the ED with complaints of sharp, intermittent epigastic abdominal pain which began 3 days ago. She rates her pain as a 7/10 and reports radiation to the bilateral upper quadrants. She states her pain is worse after eating and unchanged by Tyms. Patient notes associated nausea and one episode of vomiting yesterday though she dnies fever or diarrhea. Patient states she was seen by her pcp at onset, but was not prescribed anything for her symptoms. She denies any notable triggering factors. Additionally, she notes hse has been having difficulty sleeping since shortly before onset, though she believes this to be unrelated to her pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

How does SCRATCH-MD relate to an acute complaint?

A

Patient is a 3 year old female with a
HISTORY
hisotyr of uterine cancer in 2013 who presents to the ED with complaints of

  • CHARACTER* sharp,
  • TIMING* intermittent
  • REGION VARIATION* epigastic abdominal pain which began

DURATION/ONSET 3 days ago.

SEVERITY
She rates her pain as a 7/10 and

REGION/RADIATION
reports radiation to the bilateral upper quadrants. She states

MODIFYING FACTORS
her pain is worse after eating and unchanged by Tyms. Patient notes

  • ASSOCIATED SYMPTOMS* associated nausea and one episode of vomiting yesterday though she dnies fever or diarrhea. Patient states
  • HISTORY* she was seen by her pcp at onset, but was not prescribed anything for her symptoms.

She denies

CONTEXT
any notable triggering factors.
Additionally, she notes has has been having difficulty sleeping since shortly before onset, though she believes this to be unrelated to her pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

What is a medication refill?

A

A visit in an acute care setting where a patient present to request a prescription refill if they are unable to obtain their home medications from their usual provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

What happens during a medication refill visit?

A

The provider will ask and the scribe will document, info directly related to the medication such as info about the patient’s long term medical condition which requires the medication past or current symptoms. As well as past, recent, or ongoing treatments.

The provider will use this info to determine if refilling the patient’s medication is the safest and best course of action to bridge the patient until they can be seen by their usual provider for a longer refill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

What will an HPI template look like in an acute setting for a patient who is requesting a medication refill?

A

Patient is [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to the ED requesting a medication refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

What is an example of what an HPI look like in an acute setting for a patient who is requesting a medication refill?

A

Patient is a 53 year old female with a history of hypertension who presents to the ED requesting a medication refill. She states she ran out of her blood pressure medication, Losartan, 2 days ago. Since then, her blood pressure has been elevated around 165/89. She states her PCP, Dr. Johnson normally refills her medication, but she had to cancel her most recent appointment and she has not followed up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What will an HPI template look like in an acute setting for a patient who is requesting a medication refill?

A

lkk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is a “sent in by another provider” visit?

A

This occurs when a patient seen in the ambulatory care setting has abnormal symptims, vital signs, imaging or testing results which requires an emergent evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What happens in a “sent in by another provider” visit?

A

Patients are sent to an acute care setting for further evaluation.

The provider will ask the patient, family, EMS or anyone present for info on the abnormal findings that caused the patient to be sent in. There may be testing and other results that have already been performed and will included in the HPI. Although this info is technically objective, it lead to the patient being sent into the ED and is considered Context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

What will an HPI template look like in an acute setting for a patient who is sent in by another provider?

A

PATIENT is a [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to the ED sent in by…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

What will an example HPI template look like in an acute setting for a patient who is sent in by another provider?

A

Patient is a 53 year old male with a history of HTN and DM who presents to the ED sent in by his PCP after labs revealed a hemoglobin of 6.2. Patient reports episodes of light headedness and shortness of breath which prompted his visit to his PCP. He denies a history of anemia or prior blood transfusion. He denies any known bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

What happens when patients visit a provider to establish care?

A

A patient is being seen for the first time. The provider will ask patients about their pertinent medical conditions and the circumstances surrounding them: active symptoms, current medications, and most recent testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Where are patients seen to establish care?

A

In the ambulatory care setting such as a primary care clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

What will the HPI outline for an establish care visit?

A

After the provider better understands the medical conditions and circumstances; active symptoms, current meds, and most recent testing

The HPI will outline each medical condition or a specific medical condition in detail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

What is an example of HPI for an establish care visit?

A

Daisy Duck is a 35 year old female with a history of DM and osteoarthritis who presents to the Primary Care Clinic to establish care.

She reports a history of DM and states her sugars are well controlled. She has not had recent labs, but her most recent Hb A1c was 7.8%.

She reports a history of osteoarthritis. Her last DEXA scan was in 2018. She denies recent falls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

What happens during an establish care & acute complaint visit?

A

Patients are seen in the ambulatory care setting, such as in a primary care clinic, to evaluate and monitor conditions long-term and they also have an acute complaint which needs to be evaluated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

What would the HPI in an establish care & acute complaint look like?

A

A combination of an established care template where you detail a chronic condition and the SCRATCH-MD template to outline an acute complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

What would the HPI in an establish care & acute complaint look like?

A

[PATIENT NAME] is a [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents the [SPECIALTY] Clinic to establish care

EX: Daffy Duck is a 75 yr old male with a history of DM who presents to the Primary Care Clinic to establish care.

He states his diabetes was previously monitored by his PCP in florida, but he recently moved here. He is unsure when he last had testing. He is currently on insulin.

He reports numbness and tingling in his bilateral hands which began 6 months ago and has been progressively worsening. He denies weakness. He denies neck pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Where are patients seen for an initial consultation visit?

A

Patients are seen in an ambulatory care setting by a specialist in their field like a Cardiologist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

What happens during an initial consultation visit?

A

The provider will ask many, if not every detail surrounding the patient’s chronic medical condition including: when their symptoms first began, any and all testing and treatments the patient has received, as well as any other details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

How would the template for an HPI look like for an initial consultation?

A

[PATIENT NAME] is a [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to the [SPECIALTY] Clinic for an initial consultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

How would the an example of a HPI look like for an initial consultation?

A

Daffy Duck is a 75 year old male with a history of coronary artery disease who presents to the Cardiology Clinic for an initial consultation.

His CAD was first diagnosed in 2012 after coronary angiogram revealed a 100 percent block of his LAD. His LAD was stented. He was followed by Cardiology in Michigan and states his most recent stress test was last year and was normal. He reports chest pressure and shortness of breath with minimal exertion which began 6 months ago and has been progressively worsening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

When can a patient continue to visit a clinic on a regular, on going basis for routine or urgent follow up?

A

After the patient is seen in the ambulatory care setting for the first time to establish care or for an initial consultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

What will a provider do during a routine follow up?

A

The provider will review and discuss with the patient their previous visit to the office and then discuss any changes that have occurred in the interim between visits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

How would the HPI template look like for a routine follow up?

A

[PATIENT NAME] is a [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to the [SPECIALTY] Clinic for follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

What is an example of how an HPI would look like for a routine follow up?

A

Daffy duck is a 75 year old male with a history of HTN who presents to the Primary Care Clinic for follow up. He was last seen in the clinic on 1/1/1999. At that time, his bloo dpressure had been elevated and lisinopril was increased from 10mg to 20mg.

Today, he states he has been taking the higher dose of lisinopril and his blood pressure has been much better controlled. He denies any side effects.

Since his last visit, he was seen by dermatology and diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

What will patients need to do after an acute care visit?

A

They need to follow up. They will do so with providers in an ambulatory care setting as their primary care provider and/or other specialists, such as Cardiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

What will a provider do during a follow up after an acute care visit?

A

The provider will determine that the problem which brought the patient to the acute care setting was adequately evaluated and treated. The provider will determine if the problem is improving, or has resolved. The provider may also order additional testing or place referrals for the patient to follow up with other providers, if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

What would a HPI template look like for an individual who is receiving a follow up?

A

[Patient Name] is a [AGE] year old [SEX] with a history of [PERTINENT PAST HISTORY] who presents to the [SPECIALTY] Clinic for follow up after being hospitalized at…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

What would a HPI look like for an individual who is receiving a follow up?

A

Daffy Duck is a 75 year old male with a history of HTN who presents to the Primary Care Clinic for follow up after being hospitalized at Wonderland Hospital from 01/01/1999 -01/13/1999 for pneumonia.

He presented to the ED on 1/1/1999 with shortness of breath and chest xray showed pneumonia. He was treated with Levaquin IV and then discharged with azithromycin. He states his symptoms have significantly improved and he no longer has any shortness of breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

What does ROS stand for?

A

It is called Review of Systems
NOT
review of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

What is a ROS?

A

A list of body systems (cardiovascular, neurological, etc.)

Within each body system are common symptoms. The medical provider will ask the patient whether or not they have certain symptoms. The patient will answer “yes” or “no”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

When a provider reviews the symptoms of different body systems, what will the patient respond and what will the scribe do?

A

Patient will respond with yes or no.

The scribe is responsible for documenting all symptoms, positive and negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

What is an example of how a scribe would document the symptoms that a patient has? (ROS)

A

EX:

Ears: Negative for blurry vision
Ears: Negative for ear pain
Gastrointestinal: Positive for nausea. Negative for vomiting or diarrhea.
Neurological: Positive for numbness. Negative for weakness, slurred speech, or seizure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

What is the review of systems meant to be?

A

A quick reference of any symptoms the patient is experiencing and is not experiencing

So the symptoms are also going to be used as a reason for visit or as other symptoms in the HIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

What are some examples of body systems commonly represented in the ROS?

A
  • Superficial
  • Skin
  • Eyes
  • ENMT
  • Respiratory
  • Cardiovascular
  • Gastrointestinal
  • Geintourinary
  • Musculoskeltal
  • Neurological
  • Psychiatric
  • Endocrine
  • Heme/Lymph (Hematologic/Lymphatic)
  • Allergy/Immunologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

What are findings in the ROS section considered….

Objective or Subjective

A

Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

The systems included into the ROS between different EHR vary? True or False

A

True!

Some group Eyes into ENMT and it becomes HEENT (Head, eyes, ears, nose, throat) Others remove Heme/Lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

What are constitutional symptoms?

A

Any symptoms related to the body as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

What are some examples of constitutional symptoms?

A
*Subjective fever
Measured fever
Chills
Sweating
Diaphoresis
Generalized weakness
Fatigue
Malaise
Decreased appetite
Decreased oral intake
Weight gain
Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

What is subjective fever

A

Feeling “hot” or “warm”, but without having measured temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

What is measured fever

A

Temperature that is Greater than 100.4 F or Greater than 38 degree celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

What are chills?

A

Feeling of coldness/ goosebumps occuring during a fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

What is sweating?

A

Abnormal perspiration, typically due to heat or stress, i.e. fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

What is generalized weakness

A

lack of strength throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

How is generalized weakness different from focal weakness?

A

focal weakness is localized to specific body parts and is considered a neurological symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

What is fatigue

A

extreme tiredness, typically caused by systemic stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Malaise

MAH-LAYS

A

generalized discomfort and weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

What is decreased appetite

A

Lacking the desire to eat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

What is decreased oral intake

A

Not eating as much as typically would

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

What is weight gain/ weight loss

A

Weight fluctations; may be intentional or unintentional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

What are common skin symptoms?

A
Urticaria
Rash
Itching
Redness
Ecchymosis
Abrasion
Laceration
Burn
Dryness
Lesion
Jaundice
Cyanosis
Dog bite/Human bite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

What is urticaria

er-tih-care-ee-ya

A

hives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

What is a rash

A

area of irritated or swollen skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

What is itching

A

irritating sensation that prompts scratching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

what is redness

A

focal area of inflammation, characterized by red discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

What is ecchymosis

ECK-EE-MO-SIS

A

Bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

What is abrasion?

A

Scrape in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

What is Laceration

A

Cut in the skin which may require artificial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

What is a burn

A

Damage caused by extreme heat, flame, heated objects, or chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

What is Dryness

A

Decrease in normal lubrication of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

What is Lesion

A

Abnormal lump, bump, ulcer, sore, or colored area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

What is Jaundice

A

yellow discoloration of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

What is cyanosis

sigh-an-oh-sis

A

Bluish cast to the skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

What is animal/human bite

A

area of trauma to the skin caused by a bite from a person or animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

What are breast findings

A

Any finding related to the breasts (ex: pain, lumps, nipple discharge, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Where might breast findings go in another section of the ROS depending on…

A

The EHR being worked in. OTher sections include chest wall or miscallaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

What are symptoms that include the system - eyes?

A
Common eye symptoms: 
Blurred vision
Diplopia
Visual Changes
Eye Pain
Eye Discharge
Mattering
Eye discoloration
Eye foreign body
Excessive tearing
Eyelid Swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

What is blurred vision

A

Loss of sharpness of vision, making objects appear out of focus and hazy affecting the visual field(s)

(Visual field is the entire area that a person is able to see when their eyes are fixed in one position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

What is Diplopia

“dih-plo-pee-ah”

A

Simultaneous perception of two images, affecting the visual field(s)

This term is aka “double vision”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

What is visual changes

A

Only used as a negative to deny any changes to vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

When visual changes are present, what terms should you use

A

use the specific term diplopia or blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

What is eye pain

A

pain in the eye(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

What is eye discharge

A

drainage from the eye(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

What is mattering

A

mucus, oil, skin cells and other debris that accumulates in the eye(s) that can be wet/sticky or dry/ crusty

Often associated with bacterial infections of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

What is eye discoloration

A

Any color change to the white part of the eye(s)

Eye color change can indicate many things like infection (injected conjunctiva) liver failure (icterus) or anemia (pale conjunctiva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

What is eye foreign body

A

Sensation of or actual foreign object in the eye(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

What is excessive farting

A

Excessive water from eye(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

What is eyelid swelling

A

Puffiness of the eyelid(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

What are symptoms related to the ears, nose, mouth, and throat?
ENMT??

A

Common ENMT Symptoms:

Ear Pain
Ear Discharge
Tinnitus
Decreased Hearing
Hearing loss
Nasal congestion
Rhinorrhea
Epistaxis
Mouth Pain
Dental Pain
Tongue Swelling
Oral lesions
Bleeding gums
Dry mouth
Sore throat/throat pain
Difficulty swallowing
Throat swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Ear Pain

A

Pain the ear(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

What is ear discharge

A

discharge from the ear(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

What is tinnitus

A

Ringing in the ear(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

What is decreased hearing

A

diminished hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

What is hearing loss

A

Inability to hear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

What is nasal congestion

A

Congestion in the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

What is rhinnorhea

ri-nor-ee-ah

A

Drainage from the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Post nasal drip meaning

A

mucus draining down the back of the throat that often causes cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

What is epistaxis

ep-ih-stacks-is

A

Nose bleed from one or both nares (nostils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

What is mouth pain

A

Pain of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

What is dental pain

A

Pain related to or caused by teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

What is tongue swelling

A

Tongue larger than in size than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

What is tounge swelling associated with…

A

Allergic reactions and a dangerous condition called angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

What are Oral lesions

A

Sore that occurs on the mucous membrane of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

What are bleeding gums

A

Abnormal bleeding from the gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

What is dry mouth

A

Lack of natural lubrication of the oral mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

What is sore throat/ throat pain

A

Pain in the throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

What is throat swelling

A

Inflammation of the throat, causing irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

What are symptoms related to the lungs and breathing?

BODY SYSTEM: Respiratory

A
Common respiratory symptoms: 
Dyspnea/ Shortness of breath
Orthopnea
Cough
Hemoptysis
Sputum Production
Wheezing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

What is Dyspnea -

Disp-nee-ah

A

Difficulty breathing
Shortness of Breath

BTW - NEVER RIGHT “SOB” in a patient’s chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

What is orthopnea

or-throp-nee-ah

A

Difficulty breathing when lying flat

It is often associated with chronic respiratory conditions. Patients may report using multiple pillows to prop themselves up while they sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

Cough - definition

A

Sudden repetitive reflex which helps to clear the breathing passages from irritants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

What is hemoptysis

hee-mop-tih-sis

A

Coughing up blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

What is sputum production

A

Material produced from the respiratory tract when coughing

Sputum is a synonym for phlegm or mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

What is wheezing

A

Whistling sound heard when breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

What are symptoms related to the cardiac and circulatory systems
BODY SYSTEM: Cardiovascular

A

Common Cardiovascular symptoms:

Chest pain
Palpitations
Syncope
Diaphoresis
Peripheral Edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

What is chest pain?

A

Discomfort in the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

How may chest pain be characterized

A

Sharp, crushing, dull, burning, pressure, tightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

What are palpitations

A

Feeling a rapid, strong, irregular, or fluttering heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

What is syncope

sin-cuh-pee

A

Fainting, or a sudden temporary loss of consciousness

(It is typically caused by lack of blood flow to the brain which is why it is documented in Cardiovascular, not neurological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

What is diaphoresis

Di-ah-for-ee-sis

A

Excessive, heavy sweating

( This is different from pathological sweating in that it is often accompanied by cardiac complaints, therefore it is documented in Cardiovascular. )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

What is peripheral edema

A

swelling due to excessive fluid collecting in the tissues, typically in the legs

(this often affects the legs, leading scribes to think it is a musculoskeletal symptom. However, edema is caused by excess fluid in the blood, making it a cardiovascular symptom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

What are common symptoms that are related to the digestive tract / gastrointestinal symptoms:

A
Abdominal pain
>Pelvic pain
>Flank pain
Nausea
Vomiting
Post-tussive emsis
Hematemesis
Diarrhea
Hematochezia
Melena
Constipation
Dysphagia
Rectal Bleeding
Rectal Pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

Abdominal Pain

A

Pain in the abdomen, in any of the quadrants or regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

Pelvic Pain

A

Pain in the pelvic region, typically in female patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
411
Q

Flank pain

A

Pain in the flank(s)

Typically caused by kidney pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
412
Q

Nausea

A

Uneasiness of the stomach that often precedes vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
413
Q

Emesis

em-eh-sis

A

Throwing up the contents of the stomach

Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
414
Q

Post-tussive emesis

A

Throwing up after coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
415
Q

Hematemesis

Hee-mah-te-ma-sis

A

Vomiting blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
416
Q

Diarrhea

A

Loose or water stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
417
Q

Hematochezia

hee-mah-to-kees-ya

A

Bright, red blood in the stool

Sign of a lower GI bleed

Often omitted from the HPI in favor of the more general “bloody bowel movements”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
418
Q

Melena

Meh-leh-na

A

Dark black, tarry stool

Sign of an upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
419
Q

Constipation definition

A

Infrequent bowel movements, typically with small hard stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
420
Q

Dysphagia

dis-fay-zuh

A

Difficulty swallowing

This refers to esophagus NOT ENMT - making it more accurate to record it as a gastrointestinal symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
421
Q

Rectal bleeding

A

Bleeding from the anus, typically with bowel movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
422
Q

Rectal pain

A

Pain at or near the end portion of the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
423
Q

What are the symptoms that are related to the kidneys, bladder, urination, and genitals?

GENITOURINARY - BODY SYSTEM

A
  • Dysuria
  • Hematuria
  • Urinary Incontinence
  • Urinary Frequency
  • Urinary Urgency
  • Urinary Retention
  • Nocturia
  • Vaginal Bleeding
  • Vaginal Discharge
  • Metrorrhagia
  • Genital lesions
  • Testicular Pain
  • Penile Pain
  • Penile Discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
424
Q

Dysuria

dis-ur-ee-ah

A

painful or burning urination

this is the catch-all term for any kind of discomfort with urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
425
Q

What is hematuria?

“hee-mah-ter-ee-ah”

A

Blood in the Urine making it pink or red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
426
Q

Urinary incontinence

A

Involuntary leakage of urine

(This can be both a Neurological and Genintourinary symptom. Deciding where it goes in the ROS depend son the context and other associated symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
427
Q

What is urinary frequency

A

Needing to urinate more often than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
428
Q

What is urinary urgency

A

A sudden compelling urge to urinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
429
Q

What is urinary retention

A

Inability to fully empty bladder

This affects men more often than women due to prostate enlargement that comes with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
430
Q

Nocturia

A

Waking up to urinate at night

“nock-ter-ee-ah”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
431
Q

Vaginal Bleeding

VB

A

Bleeding from the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
432
Q

Vaginal Discharge

A

Abnormal discharge from the vagina

May be discolored or malodorous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
433
Q

Metrorrhagia

(meh-troh-rah-zah)

(THIS IS DIFF THAN MENORRHAGIA)

A

Irregular menstrual periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
434
Q

What are gential lesions

A

Sores on or around the genital area including the vulva, penis and scrotum

Typically caused by STIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
435
Q

Testicular pain

A

pain in the testicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
436
Q

Scrotal swelling

A

Swelling of the scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
437
Q

Penile pain

A

Pain of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
438
Q

Penile discharge

A

Discharge from the urethra of a penis; may be discolored or malodorous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
439
Q

Any symptoms relating to the MUSCLES AND BONES

BODY SYSTEM: Musculoskeletal

A

Common musculoskeletal symptoms:

  • Back pain
  • Neck pain
  • Myalgias
  • Arthalgias
  • Extremity pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
440
Q

Back pain

A

Pain in the thorarcic and/or lumbar regions of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
441
Q

Neck pain

A

Pain localized to the cervical region of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
442
Q

Myalgias

my-al-gahs

A

Diffuse muscle pain

  • This is sometimes recorded as part of the constitutional symptoms when reported in addition to fever and the like -
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
443
Q

Cephalgia

Neurological

A

Headache; pain within the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
444
Q

Arthralgias

“are-thuh-ral-guhs”

A

Pain in the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
445
Q

Extremity Pain

A

Pain localized to the extremities; right, left, or bilateral ; upper or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
446
Q

BODY SYSTEM: Neurological
Any symptoms relating to the brain and nerves…
Common neurological symptoms?

A
Common neurological symptoms: 
*Headache
*Photophobia
*Phonophobia
*Dizziness
>Lightheadedness
>Rotational
*Aletered level of consciousness
*Numbeness
*Tingling
*Weakness
*Seizure
*Dysarthria
*Dysphasia
*Bowel/bladder incontinence
*Saddle anesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
447
Q

Photophobia

A

Sensitivity to the light

(This is commonly associated with headaches and migraines. It is actually a Neurological symptom, but is frequently recorded in EYES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
448
Q

Phonophobia

A

Sensitivity to sound

(Commonly associated with headaches and migraines. It is actually a NEUROLOGICAL Symptom, but is frequently recorded in Ears)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
449
Q

Dizziness

Neurological Symptom

A

Feeling close to passing out

(This is sorted into two categories; lighteaded and rotational. If the patient is unsure how their dizziness is making them feel, then they are experiencing general dizziness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
450
Q

What is rotational dizziness

Neurological symptom

A

Feeling like the room is spnning

(Dizziness is sorted into 2 categories: lighthead and rotational. If the patient is unsure how their dizziness is making them feel, then they are experiencing general dizziness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
451
Q

Altered level of consciousness
(ALOC)

Altered mental status
(AMS)

(NEUROLOGICAL BODY SYSTEM)

A

Any measure of responsiveness other than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

Numbness

NEUROLOGICAL

A

Loss of sensation or feeling a part of the body

Numbness + Tingling = Paresthesias “pare-uh-stee-zuhs”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
453
Q

What is tingling

NEUROLOGICAL

A

Slight pricking sensation, similar to “pins and needles”

Numbness + tingling = Paresthesias
“Pare-uh-stee-zuhs”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
454
Q

What is focal weakness?

A

Lack of strength in a focal part of the body; right, left, or bilateral; upper or lower

(Focal weakness in one side of the body is characteristic of a stroke)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
455
Q

What is a seizure

NEUROLOGICAL SYMPTOMS

A

Convulsions, sensory disturbances, or loss of consciousness resulting from abnormal elctrical discharges in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
456
Q

What is dysarthria
(dis-are-three-uh)

(NEUROLOGICAL)

A

Speech that is slow, and difficult to understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
457
Q

What is dysphasia
“dis-fay-zuh”

Not confused with the term dysphagia which means difficulty swallowing. Thy are pronounced similarly.

A

An impairment or difficulty with expression through speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
458
Q

Aphasia
“ay-fay-zuh’
(NEUROLOGICAL SYMPTOM)

A

Inability to communicate through writing or speech; may improve with time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
459
Q

Bowel/urinary incontinence

NEUROLOGICAL

A

Loss of bowel or bladder control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
460
Q

Saddle anesthesia

NEUROLOGICAL

A

Numbness specifically in the groin a.k.a. the area of the body that comes into contact with a horse’s saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
461
Q

BODY SYSTEM: Psychiatric
Any symptoms related to how patients feel and interact with others….
What are some common psychiatric symptoms?

A
Common psychiatric symptoms: 
Anxiety
Depression
Mania
Suicidal Ideation
Homicidal Ideation
Auditory or Visual Hallucinations
Insomnia
Substance abuse
Eating Disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
462
Q

Anxiety

PSYCHIATRIC

A

Feelings of worry and stress that is out of proportion to the impact of the event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
463
Q

Depression

PSYCHIATRIC

A

Persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
464
Q

Mania
“may-nee-uh”

PSYCHIATRIC

A

Excitement manifested by mental and physical hyperactivity, disorganization of behavior, and elevation of mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
465
Q
Suicidal Ideation (SI)
(PSYCHIATRIC)
A

Thoughts of harming oneself

(If suicidal ideation is mentioned in the ROS, homicidal ideation must alos be addressed, regardless of if it is positive or negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
466
Q

What is homicidal ideation
(HI)
(PSYCHIATRIC)

A

thoughts of harming others

(if homicidal ideation is mentioned in the ROS, suicidal ideation must also be addressed, regardless of it is positive or negative. )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
467
Q

AUDITORY Hallucinations

Visual Hallucinations

(PSYCHIATRIC)

A

Hearing or seeing things that are not there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
468
Q

Insomnia

PSYCHIATRIC

A

Persistent problems falling and staying asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
469
Q

Substance Abuse

PSYCHIATRIC

A

The excessive use of a mind- altering substance, such as drugs of alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
470
Q

Eating Disorders

PSYCHIATRIC

A

Serious disturbances in eating behaviors, such as starving oneself or binge eating then purging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
471
Q

BODY SYSTEM: Endocrine
Any system related to the endocrine system

COMMON ENDOCRINE SYMPTOMS:

A
Common endocrine symptoms:
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Polyphagia
Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Heat/Cold intolerance
Hirsutism
Alopecia
Hot Flashes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
472
Q

Polyuria

Pall-ee-ur-ee-uh

A

Excessive urination

an endocrine symptom (versus genitourinary) because it is almost always a result of hyperglycemia related to diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
473
Q

What is polydipsia
“Pall-ee-dip-see-uh”
(ENDOCRINE)

A

Excessive thirst

(Polydipsia is an endocrine symptom (versus gastro intestinal) because it is almost always a result of hyperglycemia related to diabetes.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
474
Q

What is polyphagia
“Pall-ee-fay-zuh”
(ENDOCRINE)

A

Excessive hunger

(Polyphagia is an endocrine symptom (vs. gastrointestinal) because it is almost always a result of hyperglycemia related to diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
475
Q

What is hyperglycemia

ENDOCRINE

A

Abnormally elevated blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
476
Q

What is Hypoglycemia

ENDOCRINE

A

Abnormally low blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
477
Q

What is heat intolerance / cold intolerance

ENDOCRINE

A

Inability to tolerate heat or cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
478
Q

What is hirsutism?
“hur-suh-ti-zm”
(ENDOCRINE)

A

Male pattern hair growth, typically affecting women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
479
Q

Alopecia
“Al-oh-pee-shuh”
(ENDOCRINE)

A

Hair loss from the scalp or elsewhere on the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
480
Q

What are hot flashes

ENDOCRINE

A

A sudden, brief sensation of heat usually associated with menopausal endocrine imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
481
Q

BODY SYSTEM: Hematologic/ Lymphatic
Any symptoms relating to the blood or immune system

Common hematologic/lympathic symptoms:

A

Common hematologic/ lymphatic symptoms:

  • Bleeding tendency
  • Bruising tendency
  • Petechiae
  • Swollen lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
482
Q

Bleeding tendency

Hematologic

A

Abnormal amounts of bleeding

May be caused by blood thinning medications or clotting disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
483
Q

Bruising tendency

Hematologic

A

Easy bruising, typically caused by clotting disorders or blood thinning medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
484
Q

Petechiae

Hematologic

A

Small red or purple spots caused by bleeding into the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
485
Q

Swollen lymph nodes

Hematologic

A

Swelling of the lymph nodes, typically of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
486
Q

BODY SYSTEM:
Allergy/ Immunologic

Any symptoms relating to the immune system
Common allergy/ immunologic symptoms:

A

Common allergy/ immunologic symptoms:

  • Seasonal allergies
  • Food allergies
  • Recurrent infections
  • Impaired immunity
  • Immunosuppressive therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
487
Q

Seasonal allergies

ALLERGY / IMMUNOLOGIC

A

Allergies that result from exposure to airborne substances that appear only during certain times of the year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
488
Q

Food allergies

ALLERGY / IMMUNOLOGIC

A

Allergies that result from exposure to or ingestion of any number of foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
489
Q

What are recurrent infections?

ALLERGY / IMMUNOLOGIC

A

Infections that are too great in number (>2/ year), too severe, or too long lasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
490
Q

What is impaired immunity

ALLERGY / IMMUNOLOGIC

A

An immune system that cannot effectively defend the host

May be caused by illness, medications, or substance use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
491
Q

What is immuno-suppressive therapy?

ALLERGY / IMMUNOLOGIC

A

Drugs that inhibit or prevent activity of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
492
Q

What will a provider ask their patients and what is the medical scribe’s job to record?

A

They will ask their patients their reason for visit, associated symptoms as well as other symptoms.

It is the scribe’s job to document these symptoms in the ROS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
493
Q

When a provider asks a patient about the same symptoms, we already have…

A

a templated ROS which already has symptoms listed as “Negative”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
494
Q

What is it a scribes job to do when using a templated ROS that already has information documented as negative?

A

To change the symptoms the patient says that they are experiencing to “Positive” as ell as add any additional “Negative” symptoms to the ROS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
495
Q

Review of systems with Negative symptoms:

A

Constitutional: Negative for fever or chills
Skin: Negative for rash or open wounds
Eyes: Negative for blurred vision or double vision
ENMT: Negative for sore throat, ear pain, or rhinorrhea
Respiratory: Negative for shortness of breath or coughing
Cardiovascular: Negative for chest pain or palpitations
Gastrointestinal: Negative for nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal pain
Genitourinary: Negative for dysuria or hematuria
Musculoskeletal: Negative for back pain, joint pain, or joint swelling
Neurological: Negative for headache, dizziness, weakness, numbness, or tingling
Psychiatric: Negative for suicidal or homicidal ideations. Negative for auditory or visual hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
496
Q

Completed Review of Systems

A

Constitutional: Positive for fever and chills
Skin: Negative for rash or open wounds
Eyes: Negative for blurred vision or double vision
ENMT: Negative for sore throat, ear pain, or rhinorrhea
Respiratory: Negative for shortness of breath or coughing
Cardiovascular: Negative for chest pain or palpitations
Gastrointestinal: Positive for nausea and vomiting. Negative for dysuria or hematuria
Musculoskeletal: Negative back pain, joint pain, or joint swelling
Neurological: Positive for headache. Negative for dizziness, weakness, numbness or tinging.
Psychiatric: Negative for suicidal or homicidal ideations. Negative for auditory or visual hallucinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
497
Q

What does the past histories section of a patient’s note include

A

The patient’s past medical + surgical, family, and social histories.
Each section contains specific information:

Past medical history: Chronic long term conditions, surgeries and procedures

Family History: Immediate family members with chronic conditions

Social History: Tobacco use, alcohol use, employment, living status, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
498
Q

What does past medical history or PHMx refer to?

A

This refers to the patient’s long term diagnosed medical conditions

EX: 
Hypertension
Hyperlipidemia
GERD
History of breast cancer Recurrent UTIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
499
Q

Is past medical history objective or subjective?

A

Subjective, although we also include info in this section from sources other than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
500
Q

What is past surgical history?

A

The patient’s prior medical procedures and surgeries. It is considered part of Past Medical History, but is often documented separately.

EX:
Coronary artery bypass Graft (CABG) - heart “bypass” surgery
Hysterectomy - removal of the uterus
Colonoscopy - Exploration of the rectum, colon, and lower gastrointesntinal tract by camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
501
Q

Is the Past Surgical History objective or subjective?

A

Subjective, although we also include info in this section from sources other than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
502
Q

What is past family history or PFHx?

A

This refers to long-term, diagnosed medical conditions that affect a patient’s immediate family members ( grandparents, parents, and siblings)

EX:
Father has hypertension
Mother died of myocardial infarcation ( age 45 )
Brother has diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
503
Q

Is past family history PFHx objective or subjective?

A

This is subjective although we also include infoamtion in this section from sources other than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
504
Q

What does past social history refer to?

A

The patient’s social status and habits that may affect their medical history

EX: 
Tobacco use
Alcohol use
Illicit drug use
Marital status
Employment status
Living situation
Activity level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
505
Q

Is past social history objective or subjective?

A

Subjective, although we also include info in this section from sources other than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
506
Q

What are Allergies?

A

A record of reactions to medications and foods that a patient has experienced previously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
507
Q

What are home medications?

A

a record of all medications a patient takes at home on a regular basis

Ex:

  • Medication: 50mg Zoloft, Instructions: Take 1 capsule every morning
  • Allergy: penicillin, Start date: 1/1/2042 Severity: severe, Reaction: rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
508
Q

While patient allergies and home meds are recorded in the history section of the EHR…. it is not the responsibility of the scribe to

A

document them into the chart. Although you should still pay attn when a patient is asked about them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
509
Q

What can listening to the medications a patient takes tell the scribes?

A

More info about their medical history than what the patient reports themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
510
Q

What are Medical Conditions and Diseases?

A

Afflictions of the body or mind which negatively affect a patient’s life and well-being. These conditions and diseases require the diagnosis of a medical provider. Once they have been diagnosed, the conditions and diseased become part of the patient’s past medical history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
511
Q

How are the 13 body systems broken down?

A
Cardiovascular
Electrophysiological
Endocrine
HEENT
Gastrointestinal
Genitourinary
Hematologic
Immunologic
Integumentary
Musculoskeletal
Neurological
Psychiatric
Respiratory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
512
Q

How are the 13 body systems broken down?

A
Cardiovascular
Electrophysiological
Endocrine
HEENT
Gastrointestinal
Genitourinary
Hematologic
Immunologic
Integumentary
Musculoskeletal
Neurological
Psychiatric
Respiratory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
513
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the heart or blood vessels?

A

Common type of cardiovascular conditions and diseases:

Cardiac Diseases
Electrical Conduction Deficits
Ischemic Injuries
Vascular Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
514
Q

What are some heart conditions that include diseased vessels, structural problems, and blood clots?

A
Cardiomegaly
Cardiomyopathy
Endocarditis
Heart Failure
Heart murmur
Pericarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
515
Q

What is cardiomegaly?

A

An enlarged heart, which is usually a sign of another condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
516
Q

What is a common treatment for cardiomegaly?

A

Treatment of the underlying condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
517
Q

What is cardiomyopathy?

A

An acquired or hereditary disease of the heart muscle which makes it more difficult for the heart to pump blood and can lead to heart failyre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
518
Q

What is a common treatment for cardiomyopathy?

A

antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
519
Q

What is endocarditis?

A

An infection of the heart’s inner lining (endocardium), usually involving the heart valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
520
Q

What is a common treatment for endocarditis?

A

Antibiotics, valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
521
Q

What is heart failure?

Abbreviations: HFpEF, CHF

A

A chronic condition in which the heart doesn’t fill with or pump blood as well as it should

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
522
Q

What are common treatments for heart failure?

A

Lasix, Digoxin, Antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
523
Q

What are heart murmurs?

A

Sounds of blood flowing through the heart, due to a disease heart valve or other abnormality. One very common murmur is caused by a disease called aortic stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
524
Q

What is a common treatment for heart murmurs?

A

Surgical repair, anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
525
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Swelling and irritation of the sac around the heart (pericardium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
526
Q

What are common treatments for pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
527
Q

What are the two terms that identify with a problem with the electrical system that makes your heart beat and controls its rate and rhythm?

A
  • Atrial Fibrillation

* Supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
528
Q

Who would typically manage atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Cardiologist, although if they have severe symptoms, they may be referred to an electrophysiologist, a physician studies electrical conduction defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
529
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A-fib

A

An irregular, often rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and increased risk of clots.

“Irregularly, irregular rhythm”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
530
Q

What are common treatments for atrial fibrillation?

A

Beta-blockers, anticoagulants, ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
531
Q

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

SVT

A

A faster than normal heart rate beginning above the heart’s two lower chambers ( ventricles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
532
Q

What are common treatments for supraventricular tahcycardia?

A

Adenosine

electrical cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
533
Q

What are the terms that relate to damage to the heart of vasculature due to the lack of blood flow?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Aortic Dissection
Myocardial Infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
534
Q

What is abdominal aortic aneurysm?

Abreviation: AAA

A

An enlargement of the aorta at the level of the abdomen. Dissection (spontaneous tear) of any aneurysm is very dangeous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
535
Q

What is a common treatment for abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
536
Q

What is an aortic dissection?

A

A spontaneous tear in the inner layer of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
537
Q

What are common treatments for aortic dissection?

A

Beta blockers and surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
538
Q

What is a myocardial infarction?

Abbreviation MI

A

A blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle (myocardium) resulting in areas of cell death

Also known as Heart Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
539
Q

What are common treatments for myocardial infarction?

A

Cardiac stenting, bypass grafting, antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
540
Q

What are terms that relate to any abnormal condition of the blood vessels ( arteries and veins).

A
Aortic stenosis
Atherosclerosis
Cornoary Artery Disease
Deep vein thombosis
Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension
Peripheral Vascular Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
541
Q

What is aortic stenosis?

A

The narrowing of the valve in the aorta, which restricts blood flow out from the heart to the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
542
Q

What are common treatments for aortic stenosis?

A

Aortic valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
543
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

A disease of the arteries characterized by the deposition of plaques of fatty material on their inner walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
544
Q

What are common treatments for atherosclerosis?

A

Diet and exercise, statins, possible surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
545
Q

What is coronary artery disease?

Abbreviation: CAD

A

A coronary artery disease is a damage or disease in the heart’s major blood vessels. It is a complication of atherosclerosis in which plaque builds up in the arteries of the heart, putting the patient at risk for a heart attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
546
Q

What are common treatments for CAD?

A

Cardiac Stenting, CABG, Statins, Antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
547
Q

What is a deep vein thrombosis?

DVT

A

A blood clot in a deep (further from the surface) vein, usually in the legs, that restricts normal blood flow through the veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
548
Q

What are common treatments for deep vein thrombosis?

A

Blood thinners, embolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
549
Q

What is hyperlipidemia aka dyslipidemia aka high cholesterol?
(Abbreviation: HLD)

A

A condition in which there are high levels of fat particles (lipids) in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
550
Q

What are common treatments for hyperlipidemia?

A

Statins and other cholesterol medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
551
Q

What is hypertension?

Abbreviation: HTN

A

A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
552
Q

What are common treatments for hypertension?

A

Antihypertensives and diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
553
Q

What is a peripheral vascular disease?

Abbreviation: PVD

A

A circulatory condition in which narrowed blood vessels reduce blood flow to the limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
554
Q

What are common treatments to peripheral vascular disease?

A

Statins, vasodilators, blood thinners, angioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
555
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the heart and are specifically seen on electrocardiograms (EKGs)?

A

Common types of electrophysiological conditions and diseases:

Axis Changes
Interval Changes
QRS Complex Changes
ST Segment Changes
T-wave Changes
Ectopic Beats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
556
Q

What are terms related to abnormal changes of the QRS axis on the electrocardiogram?

A

Left axis deviation
Right axis deviation
Indeterminate axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
557
Q

What is left axis deviation?

Abbreviation: LAD

A

A condition where in the electrical axis of ventricular contraction of the heart has a leftward shit as a result of the left-sided heart problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
558
Q

What are common treatments for left axis deviation?

A

Treatment of the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
559
Q

What is right axis deviation?

Abbreivation RAD

A

A condition where in the electrical axis of ventricular contraction of the heart has a rightward shift as a result of the right-sided heart problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
560
Q

What is a common treatment for right axis deviation?

A

Treatment of the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
561
Q

What is an indeterminate axis?

Also known as Northwest Axis

A

A condition wherein the electrical axis of ventricular contraction of the heart has an indeterminate shift between the angle of right and left deviations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
562
Q

What are common treatments for the indeterminate axis?

A

Treatment of the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
563
Q

What are terms related to any abnormal changes of the intervals of the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram?

A
  • Prolonged QT interval
  • Firs degree AV block
  • Interventricular conduction delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
564
Q

What is a prolonged QT interval?

Also known as Long QT

A

It is an electrical seen on an EKG when the heart takes longer than normal to recharge between beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
565
Q

What are common treatments for prolonged QT intervals?

A

Antiarrhythmics, beta blockers, pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
566
Q

What is a first degree av block?

aka first degree heart block

A

This occurs when conduction through the AV node is slowed thus delaying the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, marked by a prolonged PR interval on an ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
567
Q

What are common treatments for a first degree av block?

A

No necessary treament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
568
Q

What is an inter-ventricular conduction delay?
AKA In complete right bundle branch block
(Abbreivation - IVCD )

A

A slight widening of the QRS complex caused by a delay in the contractions between the right and left ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
569
Q

What are terms related to any other abnormal changes of the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram?

A
  • Poor R-wave progression
  • Left bundle branch block
  • Right bundle branch block
  • Left anterior fascicular block
  • Left ventricular hyptertophy
  • Q-waves
  • Low-voltage QRS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
570
Q

What is Poor R-wave progression?

A

This is caused by the absense of the normal increase in the size of the R-Wave while advancing through the precordial leads (V1-V6) of the EKG

(REFER TO PHOTO Slide number 38 - MSA 103B Medical Conditions and Diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
571
Q

What is a left bundle branch block?

Abbreviation - LBBB

A

A delay or blockage of electrical impulses to the left side of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
572
Q

What are common treatments for a left bundle branch block?

A

treatment of underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
573
Q

What is a right bundle branch block?

Abbreviation: RBBB

A

A delay or blockage of electrical impulses to the right side of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
574
Q

What are common treatments for right bundle branch block?

A

Treatment of underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
575
Q

What is a left anterior fascicular block?

Abbreviation - LAFB

A

This occurs when the anterior fascicle of the left bundle branch no longer able to conduct electrical impulses to the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
576
Q

What are common treatments for a left anterior fascicular block?

A

Treatment of underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
577
Q

What is a left ventricular hypertrophy?

Abbreviation: LVH

A

The pathological enlargement of the muscle of the left ventricle. Electrical changes can be seen on an EKG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
578
Q

What are common treatments for left ventricular hypertrophy?

A

Antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
579
Q

What are Q-Waves?

A

Initially negative deflections of the QRS complex. When they are pathologic, they indicate the presence of a past or on-going heart attack.

(Photo has a wave going into the negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
580
Q

What are common treatments for Q-waves?

A

treatment for underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
581
Q

What is a low-voltage QRS?

A

This is caused by a decrease in voltage in ventricular contraction which leads to peak-to-peak amplitude differences between QRS peaks on the EKG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
582
Q

What are common treatments for low-voltage QRS?

A

Treatment of underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
583
Q

What are terms related to any abnormal changes of the ST segment on an electrocardiogram?

A
  • ST Depression
  • ST elevation
  • Early repolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
584
Q

What is ST depression?

A

This occurs when the J point is displaced below the baseline.

(See photo of a J Point on a graph) (#46 Medical Conditions and diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
585
Q

What is ST depression?

A

This occurs when the J point is displaced below the baseline.

(See photo of a J Point on a graph) (#46 Medical Conditions and diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
586
Q

What is ST elevation?

A

This occurs when the ST segment is abnormally high above the baseline. This is most commonly associated with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
587
Q

What are common treatments for ST elevation?

A

Antihypertensives, cardiac catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
588
Q

What is early repolarization?

A

A term used classically for ST segment elevation without underlying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
589
Q

What are common treatments for early repolarization?

A

None unless patient develops complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
590
Q

What are terms relate to any abnormal changes of the t-wave on an electrocardiogram?

A

T-wave inversion

T-wave flattening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
591
Q

What is a T-wave?

A

The EKG manifestation of ventricular repolarization of the cardiac electrical cycle and is usually a “bump” after the QRs complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
592
Q

What is a T-wave inversion?

A

T-waves that are upside down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
593
Q

What are common treatments for t-waves?

A

Treatment for underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
594
Q

What is T-wave flattening?

A

Occurs when the T-wave becomes flatter, but it is not inverted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
595
Q

What are common treatments for T-wave flattening?

A

Treatment for underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
596
Q

What are terms related to any abnormal changes of the ST segment on an electrocardiogram?

A
  • Premature atrial contraction

* Premature ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
597
Q

What is a premature atrial contraction?

Abbreviation PAC

A

A premature heartbeatt hat occurs in the atria and can cause palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
598
Q

What are common treatments for premature atrial contraction?

A

Treatment of underlying causes, lifestyle changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
599
Q

What is a premature ventricular contraction?

Abbreviation PVC

A

A premature heartbeat that occurs in the ventricles and can cause palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
600
Q

What are common treatments for Premature ventricular contraction?

A

Antiarrhythmics, treatment of the underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
601
Q

What are terms related to diseases that occur when the system responsible for hormone secretion regulation does not function properly?

A

Hypothyroidism
Diabetes
Diabetic Ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
602
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

A condition in which the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
603
Q

What are common treatments for hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

Liothyronine (T3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
604
Q

What is diabetes?

A

This refers to a group of diseases that result in high blood glucose. There are different types, including diabetes mellitus types I and II, diabetes insipidus, and gestational diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
605
Q

What are common treatments for diabetes?

A

Oral medications, insulin, and lifestyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
606
Q

What is a diabetic ketoacidosis?

Abbreviation DKA

A

A complication from diabetes where the body produces excess blood acids (ketones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
607
Q

What are common treatments for Diabetic ketacidosis?

A

Fluid replacement, insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
608
Q
What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the HEENMT?
(Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Mouth, Throat.... think top of head moving down...)
A
Head conditions
Eye conditions
Ear conditions
Nose conditions
Mouth Conditions
Throat Conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
609
Q

What are conditions affecting the structures of the head?

A

Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
610
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

A condition in which the cavities around the nasal passages become inflamed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
611
Q

What are common treatments for sinusitis?

A

Nasal washing, decongestants, steroids, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
612
Q

What are conditions affecting the globe of the eyes?

A

Conjunctivitis
Glaucoma
Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
613
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

An inflammation or infection of the outer membrane of the eyeball and the inner eyelid (conjunctiva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
614
Q

What are common treatments for conjunctivitis?

A

Antibiotic eye drops, steroidal eye drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
615
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

A group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve and can cause blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
616
Q

What are common treatments for glaucoma?

A

Timolol, other beta blockers, laser surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
617
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Clouding ot the normally clear lens of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
618
Q

What are common treatments of cataracts?

A

Surgery to remove cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
619
Q

What are terms related to conditions affecting the external ear and the ear canal?

A
  • Otitis media

* Otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
620
Q

What is otitis media?

A

Inflammation of the air-filled space behind the eardrum (the middle ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
621
Q

What are common treatments for otitis media?

A

NSAIDs, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
622
Q

What is otitis externa?

AKA Swimmers Ear

A

Inflammation of the outer ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
623
Q

What are common treatments for otitis externa?

A

Ear drops, supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
624
Q

What are terms related to the conditions affecting the nasal passages?

A

Epistaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
625
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Bleeding from the nose, either spontaneous of induced by nose picking or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
626
Q

What are common treatments for epistaxis?

A

Compression, packing, cauterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
627
Q

What are conditions affecting the oral mucosa and lips?

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
628
Q

What are hand, foot, and mouth dieases?

A

A common virus affecting mainly children that causes sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
629
Q

What are common treatments for hand, foot, and mouth disease?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
630
Q

What are terms related to the conditions of the oropharynx?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

Tonsillitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
631
Q

What is streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

A bacterial infection that may cause a sore, scratchy throat

aka strep throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
632
Q

What are common treatments for streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Penicillins, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
633
Q

What is tonsillitis?

A

Inflammation of the two oval-shaped pads of tissue at the back of the throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
634
Q

What are common treatments for tonsillitis?

A

Antibiotics, NSAIDs, sometimes surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
635
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the stomach intestines, and accessory digestive organs, such as the pancreas, liver, and appendix???

A
Common types of gastrointestinal (GI) conditions and diseases: 
Gastric Diseases
Gastrointestinal Infections
Gastrointestinal Inflammation
Intestinal Conditions and Diseases
Liver Diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
636
Q

What are diseases affecting the stomach?

A
  • Gastroesophageal reflux disease

* Peptic ulcer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
637
Q

What is gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Abbreviation - GERD

A

A digestive disease in which stomach acide of bile irritates the food pipe (esophagus) lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
638
Q

What are common treatments for gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A

Antacids, proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
639
Q

What is peptic ulcer diseases?

PUD abbreviation

A

A disease which causes prone-to-bleeding sores that develop on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
640
Q

What are common treatments for Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A

Antibiotics, Antacids, Proton Pump Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
641
Q

What are infections that affect the stomach and the intestines?

A
  • Clostridium difficile

* Gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
642
Q

What is clostridium difficile colitis?

C. diff - Abbreviation

A

Inflammation of the colon cause by the bacteria Clostridium Difficule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
643
Q

What are common treatments for Clostridium difficile colitis?

A

Vancomycin, Flagyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
644
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

An intestinal infection marked by diarrhea, cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever

aka stomach flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
645
Q

What are common treatments for gastroenteritis?

A

Fluids, antidiarrheals, sometimes antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
646
Q

What is a response to gastrointestinal injuries as a result of different stimuli such as a pathogens, damaged cells, or irritants?

A

Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Appendicitis
Gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
647
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
648
Q

What are common treatments for pancreatitis?

A

Fluids, treating the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
649
Q

What is cholecystitis?

Chole - Abbreviation

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
650
Q

What are common treatments for cholecystitis?

A

Antibiotics, avoiding fatty foods, cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
651
Q

What is appendicitis?

Appe - Abbreviation

A

A condition in whcih the appendix becomes inflamed and filled with pus, causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
652
Q

What are common treatments for appendicitis?

A

Antibiotics, appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
653
Q

What is gastritis?

A

Any one group of conditions in which the stomach lining is inflamed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
654
Q

What are common treatments for Gastritus?

A

Antacids, proton pump inhibitors, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
655
Q

What are diseases that affect the small and large intestines?

A
Diverticulosis
Diverticulitis
Crohn's disease
Ulcerative Colitis
Irritable bowel syndrome
Small bowel obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
656
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

A condition in which small bulging pouches (diverticula) develop in the large intestine, most often in the sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
657
Q

What are common treatments for diverticulosis?

A

Dietary fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
658
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Inflammation or infection in one or more small pouches ( diverticula) in the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
659
Q

What are common treatments for diverticulitis?

A

Antibiotics, fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
660
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

A chronic, autoimmune inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
661
Q

What are common treatments for Crohn’s disease?

A

NSAIDs, steroids, immuno-suppresive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
662
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

UC - Abbreviation

A

A chronic, autoimmune inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
663
Q

What are common treatments for Ulcerative colitis?

A

NSAIDs, steroids, immuno-suppressive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
664
Q

What is irritable bowel syndrome?

IBS - abbreviation

A

An intestinal disorder causing pain in the belly, gas diarrhea, and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
665
Q

What are common treatments for irritable bowel syndrome?

A

Fiber, antidiarrheals, gut antispadmodics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
666
Q

What is a small bowel obstruction?

SBO - abbreviation

A

A gastrointestinal condition in which digested material is prevented from passing normally through the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
667
Q

What are common treatments for small bowel obstruction?

A

NG Tube, enema, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
668
Q

What are diseases that affect the liver?

A
  • Cirrhosis

* Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
669
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

A chronic liver damage from a variety of causes leading to scarring (fibrosis) and liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
670
Q

What are common treatments for cirrhosis?

A

Lactulose, liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
671
Q

What is hepatitis?

Abbreviation - Hep A, B, C ( and others

A

Inflammation of the liver typically caused by infections, that may be acute or chronic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
672
Q

What are common treatments for hepatitis

A

Depends on the type of hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
673
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the urinary tact, male/female reproductive system and internal/external genitalia

A

Common types of genitourinary (GU) conditions and diseases:

Female Genitourinary Conditions
Female Genitourinary Diseases
Male Genitourinary Conditions
Sexually Transmitted Infections
Urinary and Renal Conditions and Diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
674
Q

What are conditions affecting only the female reproductive organs?

A
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Menorrhagia
  • Ovarian Torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
675
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy in which the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in a fallopian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
676
Q

What are common treatments for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Surgical removal or embryo, possible salpingo-oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
677
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Refers to heavy or prolonged vaginal bleeding with the menstrual cycle.

aka heavy periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
678
Q

What are common treatments for Menorrhagia?

A

Birth control, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
679
Q

What is ovarian torsion?

A

A condition that occurs when an ovary twists around the ligaments that hold it into place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
680
Q

What are common treatments for ovarian torsion?

A

Surgical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
681
Q

What are diseases that affect only the female reproductive organs?

A

Endometriosis
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
682
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

A disorder in which uterine tissue grows outside the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
683
Q

What are common treatments for endometriosis?

A

Birth control, endometrial ablation, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
684
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

PID - abbreviation

A

An infection of the female reproductive organs, usually due to untreated sexually transmitted infections, that may lead to irreparable damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
685
Q

What are common treatments for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
686
Q

What is polycystic ovarian syndrome?

PCOS - Abbreviation

A

A hormonal disorder causing enlarged ovaries with small cysts on the outer edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
687
Q

What are common treatments for polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

Metformin, statins, birth control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
688
Q

What are conditions and diseases affecting only the male reproductive organs?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Testicular torsion
Hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
689
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?

BPH - abbreviation

A

An age-associated prostrate gland enlargement that can cause urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
690
Q

What are common treatments for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia?

A

Flomax, apha-5-reductase inhibitors, catheterization, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
691
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

A twisting of the testical around the vessel supplying blood to the scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
692
Q

What are common treatments for testicular torsion

A

Surgery, possible orchiectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
693
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

A fluid-filled sac around a testicle, often first noticed as swelling of the scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
694
Q

What are common treatments for hydrocele?

A

Monitoring, surgery as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
695
Q

What are infections that are transmitted via sexual contact and occasionally contact with infected bodily fluids?

A
Herpes
Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Trichomoniasis
Syphilis
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
696
Q

What are herpes?

A

A common sexually transmitted viral infection marked by genital pain and sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
697
Q

What are common treatments for herpes?

A

Antivirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
698
Q

What is chlamydia?

A

A common sexually transmitted bacterial infection that may not cause symptoms and is most common in young women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
699
Q

What are common treatments for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin, Cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
700
Q

What is Gonorrhea?

GC- Abbreviation

A

A common sexually transmitted bacterial infection that if untreated may cause infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
701
Q

What are common treatments for gonorrhea?

A

Rocephin, doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
702
Q

What is trichomoniasis?

Abbreviation - Trich

A

A sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite (trichomonas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
703
Q

What are common treatments for Trichomoniasis?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
704
Q

What is syphilis?

A

A bacterial infection usually spread by sexual contact that starts as a painless sore and may progress to stage 3, neurosyphilis?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
705
Q

What are common treatments for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
706
Q

What is a human immunodeficiency virus?

HIV - abbreviation

A

A virus transmitted through contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal or anal fluids that interferes with the body’s ability to fight infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
707
Q

What are common treatments for human immunodeficiency virus?

A

Antiretrovirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
708
Q

What is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

AIDS - abbreviation

A

Characterized by irreversible damage to the immune system caused by HIV that drastically limits the body’s ability to fight infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
709
Q

What are common treatments for Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome?

A

Treat based on symptoms, no cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
710
Q

What are conditions and diseases affecting the urinary tract, including the bladder, ureters, and kidneys?

A
  • Urinary Tract Infection
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Renal Calculi
  • End stage renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
711
Q

What are urinary tract infections?
(UTI - abbreviation)
AKA Acute cystitis

A

Infections in any part of the urinary system, the kidneys, bladder, or urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
712
Q

What are common treatments for urinary tract infection?

A

Macrobid, Bactrim, other antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
713
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

Pyelo - abbreviation

A

Inflammation of the kidney due to a bacterial infection

AKA kidney infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
714
Q

What are common treatments for Pyelonephritis?

A

Cipro, amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
715
Q

What is a renal calculus?

A

A small, hard deposit that forms in the kidneys and is often painful when passed

aka kidney stones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
716
Q

What are common treatments for renal calculus?

A

Flomax, analgesics, possible surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
717
Q

What is end stage renal disease?

ESRD - abbreviation

A

a long standing disease of the kidneys leading to renal failure?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
718
Q

What are common treatments for End Stage Renal Disease?

A

Dialysis, Kidney transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
719
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the blood and blood-forming organs?

A
  • Anemia

* Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
720
Q

What is Anemia?

A

A condition in which the blood doesnt have enough healthy red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
721
Q

What are common treatments for anemia?

A

Vitamins, blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
722
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

AKA BLood cancer

A cancer of blood-forming tissues, which then produce abnormal or immature white blood cells (leukocytes) hinder the body’s ability to fight infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
723
Q

What are common treatments for leukemia?

A

Chemotherapy, radiation, bone marrow or stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
724
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the immune system’s ability to differentiate between host cells and invaders?

A

Conditions that result from immune system dysfunction:

Allergic reactions
Adverse reactions
Autoimmune disorders
Cancer
Metastatic cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
725
Q

What is an allergic reaction?

A

A condition in which the immune system reacts abnormally to a foreign substance, resulting in rashes, itching, and swelling, specifically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
726
Q

What are common treatments for an allergic reaction?

A

Benadryl, antihistamines, steroids, immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
727
Q

What is an adverse reaction?

A

Any substance or dangerous reaction to a substance different from an allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
728
Q

What are common treatments to an adverse reaction?

A

Antihistamines, steroids, epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
729
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder?

A

A disease in which the body’s immune system attacks its own healthy cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
730
Q

What are common treatments for an autoimmune disorder?

A

Steroids, immuno-suppresants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
731
Q

What is cancer?

CA - Abbreviation

A

A disease in which abnormal cells divide uncontrollably and destroy body tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
732
Q

What are common treatments for Cancer?

A

Chemotherapy, Radiation therapy, Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
733
Q

What is metastatic cancer?

A

A cancer that has spread from its primary source to one or more secondary sites

also known as secondary location mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
734
Q

What are common treatments for metastatic cancer?

A

Chemotherapy, radiation therapy, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
735
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the skin?

A

Common types of integumentary conditions and diseases:

Integumentary Infections
Integumentary Conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
736
Q

What are some infections of the skin?

A

Cellulitis

Abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
737
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

A common and potentially serious bacterial skin infection, characterized by pain, redness, swelling, and warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
738
Q

What are common treatments for cellulitis?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
739
Q

What is an abscess?

A

A confined pocket of pus that collects tissues, organs, or spaces inside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
740
Q

What are common treatments for abscess?

A

Antibiotics, incision, and drainage

possible surgical debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
741
Q

What are conditions caused by the dysfunction of the structures of the skin?

A

Urticaria
Eczema
Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
742
Q

What is Urticaria?

A

A skin rash triggered by a reaction to food, medicine, or other irritants

(also known as Hives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
743
Q

What are common treatments for urticaria?

A

Antihistamines, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
744
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A

An itchy inflammation of the skin in response to irritants

also known as eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
745
Q

What are common treatments to atopic dermatitis?

A

Steroids, topical antiseptics, antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
746
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

An autoimmune condition in which skill cells build up and form scales and itchy, dry patches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
747
Q

What are common treatments for psoriasis?

A

Steroids, immuno suppressive drugs, vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
748
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the bones, muscles, tendons, and ligaments?

A

Common types of musculoskeletal condictions and diseases:

Acute Conditions
Chronic Conditions
Degenerative Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
749
Q

What are conditions affecting the bones and muscles for a short period?

A
Costochondritis
Dislocations
Fractures
Sciatica
Subluxations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
750
Q

What is Costochondritis?

A

An inflammation of the cartilage that connects the ribs to the breastbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
751
Q

What are common treatments to costochondritis?

A

NSAIDs, Steroids, Stretching, Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
752
Q

What are dislocations?

A

Injuries where a joint is forced out of a normal position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
753
Q

What are common treatments for dislocations?

A

Joint reduction, immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
754
Q

What are fractures?

Fx - abbreviation

A

Complete or partial breaks in a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
755
Q

What are common treatments for fractures?

A

Resetting bone, immobilization, possible surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
756
Q

What does sciatica refer to?

A

Pain radiating along the sciatic nerve which runs down one or both legs from the lower back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
757
Q

What are common treatments for sciatica?

A

Icepacks, NSAIDs, muscle relaxers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
758
Q

What are subluxations?

A

Partial dislocations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
759
Q

What are common treatments for subluxations?

A

Reduction, immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
760
Q

Conditions affecting the bones and muscles that are ongoing for a long period

A
  • Chronic back pain
  • Herniated Discs
  • Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
761
Q

What is chronic back pain?

A

long term physical discomfort occuring anywhere on the spine or paraspinal muscles ranging from mild to debilitating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
762
Q

What are common treatments for chronic back pain?

A

Muscle relaxants, cold/heat therapy, antiinflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
763
Q

What are herniated discs?

A

They occur when the rubbery disc between the vertebrae pushes through a crack in the tougher exterior casing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
764
Q

What are common treatments for herniated discs?

A

Pain medication, physical therapy, possible surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
765
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A condition in which bones become weak and brittle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
766
Q

What are common treatments for osteoporosis?

A

Fosamax, Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
767
Q

What diseases result from continuous deterioration of bone, muscle, or connective tissues?

A

Degenerative disc disease
Osteaoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
768
Q

What is degenerative disc disease?

DDD - abbreviation

A

A condition related to aging where the discs between vertebrae fragment and herniate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
769
Q

What are common treatments for Degenerative disc disease?

A

Physical therapy, NSAIDs, discectomy, laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
770
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

OA - abbreviation

A

A form of arthritis that occurs when cartilage wears down that worsens over time.

AKA Degenerative Joint Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
771
Q

What are some common treatments for osteoarthritis?

A

Methotrexate, NSAIDs, physical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
772
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

RA - abbreviation

A

An autoimmune disorder where the joints and sometimes the internal organs are attacked by the immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
773
Q

What are common treatments for Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti-inflammatories, immunosuppresants, arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
774
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect the brain, spinal cord, and nerves?

A

Common types of neurological conditions and diseases:

Neurological infections
Ischemic Injuries
Nerve Conduction Conditions and Diseases
Other Neurological Conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
775
Q

What infections are of the brain , spinal cord, or nerves

A

Bell’s palsy

Epidural Abscess

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
776
Q

What is A Bell’s palsy ?

A

is a sudden weakness in the muscles on one half of the face caused by a viral infection affecting the cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
777
Q

What are common treatments for Bell’s palsy?

A

Steroids, antivirals, artificial tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
778
Q

What is an epidural abscess?

A

A collection of infected material between the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord (dura) and the bones of the skull or spine that is most commonly found in the lumbar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
779
Q

What are common treatments for epidural abscess?

A

Surgical decompression, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
780
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes ( meninges) typically caused by an infection. May be bacterial or viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
781
Q

What are common treatments for meningitis?

A

Antibiotics, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
782
Q

What are terms related to the damage of the brain, spinal cord, or nerves caused by lack of blood flow?

A

Cerebrovascular accident

Transient Ischemic Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
783
Q

What is a cerebrovascular accident?

CVA- Abbreviation

A

An accident that results in damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply caused by either a bleed (hemorrhagic) or blood clot (ischemic)

Also known as a stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
784
Q

What are common treatments for cerebrovascular accident?

A

tPA (clots only), surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
785
Q

What is a transient ischemic attack?

TIA- abbreviation

A

A brief stoke-like attack caused by fatty plaque build up in an artery supplying the brain with blood. May indicate risk for future stoke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
786
Q

What are common treatments for a transient ischemic attack?

A

Blood thinners, surgery as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
787
Q

What are conditions and diseases affecting the ability of nerves to conduct electrical signals?

A
Cauda equina syndrome
Multiple sclerosis
Peripheral Neuropathy
Spinal cord injury
Spinal stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
788
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome?

A

A condition that occurs when the bundle of nerves below the end of the spinal cord known as the cauda equina is damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
789
Q

What are common treatments for cauda equina syndrome?

A

Lumbar laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
790
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

MS - abbreviation

A

A disease in which the immune system eats away at the protective covering of nerves (myeline) which may result in nervous system dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
791
Q

What are common treatments for multiple sclerosis?

A

Steroids, Immuno-suppressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
792
Q

What is peripheral neuropathy?

A

Characterized by weakness, numbness, and pain from nerve damage usually in the hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
793
Q

What are common treatments for peripheral neuropathy?

A

Gabapentin, Lyrica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
794
Q

What is a spinal cord injury?

A

Results from damage to any part of the spinal cord or nerves at the end of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
795
Q

What are common treatments for spinal cord injury?

A

Spinal surgery, supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
796
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A

An abnormal narrowing of the spinal cord that results in pressure on the spinal cord or nerver roots, which may cause, paint ,paresthesias, and weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
797
Q

What are common treatments for spinal stenosis?

A

pain management, laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
798
Q

What are additional neurological conditions?

A

Epilepsy
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Migraines
Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
799
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A disorder characterized by abnormal electrical activity in which nerve cell activity in the brain is disturbed, causing seizures

aka seizure disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
800
Q

What are common treatments for epilepsy?

A

Antiepileptics

Anticonvulsants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
801
Q

What is idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

A condition that occurs when pressure inside the skull increased due to increased cerebrospinal fluid for no obvious reason

(IIH - abbreviation)
also known as Pseudotumor cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
802
Q

What are common treatments for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

diuretic, VP shunt, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
803
Q

What are migraines?

A

A specific type of headache of varying intensity, often accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light (photophobia_ and sound ( phonophobia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
804
Q

What are common treatments for migraines?

A

Triptans, NSAIDs, antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
805
Q

What is vertigo?

A

A sudden internal or external spinning sensation that may be caused by underlying illness or more benign means such as canalith particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
806
Q

What are common treatments for vertigo?

A

Meclizine, treating the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
807
Q

What are a class of conditions and diseases that affect behavior and mood?

A

Conditions and diseases typically caused by abnormal neuroreceptor levels:

Generalized anxiety disorder
Clinical Depression
Post-Traumatic Stress disorder
Bipolar DIsorder
Schizophrenia
Alcohol abuse
Substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
808
Q

What is generalized anxiety disorder?

GAD - abbreviation

A

Characterized by severe, ongoing anxiety that interferes with daily activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
809
Q

What are common treatments for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

SSRIs, benzodiazepines, other antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
810
Q

What is clinical depression?

AKA Major depressive disorder

A

A mental health disorder characterized by persistently depressed mood or loss of interest in activities causing significant impairment in daily life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
811
Q

What are common treatments for clinical depression?

A

SSRIs, other antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
812
Q

What is post-traumatic stress disorder?

PTSD- abbreviation

A

A disorder in which a person has difficulty recovering after experiencing or witnessing a terrifying event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
813
Q

What are common treatments for post-traumatic stress disorder?

A

SSRIs, therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
814
Q

What is bipolar disorder?

aka manic depression

A

A disorder associated with episodes of mood swings ranging from depressive lows to manic highs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
815
Q

What are common treatments of bipolar disorder?

A

Anticonvulsants, antipsychotics, SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
816
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

A disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
817
Q

What are common treatments of schizophrenia?

A

Antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
818
Q

What is alcohol abuse?
(EtOH abuse)

aka Alcoholism

A

A chronic disease characterized by uncontrolled drinking and preoccupation with alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
819
Q

What are common treatments for alcohol abuse?

A

Librium, benzodiaepines, detox, therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
820
Q

What is substance abuse?

A

Characterized by overindulgence in or dependence on an addictive substance, especially alcohol or drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
821
Q

What are common treatments for substance abuse?

A

Detox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
822
Q

What are a class of diseases and conditions that affect the lungs, trachea and ability to breathe?

A

Common types of respiratory conditions and diseases:

Chronic diseases
Conditions due to fluid overload
Respiratory Infections
Inflammatory Conditions
Conditions with Loss of Volume
Vascular Conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
823
Q

What diseases are of the lungs that are ongoing for an extended period of time?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Emphysema
Obstructive sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
824
Q

What is Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

COPD - Abbreviation

A

is a group of chronic diseases characterized by irreversible lung damage that block airflow and make it difficult to breathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
825
Q

What are common treatments for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

Albuterol, ipratropium, steroids, supplemental oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
826
Q

What is emphysema?

A

A condition in which the air sacs of the lungs (alveoli) are damaged and enlarged, causing breathlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
827
Q

What are common treatments for emphysema?

A

Bronchodilators
Inhaled steroids
Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
828
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

Abbreviation - OSA

A

Intermittent airflow blockage and subsequent apnea (temporary cessation of breathing) during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
829
Q

What are common treatments for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

CPAP, BiPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
830
Q

What are conditions of the lungs caused by increased fluid retention?

A

Pleural effusion

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
831
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

The buildup of fluid between the tissues that line the lungs and the chest (pleura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
832
Q

What are common treatments for pleural effusion?

A

Chest tube, diuretics, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
833
Q

What is pulmonary edema?

A

A condition caused by excess fluid in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
834
Q

What are common treatments for pulmonary edema?

A

Diuretics, low-sodium diet, supplemental oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
835
Q

What are infections of the lungs and/or upper oropharynx?

A
  • Infiltrate
  • Pneumonia
  • Upper respiratory infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
836
Q

What is infiltrate?

A

The accumulation of foreign material collected in tissue, typically lungs in excess of normal. It is a common indicator of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
837
Q

What are common treatments for infiltrate?

A

Varies by cause of the infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
838
Q

What is pneumonia?

PNA

A

An infection that inflames air sacs in one or both lungs, which may fill with fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
839
Q

What are common treatments for Pneumonia?

A

Cipro, Amoxicillin, other antibiotics, albeuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
840
Q

What is an upper respiratory infection?

URI - abbreviation

A

A common viral infection that affects the nose, throat, and airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
841
Q

What are common treatments for upper respiratory infection?

A

Mucinex, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
842
Q

What are terms related to pathologic swelling of the structures of the respiratory tract?

A

Asthma
Bronchitis
Pleurisy
Reactive airway disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
843
Q

What is asthma?

A

A condition in which a person’s airways become inflamed, narrow, swollen, and produce extra mucus, making it difficult to breathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
844
Q

What are common treatments of asthma?

A

Albuterol, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
845
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Inflammation of the tissues that line the lungs and chest cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
846
Q

What are common treatments for pleurisy?

A

NSAIDs, other pain relievers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
847
Q

What is reactive airway disease?

RAD - abbreviation

A

A disease in which the bronchial tubes of the lungs overreact to an irritant, triggering wheezing and shortness of breath; this is used before a formal diagnosis of asthma is confirmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
848
Q

What are common treatments for reactive airway disease?

A

Albuterol, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
849
Q

What are respiratory conditions that result in the loss of lung capacity

A

Atelectasis
Hemothorax
Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
850
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

A complete or partial collapse of a lung or a lobe of a lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
851
Q

What are common treatments for atelectasis?

A

Supplemental oxygen, albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
852
Q

What is a hemothorax?

A

A collection of blood in the pleural cavity around a collapsed lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
853
Q

What are common treatments for a hemothorax?

A

Chest tube / thoracentesis, supplemental oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
854
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

A collapsed lung with air in the pleural cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
855
Q

What are common treatments for pneumothorax?

A

Chest tube/ Thoracentesis, supplemental oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
856
Q

What are respiratory conditions that are a result of pulmonary vascular dysfunction?

A

Pulmonary embolism

Pulmonary Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
857
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

PE - abbreviation

A

A condition in which one or more arteries in the lungs become blocked by a subtsance (usually a blood clot_ after it has migrated from else where in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
858
Q

What are common treatments for pulmonary embolism?

A

Blood thinners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
859
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

PH - abbreviation

A

A progressive type of high blood pressure that affects arteries in the lungs and the right side of the heart, making it harder to breathe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
860
Q

What are common treatments for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Diuretics, Vasodilators, Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
861
Q

What is a disposition?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
862
Q

saiojda@@@@@@sojdasodja

Which of the following is an appropriate definition for a differential diagnosis?

A

FIND ANSWER
A list of possible conditions or diseases the patient is concerned they may have

A list of conditions or diseases the patient has experienced in the past

A list of possible conditions or diseases that could be causing the patient’s symptoms

A list of possible conditions or diseases the patienr’s family members believe the patient may be experiencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
863
Q

Which of the following are sections of a patient’s medical record

A
Past Medical History
Review of Sections
Present Examination
Review of Systems
History of Patient's Symptoms
Medical History Making
History of Present Illness
Past Symptom History
Physical Examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
864
Q

Which of the following are considered diagnostic studies?

A
Differential diagnosis
Consultations
Labs
Procedures
Imagine
Re-evaluations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
865
Q

What is the name for the clinical summation of information and/or the opnion based on the patient’s symptoms, their clinical hisotyr, and the outcome of the objective data?

A

Plan
diagnosis
patient education
Disposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
866
Q

Who provides the findings that are documented in the Physical Exam?

A

Medical Provider
Medical Scribe
Patient
Patient’s Family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
867
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognized body system in charting?

A

Intellegumentary

ANSWER HERE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
868
Q

Which of the following would be included in the plan?

A

Changes in medications/ new medications being prescribed

Conversations with other providers during the treatment of the patient

Orders for labs, imaging, or other additional testing

A list of symptoms reported by the patient

All communications with nursing staff

Referrals to other healthcare professions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
869
Q

What is the purpose of an Electronic Health Record? (EHR)

A

An EHR is a computer program that houses the patient’s medical records

(ANSWERED HERE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
870
Q

Who will perform a physical examination of a patient?

A

The provider will do this and the scribe will document this in the patient’s note

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
871
Q

For a physical examination, will a provider run the same physical exam for each patient?

A

Yes, they typically would. Depends on the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
872
Q

What are some examples of body systems that are represented in the physical exam?

A
Constitutional
Skin
Head/Neck
Eyes
ENT
Lymphatics
Cardiovascular
Repiratory/Chest Wall
Gastrointestinal
Gentiourinary
Musculorskeletal/Back/Extremeties
Neurological 
Psychiatric

All findings are OBJECTIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
873
Q

Within each body system, there will what kind of findings made by the medical provider?
(Physical Exam - Body Systems)

A

“normal” findings or “abnormal” findings

EX: Normal finding: no acute distress
Abnormal finding: Moderate respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
874
Q

What is an example of a Normal Physical Exam?

A

Constitutional: Alert. No acute distress
Skin: Warm. Dry. Intact.
Head/Neck: Normocephalic. Atraumatic. Neck soft and supple. Trachea Midline
Eye: PERRL. EOMI. Normal conjunctiva
ENT: TMs clear. Moist mucous membranes. No pharyngeal erythema or exudate
Lymphatics: No lymphadenopathy
Cardiovascular: Regular rate and rhythm. No murmur. No edema
Respiratory/Chest Wall: Lungs CTA. Non-labored respirations. No wheezes, rales, or rhonchi. No chest wall tenderness or deformity
Gastrointestinal: Soft. Nontender. Nondistented. No rebound or gurading
Genitourinary: Normal external genitalia
Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremities: Normal ROM of back and extremities. Normal strength. No back or extremity tenderness. No swelling. No deformities.
Neurological: A/O x4. Cranial nerves II-XII intact. No focal neurological deficits. Normal speech.
Psychiatric: Cooperative. Normal affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
875
Q

Example physical exam with normal and Abnormal findings

A

Constitutional: Alert. ““MODERATE ACUTE DISTRESS””
Skin: Warm. Dry. Intact.
Head/Neck: Normocephalic. Atraumatic. Neck soft and supple. Trachea midline.
Eye: PERRL. EOMI. Normal conjunctiva.
ENT: TMs clear. Moist mucous membranes. No pharyngeal erythema or exudate
Lymphatics: No lymphadenopathy
Cardiovascular: Tachycardic rate and regular rhythm. No murmur. No edema.
Respiratory/Chest Wall: Non-labored respirations. RLL Rhonchi. No wheezes or rales. No chest wall tenderness or deformity

Gastrointestinal: Soft. Nontender. Non distended. No rebound or guarding.

Genitourinary: Normal external genitalia

Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremities: Normal ROM of back and extremities. Normal strength. No back or extremity tenderness. No swelling. No deformities.

Neurological: A/O x4 Cranial nerves II-XII intact. No focal neurologic deficits. Normal Speech.

Psychiatric: Cooperative. Normal affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
876
Q

Will some physical exams findings fit more than one body system?

A

Yeah, they may also contradict finding in another system, so just cognizant when recording exams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
877
Q

What does constitutional mean when it comes to the body system?

A

The patient’s overall appearance and presentation

Common normal constitutional findings:
Alert
No acute distress
Well-developed well-nourished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
878
Q

When it comes to constitutional, what are some examples of normal findings? what about an abnormal finding?

A

Normal - Alert

Abnormal - Somnolent, Obtunded, Unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
879
Q

What does Alert mean when it comes to constitutional findings

A

Awake and responsive to all stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
880
Q

What does Somnolent mean when it comes to constitutional findings

A

Abnormally drowsy, but able to be aroused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
881
Q

What does obtunded mean when it comes to constitutional findings

A

Awake but not alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
882
Q

What does unresponsive mean when it comes to constitutional findings

A

Unconscious and unrousable to any stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
883
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to constitutional findings? what about abnormal findings?

A

Normal - No acute distress

Abnormal findings - Mild distress, Moderate distress, Severe distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
884
Q

What does no acute distress mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Stable and will not become unstable within 5 minutes

NORMAL FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
885
Q

What does mild distress mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Stable, but may become unstable

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
886
Q

What does moderate distress mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

It means stable, but likely to become unstable

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
887
Q

What does severe distress mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

More unstable than stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
888
Q

What are normal constitutional findings? What about abnormal constitutional findings?

A

Normal = Well-developed, Well-nourished

Abnormal = Cachectic, ill-appearing, Obese grossly overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
889
Q

What does Well-developed/ Well-nourished mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Healthy weight and appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
890
Q

What does Cachetic mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Body wasting due to severe chronic illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
891
Q

What does ill-appearing mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Looks to be sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
892
Q

What does obese mean when it comes to constitutional findings?

A

Grossly overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
893
Q

What are the list of terms that are related to the skin and integumentary system?
BODY System: Skin

A
Common normal skin findings: 
Warm
Dry
Pink
Intact
No signs of infection
No rashes
No signs of trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
894
Q

What are normal findings when it comes skin findings? What about abnormal findings when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal - Warm (Normal skin temp)

Abnormal - Cool (Lower than norm skin temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
895
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to skin findings? what are abnormal findings?

A

Normal - Dry

Abnormal - Moist, Clammy, Diaphoretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
896
Q

What does dry mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal skin condition without moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
897
Q

What does moist mean when it comes to abnormal skin findings?

A

Slightly, or moderately damp (ABNORMAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
898
Q

What does clammy mean when it comes to skin findings?

abnormal

A

Wet or sweaty skin

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
899
Q

What does diaphoretic mean when it comes

to skin findings?

A

Abnormally heavy sweating

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
900
Q

What does pink mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normally colored skin ethnicity

NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
901
Q

What does Jaundice mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Yellowing of the skin

ABNORMAL!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
902
Q

What does Cyanotic mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
903
Q

What does pale mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Loss of normal color of the skin

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
904
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to skin findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal - Pink

Abnormal - Jaundice, Cyanotic Pale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
905
Q

What does intact mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Skin is without injury (NORMAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
906
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to skin findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal - Intact

Abnormal - Laceration, Abrasion, Avulsion, Lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
907
Q

What does laceration mean (skin finding)?

A

Cut in the skin

(Abnormal(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
908
Q

What does abrasion mean?

A

Scrape

Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
909
Q

What does avulsion mean?

A

Injury from skin that was torn away

Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
910
Q

What does lesion mean?

A

Can be used to describe any abnormal change to the skin

Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
911
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to skin findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal findings - no skin infection

abnormal findings - fluctuance, induration, erythema,
purulent drainage, lymphangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
912
Q

What is fluctuance?

A

Moveable and compressible

ABNORMAL SKIN FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
913
Q

What is induration?

A

Increase in fibrous tissue, resulting in loss of elasticity

ABNORMAL SKIN FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
914
Q

What is erythema?

A

Redness

ABNORMAL SKIN FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
915
Q

What is purulent drainage?

A

Discharge of pus

ABNORMAL SKIN FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
916
Q

What is lymphangitis?

A

Streaking redness

ABNORMAL SKIN FINDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
917
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to skin findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal - no rashes

Abnormal - Urticaria, Petechiae, Vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
918
Q

What does urticaria mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

This means hives

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
919
Q

What does petechiae mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Pinpoint flat, round, red spots under the skin surface

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
920
Q

What does vesicles mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Blister

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
921
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to skin findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to skin findings?

A

Normal - no signs of trauma

Abnormal - hematoma, ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
922
Q

What does hematoma mean when it comes to skin findings

A

Solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
923
Q

What does Ecchymosis mean when it comes to skin findings?

A

Superficial bruising

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
924
Q

What are findings related to the head, neck

(excluding neurologic findings), and C-spine?

A

Common normal head/neck findings:

Normocephalic
Atraumatic
No head tenderness
Supple
Trachea midline
No JVD
No cervical lymphadenopathy
No carotid bruit
No neck tenderness
No deformity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
925
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to head findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to head findings?

A

Normal - Normocephalic

Abnormal Findings - Craniectomy Skull Malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
926
Q

What does normocepahlic mean when it comes to head findings?

A

Normally shaped head ( normal )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
927
Q

What does carniectomy mean when it comes to head findings?

A

Removal of part of the skull

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
928
Q

What does skull malformations mean when it comes to head findings?

A

abnormally shaped skull or facial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
929
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to head findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to head findings?

A

Normal - Atraumatic

Abnormal - Battle sign, Contusions, Lacerations, Hematomas, Ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
930
Q

What does atraumatic mean when it comes to head findings?

A

without trauma, injury (normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
931
Q

what does battle sign mean when it comes to head findings?

A

bruising to the skull behind the ear (abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
932
Q

What does contusion mean when it comes to head findings?

A

deep bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
933
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to head findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to head findings?

A

Normal - no tenderness

Abnormal findings - Skull tenderness, Sinus tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
934
Q

What does skull tenderness mean when it comes to head findings?

A

pain with pressure applied to the skull (abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
935
Q

What does sinus mean when it comes to head findings?

A

Pain with pressure applied above the sinuses

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
936
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to head findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to head findings?

A

Normal - supple

abnormal - nuchal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
937
Q

What does supple mean when it comes to head findings?

A

Neck can be easily bent ( NORMAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
938
Q

What does nuchal rigidity mean it comes to neck findings?

A

Neck stiffness in meningitis

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
939
Q

What are normal terms when it comes to neck findings? What are abnormal terms when it comes to neck findings?

A

Normal - Trachea midline

Abnormal - Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
940
Q

What does trachea midline mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

Trachea is centered

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
941
Q

What does trachea midline mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

Trachea is off-center

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
942
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to neck findings?

What about abnormal findings?

A

Normal finding - No JVD

Abnormal Finding - JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
943
Q

What does JVD mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

Jugular vein distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
944
Q

What is a normal finding when it comes to neck findings?

What about an abnormal finding?

A

Normal finding - No cervical lymphadenopathy

Abnormal finding- - Cervical lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
945
Q

What does Cervical lymphadenopathy mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

Swelling of the cervical lymph nodes under the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
946
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to neck findings?

What about abnormal?

A

No carotid bruit - Normal

Carotid bruit - Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
947
Q

What does carotid bruit mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

a vascular murmur heard in the carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
948
Q

What are abnormal findings when it comes to neck findings?

What about abnormal findings?

A

Normal - no tender

Abnormal findings - c-spine tenderness, paraspinal muscle
tenderness
trapezius tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
949
Q

What does c-spine tenderness mean when it comes to neck findings?

A

Pain pressure applied to the bony spine (abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
950
Q

What does paraspinal muscle tenderness when it comes

to neck findings?

A

Tenderness of the muscles connected to the spine

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
951
Q

What does trapezius tenderness mean when it comes to the

neck findings?

A

Pain with pressure applied to the triangular shaped

muscles on either side of the C-spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
952
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to neck findings?

What are abnormal findings when it comes to neck findings?

A

Normal - no deformity

Abnormal - bony crepitus, Step-offs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
953
Q

What does bony crepitus when it comes to neck findings?

A

Crackling sound produced by the rubbing together of ragments of fractured bone
(abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
954
Q

What are step-offs when it comes to neck findings?

A

Malalignment of bones that can be felt or seen

ABNORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
955
Q

What is under the body system, eyes?

A

All findings related to the eyes, eyelids, and vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
956
Q

What are common normal eye findings?

A

PERRLA
EOMI
Norma conjunctiva
Anicteric sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
957
Q

What are normal eye findings?

What about abnormal eye findings?

A

Normal - PERRLA
Abnormal - Sluggish pupils, Blown pupil
Dilated pupils
Fixed pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
958
Q

What is PERRLA? ( Eye finding)

A

Pupils are Equal, Round, and Reactive to Light Accomodation

NROMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
959
Q

What are sluggish pupils when it comes to eye findings?

A

Slow to react to tracking light

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
960
Q

What are blown pupils when it comes to eye findings?

A

One pupil is noticeabley larger in size and doesn’t react

to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
961
Q

What are dilated pupils when it comes to eye findings?

A

Larger than normal pupils that still react to light

Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
962
Q

What are fixed pupils when it comes to eye findings?

A

Pupils that are do not react to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
963
Q

What are eye findings that are normal ?

abnormal?

A

Normal - EOMI

Abnormal - Nystagmus, Entrapment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
964
Q

What is EOMI mean when it comes to an eye finding?

A

Extraocular Movement Intact

NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
965
Q

What does Nystagmus mean when it comes to eye findings?

A

Involuntary and horizontal vertical eye movement

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
966
Q

What is entrapment when it comes to eye findings?

A

Inability to move eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
967
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to eye finding?

What about abnormal findings?

A

Normal - normal conjunctiva

Abnormal - Injected conjunctiva, Pale conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
968
Q

What does Conjunctiva mean when it comes to eye findings?

A

Tissue that lines the surface of the eyelids
and covers the surface of the sclera
(Normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
969
Q

What does injected conjunctiva mean when it

comes to eye findings?

A

Redness of the conjunctiva

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
970
Q

What does pale conjunctiva mean when it comes to eye findings?

A

Paleness of the conjunctiva

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
971
Q

What are normal findings when it ccomes to

eye findings? WHat about abnormal?

A

Normal - Anicteric sclera

Abnormal - Sclera Icterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
972
Q

What does Anicteric sclera mean when it comes

to eye findings?

A

Normal (white) sclera

NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
973
Q

What does Scleral Icterus mean when it

comes to eye findings?

A

Yellow discoloration of the sclera

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
974
Q

What does ENMT stand for?

A

Ears, nose, mouth, throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
975
Q

What are common ENMT findings?

ENMT Body SYSTEM

A

TMs clear
Normal nares
Moist mucous membranes
Normal Oropharynx

(Master list)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
976
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to ENMT
Findings?
What about abnormal?

A

TMs clear - Normal

Abnormal:
Retracted TM 
Bulging TM
Eruthematous TM
Dull TM
Hemotympanum
TM obscured by cerumen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
977
Q

What does TMs clear mean when it comes to ENMT findings?

A

This means normal tympanic membranes

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
978
Q

What does retracted or bulging tms mean

when it comes ENMT Findings?

A

Dperessed of swollen tympanic membrane

Abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
979
Q

What does erythematous TM mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Redness of inner ear

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
980
Q

What does Hemotympanum mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Blood behind the tympanic membrane

abnormal

981
Q

What does obscured TM mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Hard-to-see TM, often due to too much earwax

Abnormal

982
Q

What are normal findings when it comes ENMT

findings? What about abnormal?

A

Normal - Normal nares (nostrils)

Abnormal findings - 
Epistaxis 
Rhinorrhea
Septal hematoma
Boggy turbinates
Nasal deformity
983
Q

What does Epistaxis mean when it comes to

ENMT findings?

A

Bloody nose ( abnormal)

984
Q

What does Rhinorrhea mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Clear or colored drainage from nose ( not blood)

ABNORMAL

985
Q

What does septal hematoma mean when it

comes to ENMT findings?

A

Blood collection in the area between nares

abnormal

986
Q

What does nasal deformity mean when it comes to

ENMT findings?

A

Abnormality in the structure of the nose

ABNORMAL

987
Q

What are normal findings when it
comes to ENMT findings? What about
abnormal findings?

A

Moist mucous membranes - NORMAL

Dry Mucous membranes - ABNORMAL

988
Q

What does Moist mucous membranes mean when

it comes to ENMT findings?

A

Well-hydrated membranes such as oral (mouth)
nasal (nose), and ocular (eyes)

(NORMAL FINDING)

989
Q

What does dry mucous membrane mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Abnormal dyness of membranes

ABNORMAL

990
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to
ENMT findings?
What about abnormal findings?

A

Normal finding - Normal oropharynx

Abnormal Findings - Dental caries, Edentulous, 
Gingival abscess
Tonsillar hypertrophy
Pharyngeal erythema
Pharyngeal exudates
Cobblestoning
991
Q

What does Oropharynx mean when it comes to

ENMT findings?

A

The part of the throat that is at the back of the mouth

NORMAL

992
Q

What does dental caries mean when it

comes to ENMT findings?

A

Dental decay

993
Q

What does Edentulous mean when it comes to

ENMT findings?

A

Without teeth

ABNORMAL

994
Q

What does gingival abscess mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Infectious fluid collection of the gums

abnormal

995
Q

What does tonsillar hypertrophy mean when it comes to ENMT findings?

A

Enlarged tonsils

Abnormal

996
Q

What does Pharyngeal erythema mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Swelling of the throat

Abnormal

997
Q

What does pharyngeal exudate mean

when it comes ENMT findings?

A

Gray/White coating of the throat

ABNORMAL

998
Q

What does cobblestoning mean when it

comes to ENMT findings?

A

Lumpy appearance of throat

ABNORMAL

999
Q

What are common normal lymphatic findings?

ALL NORMAL FOR THE CATEGORY OF LYMPHATICS BODY SYSTEM

A

No lymphadenopathy

1000
Q

What is an normal finding when it comes to Lympathic

findings? What about abnormal?

A
No lymphadenopathy ( Normal)
Lymphadenopathy (Abnormal)
1001
Q

What does Lymphadenopathy mean when it comes

to ENMT findings?

A

Swelling of the lymph nodes

ABnormal

1002
Q

What are all common normal cardiovascular
findings?

(BODY SYSTEM: CARDIOVASCULAR)

A
Regular rate
Regular rhythm 
No edema
Good capillary Refill
Strong, equal distal pulses
Normal heart sounds
1003
Q

What are normal findings when it comes to cardiovascualr

findings?

A

Regular rate - normal
Tachycardia - abnormal
Bradycardia - abnormal

1004
Q

What does regular rate mean when it comes to

cardiovascular findings?

A

Heart beat between 60 and 100 bpm

Normal

1005
Q

What does Tachycardia mean when it comes to

Cardiovascular findings?

A

Fast heart rate (>100 bpm)

abnormal

1006
Q

What does bradycardia mean when it comes to

cardiovascular findings?

A

slow heart rate

>60 bpm

1007
Q

What are normal cardiovasuclar findings?

What are abnormal cardiovascular findings?

A

Normal - regular rhythm

Abnormal - Arrhythmia, Atrial fibrillation

1008
Q

What does Regular rhythm mean it comes

to cardiovascular findings?

A

Steady beating of the heart in typical “lub/dub” pattern

Normal

1009
Q

What does arrhythmia mean when it comes to

Cardiovascular findings?

A

Irregular rhythm

ABNORMAL

1010
Q

What does Atrial fibrillation mean when it comes to Cardiovascular findings?

A

Irregularly, irregular rhythm

ABNORMAL

1011
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes
to Cardiovascular findings? What are
abnormal findings?

A

No edema - NORMAL

Peripheral Edema - ABNORMAL

1012
Q

What does Edema mean when it comes to

cardiovascular findings?

A

Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues
(Abnormal)

1013
Q

What does peripheral edema mean when it comes

to cardiovascular findings?

A

Swelling in the extremities

ABNORMAL

1014
Q

What are some normal cardiovascular

findings? What about abnormal findings?

A

Normal - Good cap(illary) refill

Abnormal - Delayred cap(illary) refill

1015
Q

What does Capillary refill mean when it comes to

Cardiovascular findings?

A

The time it takes for the capillaries to refill after

being compressed

1016
Q

What does good capillary refill mean when it

comes to cardiovascular findings?

A

Capillaries take < 2 seconds to refill after compression

NORMAL

1017
Q

What does delayed capillary refill mean

when it comes to cardiovascular findings?

A

Capillaries take > 2 seconds to refill after
compression
(ABNORMAL)

1018
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes to
Cardio vascular findings?
What about abnormal)

A

Strong, equal, distal pulses, (2+) - Normal finding

Absent pulse (0+) -   (ABNORMAL) 
Bounding (4+)            (ABNORMAL)
1019
Q

What does Distal pulses mean

when it comes to Cardiovascular findings?

A

Pulses in the extremities:

1) Radial (arm)
2) Carotid (neck)
3) Femoral (thigh)
4) Dorsalis pedis (DP, top of foot)
5) Posterior tibialis (PT, back of the ankle)

1020
Q

What does strong, equal distal pulses mean

when it comes cardiovascular findings?

A

2+ pulses at the same location in bilateral extremeities
are similar and easily detectable
(NORMAL)

1021
Q

What does Absent pulse mean when it comes to

cardivascular findings?

A

0+ Pulse, unable to be felt

ABNORMAL

1022
Q

What does bounding pulse mean when it comes

to Cardiovascular findings?

A

4+ pulse, abnormally strong or fast

ABNORMAL

1023
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes

to cardiovascular findings? What about abnormal?

A

Normal heart sounds - Normal

Rubs, Gallops, Murmurs - Abnormal

1024
Q

What does Normal heart sounds mean when it

comes to Cardiovascular findings?

A

“Lub dub” sound that occurs in sequence

NORMAL

1025
Q

What does Rubs mean when it

comes to Cardiovascular findings?

A

Sound caused by the rubbing together of two serious
surfaces
(ABNORMAL)

1026
Q

What does Gallops mean when it

comes to Cardiovascular findings?

A

Three distinct sounds with each heartbeat

ABNORMAL

1027
Q

What does Murmur mean when it comes to

Cardiovascular findings?

A

Sound made by vibrations from blood throw through
the heart
(ABNORMAL)

1028
Q

What are common normal respiratory and chest
wall findings?

(MASTER LIST - BODY SYSTEM: RESPIRATORY/CHEST
WALL)

These are all findings related to the lungs, respirations, chest wall, and breasts in females. (excludes cardiac findings)

A
Lungs CTA
Equal breath sounds
Non-labored respirations
No chest wall tenderness
No chest wall deformity
Normal breast exam
1029
Q

What are normal findings related to the

respiratory system? what about abnormal?

A

Normal - Lung CTA

Abnormal - Wheezes, Crackles, Rales, Rhonchi, Stridor

1030
Q

What is Lung CTA when it comes to respiratory

CTA?

A

Lungs are clear to auscultation (listening)

NORMAL

1031
Q

What does wheezes mean when it comes to Respiratory findings?

A

A high-pitch whistling sound made while breathing

Abnormal

1032
Q

What does Crackles mean when it comes to Respiratory findings?

A

Discontinous clicking or rattling sounds

Abnormal

1033
Q

What does Crackles mean when it comes to Respiratory findings?

A

Discontinuous clicking or rattling sounds

Abnormal

1034
Q

What does Rales mean when it comes to

respiratory findings?

A

Cackling breath sound

Abnormal

1035
Q

What does Rhonchi mean when it comes

to Respiratory findings?

A

Rattling breath sounds

Abnormal

1036
Q

What does stridor mean

when it comes to respiratory findings?

A
Whistling, musical breath sounds
with inspiration ( ABNORMAL)
1037
Q

What are some normal findings when
it comes to respiratory findings?
What about abnormal?

A

Equal breath sounds - normal

Diminished breath sounds - abnormal

1038
Q

What does breath sounds equal mean when it comes

to respiratory findings?

A

Sounds heard from the lungs are equal

NORMAL

1039
Q

What does dminished breath sounds mean

when it comes to respiratory findings?

A

Lack of airflow in the lungs

abnormal

1040
Q

What are some normal findings/ abnormal

findings when it comes to respiratory findings?

A

Non-labored respirations - NORMAL

Tachypnea, Bradypnea, Apnea - ABNORMAL

1041
Q

What does non-labored respirations mean when it comes to

respiratory findings?

A

Normal breathing rate without exertion - NORMAL

1042
Q

What does tachypnea mean when it comes to

respiratory findings?

A

Abnormally rapid breathing

ABNORMAL

1043
Q

What does bradypnea mean when it comes

to respiratory findings?

A

Abnormally slow breathing

Abnormal

1044
Q

What does Apnea mean when it comes to respiratory findings?

A

Absence of breathing

ABNORMAL

1045
Q

What are some chest wall findings that are

normal/abnormal?

A

Normal - No chest wall tenderness

Abnormal - Tenderness

1046
Q

What does tenderness mean when it comes

to chest wall findings?

A

Pain with applied pressure

ABNORMAL

1047
Q

What are some chest wall findings that

are normal/abnormal?

A

No deformity - Normal finding

ABNORMAL BELOW
Crepitus, Seat belt sign, Ecchymosis, Emphysema

1048
Q

What does no deformity mean when it comes to chest wall findings?

A

No abnormal structural changes (normal)

1049
Q

What does crepitus mean when it comes to

chest wall findings?

A
Crackling, crinkly or grating feeling or sound under
the skin (ABNORMAL)
1050
Q

What does seat belt sign mean when it comes

to chest wall findings?

A

Bruising/abrasions in the distribution of a seat belt

ABNORMAL

1051
Q

What does Emphysema mean when it comes to

Chest Wall findings?

A

Air that is abnormally present in the tissues

Abnormal

1052
Q

What are some chest wall findings that relate

to the females only?

A

Normal breast exam - Female only

Abnormal Findings - Masses, Nipple discharge, tenderness

1053
Q

What does normal breast exam mean when it comes to

chest wall findings?

A

Bilateral breasts are symmetrical, nontender, without masses, skin or nipple changes

(NORMAL)

1054
Q

What are breast masses when it comes

to chest wall findings?

A

Localized swelling that feels different
from surrounding tissue

(ABNORMAL)

1055
Q

What does nipple discharge mean

when it comes to chest wall findings?

A

Any abnormal fluid or other liquid that
comes out of the nipple
(ABNORMAL)

1056
Q

What does breast tenderness mean
when it comes to chest wall
findings?

A

Pain with applied pressure

Abnormal

1057
Q

What are a list of all common normal respiratory and chest wall findings?

(BODY SYSTEM: Gastrointestinal)

A
Soft
Nontender
Nondistended
Normal bowel sounds
No palpable masses
Normal rectal exam
1058
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes to gastrointestinal
findings? WHat about abnormal?

A

Normal - SOFT

Abnormal - Rigid (Involuntary guarding)

1059
Q

What does soft mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Abdomen is easily compressed

Normal

1060
Q

What does rigid mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

Stiffness of the stomach muscles

abnormal

1061
Q

What are some normal/ abnormal findings when it comes

to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Nontender - normal

ABNORMAL BELOW: 
Mild tenderness
Moderate tenderness
Severe tenderness
Rebound tenderness
Voluntary guarding
Murphy's sign
Mcburney's point tendrness
Psoas sign
Obturator sign
Rovsing's sign
1062
Q

What does nontender mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

No pain with applied pressure

1063
Q

What does tenderness mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Pain with applied pressure can be anywhere between barely noticeable
(mild) to debilitating (severe)

(ABNORMAL)

1064
Q

What does rebound tenderness mean when it

comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Tenderness that occurs upon release

of pressure on the abdomen (ABNORMAL)

1065
Q

What does guarding mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

An involuntary or voluntary response to prevent pain caused
by pressure applied to the abdomen
(abnormal)

1066
Q

What does murphy’s sign mean when it comes to gastro-

intestinal findings?

A

Right upper quadrant sign of cholecystitis

Abnormal

1067
Q

What does Mcburney’s point of tenderness
Psoas sign
Obturator sign
Rovsing’s sign

all mean??

A

Right lower quadrant sign of the appendicitis

1068
Q

What are some normal /abnormal findings for gastrointestinal findings?

A

Nondistended - NORMAL

Distended - Abnormal

1069
Q

What does nondistended mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Abdomen is normal sized

Normal!

1070
Q

What does Distended mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Occurs when substances, such as air or fluid accumulate
in the abdomen causing its expansion
(Abnormal)

1071
Q

What are some normal/ abnormal findings when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Normal - Normal bowel sounds

Abnormal - Absent, Hyperactive, Hypoactive

1072
Q

What does normal bowel sounds mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Consist of clicks and gurgles and 5-30 per minute

normal

1073
Q

What does absent mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

No bowel sounds heard on auscultation

abnormal

1074
Q

What does hyperactive mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

Increased bowel sounds heard on auscultation

Abnormal

1075
Q

What does hypoactive mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

Decreased bowel sounds heard on auscultation

Abnormal

1076
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings when it comes to

gastrointestinal findings?

A

Normal - No palpable masses

Abnormal Findings - hernia (umbilical, inguinal, etc/ reducible, unable to reduce)

1077
Q

What does palpable masses mean when iti comes to gastrointestinal findings

A

Any abnormal bulge felt through the skin

Abnormal

1078
Q

What does hernia mean when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

A bulging of an organ or tissue through an
abnormal opening
(Abnormal)

1079
Q

What are some normal / abnormal findings when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A
NORMAL::
Normal tone
Brown stool
Guaiac negative
No hemorrhoids
ABNORMAL::
Decreased toned
Black (melanotic), red, white stool
Guaiac positive
Internal/external/thrombosed hemorrhoids
1080
Q

What are rectal tones when it comes to gastrointestinal

findings?

A

Strength of the rectal muscles

1081
Q

What are melanotic stool when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Black tarry stool

ABNORMAL

1082
Q

What does guaiac positive/negative mean when it comes

to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Stool that is positive or negative for blood

if negative = normal, if positive = abnormal

1083
Q

What does hemorrhoids mean when it comes to gastrointestinal findings?

A

Swollen and inflamed veins in the rectum and anus that cause discomfort and bleeding

(if none hemrrohoid then normal!)

1084
Q

What do thrombosed hemorrhoids mean when it comes

to gastrointestinal findings?

A

An internal or external hemorrhoid that has filled with blood
clots

(abnormal)

1085
Q

What are all common normal genitourinary findings?
(Body system Genitourinary!!! - this relates to the urinary tract
and genitalia)

A

Normal external female genitalia
Normal bimanual exam
Normal speculum exam
Normal external male genitalia

1086
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes to genitourinary

findings?

A

Normal external female genitalia - NORMAL

Sores, Lesions, Rashes - Abnormal

1087
Q

What does Normal external female genitalia mean when it

comes to genitourinary findings?

A
Normal vula ( mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, bartholin
glands, and clitoris)

(Normal)

1088
Q

What do sores/lesions mean when it comes to genitourinary

findings?

A

Bumps on or around the vulva that may be itchy, painful
or produce discharge
(Abnormal)

1089
Q

What do rashes mean when it comes to genitourinary findings?

A

A spread of bumps, lesions, or irregular patches
of skin on the genitals
(Abnormal)

1090
Q

What are some normal findings when it comes to genitourinary

findings?

A

Normal bimanual exam ( female only ) - NORMAL

Cervical motion tenderness, Adnexal tenderness ( ABNORMAL)

1091
Q

What does bimanual exam mean when it comes to

genitourinary findings?

A

Method of evaluating the size, shape, and position of the
uterus

(NORMAL)

1092
Q

What does the normal bimanual exam mean when it comes to

genitourinary findings?

A

No pain with exam ( normal)

1093
Q

What does cervical motion tenderness mean when it

comes to genitourinary findings?

A

Pelvic exam finding characteristic for pelvic inflammatory disease
(PID)

(ABNORMAL)

1094
Q

What does adnexal tenderness mean when it comes to genitourinary
findings?

A

Pain caused by an adnexal mass, such as an ovarian cyst
or ecotopic pregnancy

(ABNORMAL)

1095
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings when it comes to genitourinary findings?

A

Normal - Normal speculum exam: cervical os closed no blood or
dischare in the vaginal vault

Abnormal - Cervical os open blood or malodorous/ discolored discharge
in the vault

1096
Q

What does Cervical OS mean when it comes to Genitourinary

Findings?

A

Opening of the cervix, when open indicates fetus
or egg will be passing through from the
uterus

(Abnormal)

1097
Q

What does Vaginal Discharge mean when it comes to genitourniary findings?

A

A mix of fluid and cells form the vagina that varies in color and consistency possible associated with an odor
(Abnormal)

1098
Q

What are some normal /abnormal findings when it comes to genitourinary findings?

A

Normal - Normal external male genitalia, Circumsized/uncircumsized

Abnormal -

Penile lesions, Penile Sores, Uretheral discharge
Indwelling catheter, Testicular tenderness, Scrotal Swelling,
Testicular mass
Inguinal hernia

1099
Q

What does urethral discharge mean when it comes to

genitourinary findings?

A

Abnormal purulent or mucoid secretions from the penis

Abnormal

1100
Q

What does circumsized/ uncircumsized mean when it comes

to genitourinary findings?

A

surgically removed foreskin/foreskin intact

normal

1101
Q

What does penile lesions/ sores mean when it comes to

genitourinary findings?

A

Bumps on or or around the penis that may be itchy, painful,
or produce discharge; may also be present on the scrotum
(Abnormal)

1102
Q

What does indwelling catheter mean when it comes to genitoruniary findings?

A

A.k.a. foley catheter, which can be left in the bladder to drain
urine

(Abnormal)

1103
Q

What does testicular tenderness mean when it

comes to genitourinary findings?

A

Pain when pressure is applied to on or both testicles

Abnormal

1104
Q

What does scrotal swelling mean when it comes to genitourinary findings?

A

an enlargement of the scrotal sac, which houses the testicles

1105
Q

What does testicular/ scrotal mass mean when it comes to

genitourinary findings?

A

An abnormal bulge or lump in the testicles inside the scrotum
(Abnormal)

1106
Q

What does inguinal hernia mean when it comes

to Genitourinary findings?

A

Hernia that forms in the region of the groin

ABNORMAL

1107
Q

What are common normal musculoskeletal, back, and extremity
findings?

(MASTERLIST: Musculoskeltal/Back/Extremities BODY SYSTEM)

ALL FINDINGS to muscles, bones, back, and extremities

A
Nontender bones/muscles
Full range of motion (extremities)
Normal muscle strength
Distal neurovascular intact
No bony deformity
Nontender back
No back deformity
Full range of motion (back)
1108
Q

What are normal findings related to the musculoskeletal

niche?

A

Normal - Nontender

Abnormal Findings - Bony tenderness, Soft tissue tenderness, Calf Tenderness

1109
Q

What does bony tenderness mean when it comes to musculo

skeletal findings?

A

pain with pressure applied over the bones

abnormal

1110
Q

What does soft tissue tenderness mean when it comes to musculo
skeletal findings?

A

Pain with pressure applied over the soft tissues

abnormal

1111
Q

What does calf tenderness mean when it comes to musculo

skeletal findings?

A

Pain in the calf muscle, indicative of DVT

abnormal

1112
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings when it comes

to musculoskeletal findings?

A

Normal - Full range of motion

Abnormal - Decreased/Limited range of motion

1113
Q

What does full range of motion mean when it comes to

musculoskeltal findings?

A

Good flexibility of a joint

normal

1114
Q

What does decreased/limited range of motion
mean when it comes to
musculoskeltal findings?

A

Poor flexibility of a join; may be limited by pain or underlying
disease/injury

(ABNORMAL)

1115
Q

What are some normal findings for musculoskeletal findings?

A

Normal - normal muscle strength

Abnormal - Muscle weakness

1116
Q

What is constituted as normal muscle strength?

A

0/5; no contraction
1/5: muscle flicker, but no movement
2/5: movement possible, but not against gravity
3/5: movement possible against gravity, but not against
resistance by the examiner
4/5: movement possible against some resistance by the examiner
5/5: NORMAL STR EVEYERHTING ELSE ABNORMAL

1117
Q

What does muscle weakness mean when it comes to

musculoskeltal findings?

A

Lack of muscle strength; rated on the 0 -5/5
scale

(ABNORMAL AF)

1118
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings when it comes to the

muskuloskeletal findings?

A

Normal - Distal neurovascular intact

Abnormal - Capillary refill delay, poor distal pulses, Edema

1119
Q

What does Distal neurovascularly intact mean when it

comes to Musculoskeltal findings?

A

Distal neuro and vascular functions are normal

NORMAL

1120
Q

What does capillary refill delay mean when it comes to

musculoskeltal findings?

A

Capillary refill time in the extremities >2 seconds

ABNORMAL

1121
Q

What does poor distal pulses mean when it comes

to musculoskeletal findings?

A

Reduced or absent arterial pulses that are a sign of impaired
blood flow

(Abnormal)

1122
Q

What does Edema mean when it comes to Musculoskeletal findings?

A

Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues
(ABNORMAL)

1123
Q

What are some normal/ abnormal findings when it comes

to Musculoskeletal findings?

A

Normal - no deformity

Abnormal - Joint laxity, Bony crepitus, Obvious deformity
Malalignment
Palpable cords
Homan’s sign

1124
Q

What does no deformity mean when it comes to musculorskelteal findings?

A

No abnormal structural changes

1125
Q

What does join laxity mean when

it comes to musculoskeltal findings?

A

Excessive flexibility of the ligaments and
tendons

(abnormal)

1126
Q

What does bony crepitus mean

when it comes to musculoskeltal findings?

A

Crackling sound produced by the rubbing
together of fragments of fractured bone
(Abnormal)

1127
Q

What does obvious deformity mean

when it comes to musculoskeltal findings?

A

Easily apparent misshapen appearance

of a, body part, usually an extremity

1128
Q

What does malalignment mean when it comes to

musculoskeltal findings?

A

Incorrect/imperfect alignment of teeth
or bones at a joint
(Abnormal)

1129
Q

What does palpable cords mean when it

comes to musculoskeletal findings?

A

Dilated superficial veins cuased
by obstruction of the deep venous system
that are felt through the sin

(abnormal)

1130
Q

What does Homan’s sign mean when it

comes to musculoskeltal findings?

A

Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot,
indicative of DVT
(Abnormal )

1131
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings
when it comes to the musculoskeltal
structure?

A

Normal - Nontender

Abnormal - T/L spine tenderness
CVA tenderness
Paraspinal muscle tenderness

1132
Q

What does Thoracic/Lumbar (T/L) bony spine tenderness
mean when it comes to
musculoskeletal findings?

A

Pain with pressure applied over the bones
of the spine
(Abnormal)

1133
Q

What does CVA tenderness mean when
it comes to musculoskeletal system
findings?

A

Pain in the costovertebral angle that overlies
the kidney

(Abnormal)

1134
Q

What does Paraspinal muscle tenderness
mean when it comes to muskuloskeltal
findings?

A

Pain in the muscles that surround and connect to the spine

ABNORMAL

1135
Q

What are some normal/abnormal

findings when it comes to back findings?

A

Normal - No deformity

Abnormal - Crepitus, Step-offs, Kyphosis

1136
Q

What does no deformity mean when it comes to back findings?

A

No abnormal structural changes

NORMAL

1137
Q

What does Bony crepitus mean when it comes to back findings?

A

Crackling sound produced by the rubbing together of fragments of fractured bone

(abnormal)

1138
Q

What does step-offs mean when it comes to back findings?

A

malalignment of bones that can be felt or seen

abnormal

1139
Q

What does kyphosis mean when it comes to back findings?

A

Excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back
(ABNORMAL)

1140
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings when it comes to back findings?

A

Normal - Full range of motions

Abnormal - Decreased/ limited range of
motion

1141
Q

What does full range of motion mean when it
comes to back findings?
(FROM)

A

Good point of flexibility of the spine

NORMAL

1142
Q

What does decreased/limited range of motion

(ROM) mean when it comes to back findings?

A

Poor flexibility of a the spine; may be limited by pain
or underlying disease/injury
(ABNORMAL)

1143
Q

What is the master list of all the normal neurological findings?

(MASTERLIST - BODY SYSTEM NEUROLOGICAL & Related to the Brain
and the nerves)

A
A/O x4
Normal speech
No focal neuro deficits
Normal sensation
Normal deep tendon reflexes
Normal gait
Normal finger-to-nose, heel-to-shin
Negative Romberg's 
No meningismus
1144
Q

What are some normal /abnormal findings for neurological findings?

A

Normal : A/O x4

Abnormal: Disoriented to 1 or more
Somnolent
Obtunded
Responsive only to voice/painful stimuli
Unresponsive 
Does not follow commands
1145
Q

What does A/Ox4 mean when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Alert and oriented to self, place, time, and situation

NORMAL

1146
Q

What does disoriented mean when it comes to neurological findings?

A

A usually transient state of confusion especially as to time, place, or
identity

(ABNORMAL)

1147
Q

What does somnolent mean when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Abnormally drowsy, but able to be roused

ABNORMAL

1148
Q

What does Obtunded mean when it comes to neurological

findings?

A

Awake, but not alert

ABNORMAL

1149
Q

What does responsive to only stimuli mean

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Unresponsive except to pain

ABNORMAL

1150
Q

What does Unresponsive mean when it comes

to neurological findings?

A

Unconscious and unrousable to any
stimuli
(Abnormal)

1151
Q

What does does not follow commands mean

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Awake and possibly responsive, but will
not participate in exam as instructed

(ABNORMAL)

1152
Q

What are some normal/abnormal neurological

findings?

A

Normal - Normal speech

Abnormal - Dysarthria
Dysphasia
Aphasia

1153
Q

What does Dysarthria mean when it comes

to neurological findings?

A

Slurred or slow speech

Abnormal

1154
Q

What does dysphasia mean when it comes to

neurological findings?

A

impairment of the power of expression by or ability
to understand speech, writing
or signs
(abnornmaL)

1155
Q

What does aphasia mean when it comes

to neurological findings?

A

Inability to speak , write , or understand
language

(ABNORMAL)

1156
Q

What are some normal findings/ abnormal

findings when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Normal - No focal neurodeficits
Normal (5/5 strength)

Abnormal Findings: Extremity weakness
Pronator drift
Decreased grip strength (< 5/5)
Tremors

1157
Q

What does no focal neuro deficits mean when it comes to neurlogical findings?

A

It means normal strength
5/5 is normal strength

4/5 movement possible against some resistance
3/5 movemetn possible against gravity but
not against resistance by the examiner
2/5 movement possible, but not against
gravity
1/5 muscle flicker, but no movement
0/5 no contraction

1158
Q

What does extremity weakness mean when

it comes to neurological findings?

A

Lack of strength in the extremeties;
rated on the 0-5/5 scale

(abnormal)

1159
Q

What does positive pronator drift mean

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Drift in one arm when a patient holds their arms
out in front of them, parallel

(abnormal)

1160
Q

What does grip strength mean when it

comes to neurological findings?

A

The force applied by the hands to squeeze

abnormal

1161
Q

What does tremors mean when it

comes to neurological findings?

A

An involuntary quivering movement

Abnormal

1162
Q

What are some neurological findings

both normal / abnormal?

A

Normal - normal sensation

Abnormal - Paresthesias
decreased sensation

1163
Q

What does paresthesias mean when it comes to

neurological findings?

A

Numbness/ tingling sensation

ABNORMAL

1164
Q

What are some normal findings/ abnormal

findings when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Normal deep tendon - NORMAL

Abnormally fast or slow reflexes - ABNORMAL

1165
Q

What does deep tendon reflexes mean when it comes to

neurological findings?

A

Muscle stretch reflexes

ABNORMAL

1166
Q

What does Normal DTR mean when it

comes to neurological findings?

A

Reflexes are symmetric and rated as 1+
2+ or 3+

(NORMAL!)

1167
Q

What does Abnormal DTR mean when it comes

to Neurological Findings?

A

Reflexes are asymmetric or rates as 0, 4+, or 5+ (too slow

[hyporflexia] or too fast [brisk])

1168
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

NORMAL - Cranial Nerves II- XII intact

ABNORMAL - Changes in neuro functions
that affect eyes to upper shoulders, including
the eyes

1169
Q

What is the coding sheet for cranial

nerves?

A
II- sight
III- eye movements
IV - eye movements
V - trigeminal nerve
VI - eye movements
VII - facial expression
VIII - hearing and balance
IX - oral sensation, taste, and salivation
X - Vagus nerve
XI- shoulder elevation and head- turning
XII- tongue movement

Normal finding = Cranial Nerves II- XII intact??

1170
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings on neurological

findings?

A

Normal - Normal gait

Abnormal - Ataxia

1171
Q

What does normal gait mean when it comes

to neurological findings?

A
Ability to walk in a straight line without loss
of balance (NORMAL)
1172
Q

What does ataxia mean when it comes

to neurological findings?

A

Lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements

abnormal

1173
Q

What are some abnormal + normal findings when it

comes to neurological findings?

A

NORMAL: Normal finger-to-nose
heel-to-shin

ABNORMAL: Dysmetria

1174
Q

What does finger-to-nose mean when

it comes to neurological findings?

A

The patient is instructed to touch the examiners
finger, then their own nose using the index finger
(NORMAL)

1175
Q

What is heel-to-shin mean when it comes

to Neurological findings?

A

The patient is instructed to slide the heel of their
foot down the top of the opposite shin as
quickly as possible without mistakes

(NORMAL)

1176
Q

What is dysmetria when it comes to

neurological findings?

A

The undershoot or overshoot of inteded
position; type of ataxia

(abnormal)

1177
Q

What are some normal and abnormal

signs when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Normal : NEGATIVE romberg’s sign

Abnormal: Positive Romberg’s sign

1178
Q

What does Negative Romberg’s sign

mean when it comes to neurological findings?

A

No loss of balance while standing in place
with eyes closed versus open

(NORMAL)

1179
Q

What does positive romberg’s sign mean

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Increased loss of balance while standing in
place with eyes closed versus open
(ABNORMAL)

1180
Q

What are some normal/abnormal findings

when it comes to neurological findings?

A

Normal - No meningismus

Abnormal findings: Meningismus

1181
Q

What does meningismus mean when it

comes to neurological findings?

A

Meningeal irritation with symptoms suggesting
meningitis
(ABNORMAL)

1182
Q

What are all the findings related to the behavirs
and mental state of the patient….

Common normal psychiatric findings?

(MASTER-LIST OF FINDINGS FOR
PSYCHIATRIC BODY SYSTEM all normal
terms)

A

Cooperative behavior
Appropriate mood and affect
Normal judgement
Non-suicidal

1183
Q

What are some normal and abnormal
findings when it comes to psychiatric
findings?

A

Normal - Cooperative behavior

Abnormal - Uncooperative, Belligerent, Relaxed

1184
Q

What does Cooperative mean when it comes to

psychiatric findings?

A

Agreeable and participated in exam without
issue

(NORMAL)

1185
Q

What does uncooperative mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

unagreeable and refuses to participate
in exam

(ABNORMAL)

1186
Q

What does belligerent mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

Hostile and aggressive

ABNORMAL

1187
Q

What does relaxed mean when it comes

to psychiatric findings?

A

Calm demeanor

ABNORMAL

1188
Q

What are some normal and abnormal
findings when it comes to psychiatric
findings?

A

Normal - Appropriate mood and affect

Abnormal - Anxious, Depressed, Tearful
Hostile, Flat, Paranoid

1189
Q

What does appropriate mood and affect

mean when it comes to psychiatric findings?

A

behaving appropriately to context and
situation
(NORMAL)

1190
Q

What does anxious mean when it comes

to psychiatric findings?

A

Experiencing worry, unease, or nervousness

1191
Q

What does depressed mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

State of general unhappiness or despondency

Abnormal

1192
Q

What does tearful mean when it comes

to psychiatric findings?

A

Crying or inclined to cry

abnormal

1193
Q

What does hostile mean when it comes to

psychiatic findings?

A

Unfriendly; antagonistic

Abnormal

1194
Q

What does flat affect mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

diminished emotional expression

Abnormal

1195
Q

What does paranoid mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

An unrealistic distrust of others

Abnormal

1196
Q

What are some normal/ abnormal findings

within the psychiatric findings niche?

A

Normal - Normal judgement

Abnormal Findings - Appears intoxicated

1197
Q

What does normal judgement mean when

it comes to psychiatric understandings?

A

Ability to evaluate aspects of a behavior or situat
and act or react appropriately

(NORMAL)

1198
Q

What does appearing intoxicated mean when

it comes to psychiatric understanding?

A

Stimulation, excitement or impaired judgement
caused by a chemical substance, or as if
by one

(Abnormal)

1199
Q

What are some general/ abnormal findings

within the psychiatric findings niche?

A

Normal - Non-suicidal

Abnormal - (Abnormal psychotic thoughts):

Suicidal
Homicidal
Hallucinations
Tangential
Flight of ideas
1200
Q

What does non-suicidal mean when it

comes to psychiatric understanding?

A

No thoughts of self-injury

NORMAL

1201
Q

What does suicidal/ homicidal mean

when it comes to psychiatric understanding?

A

Thoughts of hurting oneself or others

ABNORMAL

1202
Q

What does hallucinations mean

when it comes to psychiatric understanding?

A

Hearing or seeing things that are not there

“abnormal””””

1203
Q

What does tangential mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

A pattern of speech characterized by oblique,
digressive, or irrelevant replies to questions
(ABNORMAL)

1204
Q

What does flight of ideas mean when it

comes to psychiatric findings?

A

A rapid of shifting of ideas with only superficial
associative connections between them
expressed as a disconnected rambling from
subject to subject
(ABNORMAL)

1205
Q

What does the medical decision making include and where is this most often seen? (MDM)

A

The MDM section includes documentation for everything
that occurred to or for the patient during their
visit.

The MDM section most often seen in Acute
Care settings. in Ambulatory Care settings, many of the sections
documented in the MDM are recoded
in their own section..

1206
Q

What information is documented in the MDM section? (The medical decision making section.)

A
Differential diagnosis
Diagnostic Studies
Procedures
Reevaluations
Consultations
1207
Q

What is the differential diagnosis?

aka the differential..

A

An initial list of possible conditions or diseases that could be causing the patient’s symptoms

1208
Q

What is an example of differential diagnosis?

A

A patient presents for evaluation complaining of a cough and shortness of breath… so the differential diagnosis is…

  • Asthma
  • Bronchitis
  • Pneumonia
  • Viral upper respiratory infection
  • Influenza
1209
Q

Some providers may dictate a patient’s differential diagnosis to the
scribe who will…

A

record it verbatim into the MDM….

depends on the provider. Some may just document it themselves.

1210
Q

Why will provider often order diagnostic testing?

A

They can further narrow down from differential diagnosis to final diagnosis

Typically only one, or in rare cases two, of the differential diagnoses are determined to be the final cause a patient’s symptoms.

1211
Q

What are diagnostic studies?

A

Any form of testing used to help evaluate a patient’s condition

EX:
Labs
Imaging
Other testing, such as electrocardiograms (EKGs)

1212
Q

Where are diagnostic studies tests included in when documented into the
note?

A

They are included in the MDM in the form of orders and results

1213
Q

Who writes orders?

A

Orders are written by the provider indicating to the team what diagnostic
tests need to be completed

1214
Q

What are results?

A

A written final report from a radiologist or other healthcare professional
who interprets the raw data and creates a written summary of what the
test shows

1215
Q

What are laboratory studies, or labs?

A

They are a form of diagnostic testing which involves examning a sample of blood
urine or other bodily fluid.

1216
Q

What can Labs or laboratory studies help a provider with?

A

They can help them determine a diagnosis, plan treatment, check
to see if a treatment is working, or monitor a disease over time.

Lab tests are often part of a routine follow up to look for changes in the health
of a patient.

1217
Q

What are imaging studies or imaging?

A

A form of diagnostic testing performed with a variety of techniques that produce
pictures of the inside of a patient’s body for the purpose of making a clinical
decision, such as a treatment or diagnosis

1218
Q

What are some common imaging studies?

A
X-rays
Computed (Axial) Tomography
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
>Magnetic Resonance Angiography
>Magnetic Resonance Venography
Nuclear Imaging
>Ventilation/ perfusion scans
>Stress tests
1219
Q

What are procedures?

A

Any activity directed at or performed on a patient with

the purpose of improving health, treating disease or injury, or determining a diagnosis

1220
Q

What are examples of procedures?

A
Foreign Body Removal
Pap smear
Laceration Repair
Intubation
CPR
1221
Q

What are re-evaluations?

aka reevals or reexams?

A

Any instance when the provider’s attention is brought back to the patient’s
case after the initial evaluation

They usually consist of updates on the patient case, such as a reassessment of the patient’s condition

1222
Q

What is an example of a reevaluation?

A

2034 - On reexam, patient reports feeling improved after ibuprofen 800 mg.
Still reporting nausea and one episode of vomiting despite medication. Will order
additional dose. Pending CT imaging.

1223
Q

What are reevals also known as? And are they subjective?

A

AKA - reevaluations or reexams

They’re actually objective!

1224
Q

What are consultations or consults?

A

Any instance when the provider speaks with another healthcare professional
for assistance on the patient’s case.

This health care professional is often a specialist in their field (Cardiologist,
Pharmacist, Social Worker, etc.) who will make recommendations on
the patient and/or their case.

1225
Q

What is an example of a consultation?

A

1809 - Called and spoke with Dr. Murphy OG/GYN, and discussed patient’s case at length. Recommended ultrasound to evaluate for ovarian cyst. Will
see patient in the ED.

1226
Q

Are consultations objective or subjective?

A

They are objective!

1227
Q

What is a lab study?

A

A form of diagnostic testing which involves examining

a sample of blood, urine, or other bodily fluid.

1228
Q

What do basic lab tests that are ordered the most do?

A

Allow the physician to evaluate multiple systems at a glance

EX: of common basic labs are…

Complete blood count
Basic metabolic panel
Comprehensive metabolic panel

1229
Q

What is a complete blood count or CBC?

A

A lab that is often ordered to look at the levels of different
levels of blood cells.

1230
Q

What are main components of a CBC blood count?

A
Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)
White Blood Cell Count (WBC)
Hemoglobin (Hb)
Hematocrit (Hct)
Platelets (Plt)
1231
Q

What is a red blood cell count or RBC?

A

A total count of the cells the body uses to transport oxygen
to and carbon dioxide away from your cells

NORMAL: Roughly 4-6 and varies from sites

1232
Q

What is it called if there is high red blood cell count?

A

Polycythemia (ABNORMAL)

1233
Q

What is it called if there is a low red blood cell count from a
RBC?

A

Anemia

1234
Q

What is white blood cell count or WBC?

A

A total count of the cells the body uses to fight infections
from bacteria, viruses, parasites, fungi, etc.

Normal range: Roughly 4 - 11

Normal ranges may vary from site to site

1235
Q

What is the term for high white blood cell count?

A

Leukocytosis!

1236
Q

What is the term for low blood cell count?

A

Leukopenia!

1237
Q

What does hemoglobin (Hb) and hematocrit (Hct) components

of the CBC measure?

A

It measures the levels of hemoglobin (blood protein) and
hematocrit (percentage of red blood cells to the whole
volume of blood) in the blood.

Normal range:
Hb: Roughly 12 - 17.5, varies by gender
Hct: Roughly 37 - 52% varies by gender

1238
Q

What is the term if the CBC measures a low /high level of platelets?

A

LOW: Thrombocytosis
HIGH: Thrombocytopenia

1239
Q

What is the difference between an H&H and a CBC?

A

H&H is a lab that is only looking at characteristics of

red blood cells.

1240
Q

What are the terms for high and low blood count from a

CBC blood test?

A

HIGH- Polycythemia

LOW - Anemia

1241
Q

What is the platelet (Plt)?

A

This is the component of the CBC that measure the level of
platelets in the blood, which are cell fragments that are responsible
for blood clotting.

1242
Q

What is the normal range for platelets?

A

Roughly 150 - 450

Varies from site to site

1243
Q

What is the normal range for platelets??

A

Roughly 150 - 450

Varies from site to site

1244
Q

What is a basic metabolic panel or BMP?

A

A lab often ordered to look at kidney function
electrolytes, acid/base balance, and the blood
glucose level, all of which have a hand in
metabolism

1245
Q

What are the main components of

BMP?

A
Glucose
Calcium (Ca)
Potassium (K)
Sodium (Na)
Chloride (Cl)
Carbon dioxide/ Bicarbonate (CO2)
Anion gap
Blood urea nitrogen
Creatinine
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
1246
Q

What is the glucose component of the bMP?

A
This component measures the concentration
of glucose (sugar) in the blood

NORMAL: Roughly 70 - 100 mg/ dL

1247
Q

What is the term for high/ low glucose count

in a Basic Metabolic Panel?

A

HIGH: Hyperglycemia

LOW: Hypoglycemia

1248
Q

What does the electrolyte component of BMP

measure?

A

It measures the concentration of
various electrolytes - Calcium (Ca), Potassium (K),
Sodium (Na), and Chloride (Cl) - in the blood

1249
Q

What are the normal ranges for
Calcium (Ca), Potassium (K), Sodium (Na), and
Chloride (Cl) in the blood?

A

Normal Range:

  • Ca: 8 - 10 mg/dL
  • K 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L
  • Na: 135 - 15 mEq/L
  • Cl 96 - 106 mEq/L
1250
Q

What are the terms for high and low Ca count in a BMP?

A

HIGH: Hypercalcemia

LOW: Hypocalcemia

1251
Q

What are the terms for high / low count for Sodium (Na) in a BMP?

A

HIGH: Hypernatermia

LOW: Hyponatremia

1252
Q

What is the term for a high and low count of Potassium (K) in a BMP?

A

High: Hyperkalemia

Low: Hypokalemia

1253
Q

What is the term for high / low Chloride count in a BMP?

A

HIGH: Hyperchloremia

LOW: Hypochloremia

1254
Q

What is the carbon dioxide component of the BMP also called and what does it measure?

A

It is also called “bicarbonate” or “bicarb”, and it measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood, which helps to balance its acidity.

1255
Q

What is the normal range for carbon dioxide in a BMP?

A

23 - 30 mEq/L

varies from site to site

1256
Q

What is it called when carbon dioxide count is high / low in a BMP?

A

High: Alkalosis
Low: Acidosis

1257
Q

What is the anion gap component of a BMP?

A

A measurement of the difference - or gap - between the negatively and positively charged electrolytes.

1258
Q

What happens if an anion gap is too high or too low?

A

It may be a sign of a disorder in the lungs, kidneys, or other organ systems.

1259
Q

What is the normal range for an anion gap?

A

Normal range: Roughly 3 - 10 mEq/L

1260
Q

What is the term if the anion gap is high / low?

A

HIGH: Acidosis

LOW: Hypoalbuminemia

1261
Q

What is the blood urea nitrogen or “BUN” component of a BMP and what does it measure?

A

The BMP measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea.

1262
Q

What is the normal range for a blood urea nitrogen or “BUN”?

A

Normal range: Roughly 7 - 20 mg/ dL

Varies depending n site

1263
Q

What is the term for a high blood urea nitrogen or low blood urea nitrogen count?

A

HIGH: Renal insufficiency

LOW: Normal

1264
Q

What is creatinine component of the BMP?

A

A waste product that forms when creatine in the muscles break down. It measures the level of creatinine in the blood.

1265
Q

What is the normal range for creatinine?

A

Roughly 0.5 - 1.2 mg/dL

Normal ranges may vary from site to site

1266
Q

What is the term if creatinine is high/low?

A

High: Renal insufficiency
Low: Normal

1267
Q

What is glomerular filtration rate or “GFR”?

A

A component of the BMP that measures how much blood is being filtered through the kidneys per minute.

1268
Q

What is the normal range for glomerular filtration rate?

A

Normal range: Roughly 90 - 120 mL/ min, but may be lower in the elderly and can
vary by race

1269
Q

What is the term for a high/ low level for glomerular fiiltration rate in a
BMP?

A

HIGH: :Normal

LOW: Renal insufficiency

1270
Q

What is a comprehensive metabolic panel or CMP?

A

This is a lab often ordered to look at all the same things

as a BMP, PLUS A LIVER FUNCTION!!!

1271
Q

What are the main components of a CMP?

A

*Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP
*Albumin
*Total Protein
*Liver Function Tests
> Alkaline phosphatase (Alk phos)
>Alanine aminotrasnferase (ALT)
>Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
>Bilirubin

1272
Q

What are the components that are covered by the BMP?

A
Glucose
Calcium
Potassium 
Sodium
Chloride
Carbon dioxide/ Bicarbonate (CO2)
Anion Gap
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
Creatinine
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
1273
Q

What does the albumin component of the CMP measure?

A

It measures the level of albumin, a protein produced by the liver
in the blood

1274
Q

What is the normal range for albumin in a CMP?

A

3.4 - 5. g/dL

Normal ranges may vary from site to site

1275
Q

What does a high/low level of albumin indicate

A

High: Infections/ Physical Stress
Low: Liver/Kidney disease

1276
Q

What does the total protein component of the CMP measure?

A

It measures the total amount of albumin and globulin, two types
of proteins in the blood.

1277
Q

What is the normal range for Comprehensive Metabolic

Panel?

A

Roughly 6 - 8.3 g/dL

Normal varies depending on the site

1278
Q

What does a high level/ low level of total protein in a CMP

signify?

A

HIGH: Autoimmune disease
LOW: Liver/kidney disease

1279
Q

What is a liver function test or LFT?

A

Are a group of a blood tests that provide information about the state of a patient’s liver

1280
Q

What are the main components for a live function test?

A

*Alkaline phosphatase (Alk phos, ALP)
*Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
*Aspartate aminotransferase (ASE)
Bilirubin

1281
Q

What is the alkaline phosphatase (Alk Phos) component

of the CMP and what does it measure?

A

It measures the level of alkaline phosphatase in
the blood. Alk phos is an enyzme that helps the body break
down proteins and is released by liver.

1282
Q

What is the normal range for alkalkine phosphatase?

A

Normal Range: Roughly 20 - 140 IU/L

1283
Q

What is the term for high/low level of alkaline phosphatase in a
CMP?

A

High - Liver/ gallbladder disease

Low - Malnutrition

1284
Q

What is the alanine aminotransferase or “ALT” component

of the CMP?

A

This measures the levels of ALT, another live enzyme, in the blood

1285
Q

What is the normal range for alanine aminotransferase

in CMP?

A

7 - 5 IU/L

1286
Q

What does a high / low level of alanine aminotransferase

indicate… whats the term?

A

HIGH - Liver disease ( hepatitis)

LOW - Normal

1287
Q

What is the aspartate aminotransferase or “AST” component

of the CMP?

A

It measures the level of AST, another live enzyme, in the blood

1288
Q

What is the normal range for aspartate aminotransferase in a CMP?

A

10 - 40 IU/ L

1289
Q

What does a high / low level of aspartate aminotransferase

indicate… whats the term ??

A

HIGH - liver disease ( hepatitis)

LOW - Normal

1290
Q

What is the bilirubin component of a CMP and what does

it measure?

A

It measure the level of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is an orange- yellow pigment that occurs normally when part of your red blood
cells break down.

1291
Q

What is the normal range for bilirubin in a CMP?

A

Normal range: Roughly 0.3 - 1.9 mg/dL

1292
Q

What does a high / low level of bilirubin in CMP indicate?

A

HIGH: Hyperbilirubinemia / liver disease

LOW: Normal

1293
Q

What are coagulation factors?

A

The labs that are ordered to evaluate the patients ability to form blood clots

1294
Q

What are common coagulation factors?

A

Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR)

Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)

1295
Q

What is the prothrombin time or “PT” test?

A

This is a test that measures how long it takes

the blood to clot

1296
Q

How is the international normalized ratio or INR calculated?

A

It is calculated from the PT as a measure of how
well blood thinning medications are working. These
results are reported together as PT/ INR

1297
Q

What is normal range for PT and INR?

A

PT: 11 - 13.5 seconds
INR: Below 1.1 in healthy patients and between 2.0 - 3.0
in patients who are anticoagulated

1298
Q

What does a high/ low level of PT/INR indicate?

A

This would vary by case and

anticoagulation therapy

1299
Q

What is the partial thromboplastin time or “PTT”test and what does it measure?

A

A test that measuress the time it takes for a blood clot to form.

1300
Q

What is the normal range for a PTT test

that it takes for a blood clot to form?

A

Normal: 60 - 70 seconds in healthy patients and 1.5 - 2.5x that range in anticoagulated patients

1301
Q

If the PTT is high/low these are the terms

A

HIGH - Hemophilia

LOW - Hypercoagulopathy

1302
Q

What are Cardiac tests?

A

The labs that are ordered to evaluate the health

of the patient’s heart and vasculature

1303
Q

What are some common cardiac labs?

A
  • Troponin ( TROP)
  • D-dimer
  • Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
  • Creatine Kinase (CK)
1304
Q

What is a troponin or “trop” ?

A

A test that measures the level of troponin in the
blood. Troponin is a complex of three regulatory
proteins that is released when there is muscle damage.

1305
Q

What is the normal range for a troponin test?

A

0 - 0.4 ng/mL

Normal ranges may vary from site to site

1306
Q

What are the terms for Positive/high & Negative/ Low

level of troponin?

A

POSITIVE/ HIGH: nSTEMI, heart damage

NEGATIVE/LOW: Normal

1307
Q

What is a D-dimer test?

A

A test that measures the amount of a protein
fragment, D-dimer, that becomes present in
the blood as it is released by a blood clot

1308
Q

What is the normal range for a D-dimer test?

A

Less than 0.50

Normal varies from site to site

1309
Q

What are the terms for a positive/ negative indiactor

for the D-dimer test?

A

POSITIVE: Nonspecific thrombus

NEGATIVE: Normal

1310
Q

What is a brain natriueretic peptide or “BNP” test

A

is a blood test that measures levels of the protein BNP that is made by the
heart and blood vessels

1311
Q

What are the normal ranges for a

brain natriueretic peptide or a BNP test?

A

Less than 100 pg/mL

1312
Q

What are the terms for a low/ high level

of a brain natriuretic peptide?

A

High: Heart failure
LOW: Normal

1313
Q

What is a creatine kinase or “CK” test?

A

A test that measures the levels of creatine kinase in the blood. CK is an enzyme found in multiple tissues throughout the body that is released when there is muscle damage.

1314
Q

What is the normal range for a creatine kinase or “CK” test?

A

Roughly 22 - 298 U/L

1315
Q

What are the terms for a high / low measurement of creatine kinase?

A

HIGH : Muscle damage

LOW: Normal

1316
Q

What are cholesterol tests?

A

Labs that are ordered to evaluate a patient’s cholesterol, or the blood fat (lipid) content. Also referred to as a “lipid panel”

1317
Q

What is a lipid panel?

A

Another word for blood faat (lipid ) content

1318
Q

What are the common cholesterol labs?

A

Total cholesterol
Trigylcerids
High-density Lipoprotein (HDL)
Low-density Lipoprotein (LDL)

1319
Q

What does the total cholesterol component of a lipid panel measure?

A

This measures the total amount of cholesterol in the blood and this includes HDL, LDL, and triglycerides

1320
Q

What is the normal range for a total cholesterol test?

A

Ideal level is less than 200 mg/dl

1321
Q

What are the high / low measurements for total cholesterol tests?

A

High - Hyperlipidemia

Low - Normal

1322
Q

What is the triglyceride component of the lipid panel and what does it measure?

A

Trigylcerides are another type of lipid ( fat) that make up typical body
fat. They measure the level of triglycerides in the blood.

1323
Q

What is the normal range for a triglyceride component in a cholesterol test?

A

High - Hyperlipidemia

Low - Normal

1324
Q

What is the high-density lipoprotein or HDL component of the lipid panel?

A

HDL is known as “good cholesterol: which helps clean arteries out. HDL component of the lipid panel measures the levels of high-density lipoprotein
in the blood.

1325
Q

What is the ideal level of high-density lipoprotein in the blood?

A

over 60 mg/dL

1326
Q

What is a high/ low level of high-density lipoprotein or HDL?

A

Hyperlipidemia - HIGH

Normal (as long as levels are above 40 mg/dL)

1327
Q

What is low-density lipoprotein or “LDL” and what does it measure?

A

LDL is known as the “bad cholesterol” that clogs arteries. The LDL component of a lipid test measures the level of low-density lipoproteins in the blood.

1328
Q

What is a normal range of low-density lipoprotein or “LDL” in the lipid panel?

A

HIGH - Hyperlipidemia

Low - Normal

1329
Q

What lab would you order to evaluate if a patient has an infection?

A

Infectious markers…

test results would be positive or negative

1330
Q

What are common labs that indicate infection?

A

Lactic acid (Lactate)
Procalcitonin (Procal)
Help T-cell Count (CD4 count)

1331
Q

What is lactic acid or “lactate” and what does this measure?

A

A lactic acid or “lactate” measures the level of lactic acid in the blood. Lac

1332
Q

What is the normal range for lactic acid in an infectious marker?

A

0.5 - 1 mmol/L

Normal ranges vary from site to site

1333
Q

What does a high range of lactic acid / low range of lactic acid ( Lactate)
mean?

A

HIGH - Systemic infection

LOW - Normal

1334
Q

What is a procalcitonin or procal test?

A

This test measures the level of procalcitonin in the blood as an indicator
of risk for severe infection

(infectious markers)

1335
Q

What is the normal range for procalcitonin or procal test?

A

0.10 - 0.49 ng/mL

1336
Q

What does a high/low level of procal or procalcitonin mean?

A

HIGH - Possible sepsis

LOW - Normal

1337
Q

What is a CD4 or Help T-cell count measure?

A

It is an infectious marker

It measures the level of helper T-cells, a specific type of white blood cell that plays a role in activating the immune system in response to
invaders

1338
Q

What is the normal range for CD4 / Helper T-cell count?

A

Roughly 500 - 1,500

1339
Q

What does a high / low level of CD4 or Helper T-cell count

mean?

A

HIGH - Typical infection

LOW - Active HIV infection

1340
Q

What is the list of infection markers?

A

Procal
Lactate
CD4

1341
Q

What are inflammatory markers?

A

The labs ordered to evaulate if a patient has inflammation, or swelling, ss a reaction to an irritant. Test will be positive or elevated if inflammation is present.

1342
Q

What are common labs that indicate inflammation?

A
  • C- reactive protein (CRP)

* Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate ( ESR, Sed rate_

1343
Q

What is a C-reactive protein or CRP test?

A

A test that measures the level of c-reactive protein in the blood which increases when there is inflammation

1344
Q

What is the normal range for a C-reactive protein or CRP test?

A

Less than 3.0 mg/ L

1345
Q

What is the term for a high / low level of c-reative protein?

A

HIGH - Nonspecific Inflammation

LOW - Normal

1346
Q

What is an erythrocyte sedimentation rate ( aka sed rate or esr)?

A

A rate that measures how long it takes for red blood cells to settle atthe bottom of a test tube. Typically, the ESR is relatively slow; ot becomes faster when there is inflammation

1347
Q

What is the normal range for erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

A

Roughly 1 - 13 ..//hr for males and 1 - 20 mm/hr for females

1348
Q

What is the term for high/ low level of erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

A

HIGH - inflammation / infection

LOW - Normal

1349
Q

What are the inflammatory markers that are paired together?

A

CRP + ESR

C-reactive protein
+
erythrocyte sedimentation rate

1350
Q

Why would a thyroid test be orderder?

A

To evaluate the function of the patients thyroid

1351
Q

What are the three common thyroid labs?

A
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Free Thyroxine (T4)
Free Triiodothyronine (T3)
1352
Q

What is a thyroid stimulating hormone or a “TSH” test?

A

A test that measure the level of TSH in the blood. TSH is responsible
for prompting the thryroid to produce a variety of hormones.

1353
Q

What is the normal range for a thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Normal : 0.4 - 4.0 mlU/L

Normal ranges may vary from site to site

1354
Q

What is a high / low level of thyroid stimualting hormone signify?

A

HIGH - Hypothyroidism

LOW - Hyperthyroidism

1355
Q

What is a free thyrone or “T4” measure?

A

A test that measures the levels of unbound T4, the thyroid
hormone thyroxine, in the blood. T4 levels fluctuate with thyroid
dysfunction

1356
Q

What is the normal range for free thyroxine or T4?

A

Normal range: Roughly 5.0 - 12.0 μg/dL

1357
Q

What is the high/ low term for measurement of freethyroxine or T4?

A

HIGH - Hyperthyroidism

LOW - Hypothyroidism

1358
Q

What is A free triiodothyronine or “T3” ?

A

A free triiodothyronine or “T3” measures the levels of unbound T3, the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine, in the blood. T3 levels fluctuate with thyroid dysfunction.

1359
Q

What is the normal range for free triiodothyronine or “T3”

A

Normal range: Roughly 100 - 200 ng/dL

1360
Q

What are the terms for high/low free triiodothyronine or “T3” ?

A

HIGH
Hyperthyroidism
LOW
Hypothyroidism

1361
Q

What are the three thyroid tests?

A

TSH

+

T4

+

T3

1362
Q

What are diabetes tests?

A

Diabetes tests are the labs ordered to screen for diabetes or evaluate complications related to diabetes.

1363
Q

What the The common diabetes labs?:

A
Hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c)
Ketones
1364
Q

What is a A hemoglobin A1c or “Hb A1c?

A

A hemoglobin A1c or “Hb A1c” measures the levels of hemoglobin that is chemically linked to a sugar molecule in the blood. An A1c can tell the blood sugar levels over the last 2 - 3 months.

1365
Q

What is the normal range for A hemoglobin A1c or “Hb A1c?

A

Normal range: Less than 6.0%

1366
Q

What are the high/ low levels hemoglobin A1c or “Hb A1c” referred to as?

A

HIGH
Diabetes mellitus
LOW
Normal

1367
Q

What is a serum ketones test?

A

serum ketones test measures the level of ketones in the blood. Ketones are a type of acid produced when the body is not able to break down enough sugar into energy.

1368
Q

What is the normal range for a serum ketones test?

A

Normal range: Less than 20 mg/dL

1369
Q

What do high/ levels of serum ketones mean?

A

HIGH
Diabetic ketoacidosis
LOW
Normal

1370
Q

What are both of the diabetes tests?

A

Hb A1c

+

Ketones

1371
Q

What are Hepatic and pancreatic function tests?

A

Hepatic and pancreatic function tests are the labs ordered to evaluate the function of the liver and pancreas outside of what is included in a CMP.

1372
Q

What are common Hepatic and pancreatic function tests?

A

Ammonia (NH3)
Lipase
Amylase

1373
Q

What is an ammonia or “NH3” test?

A

An ammonia or “NH3” test measures the level of ammonia in the blood. The liver typically turns ammonia into urea, which is secreted in the urine, unless there is liver damage preventing the conversion to urea.

1374
Q

What is the normal range for ammonia or “NH3” test?

A

Roughly 15 - 45 µ/dL

1375
Q

What are the terms for high/ low level of ammonia or NH3 test

A

HIGH
Encephalopathy (liver dysfunction)
LOW
Normal

1376
Q

What is a A lipase test ?

A

A lipase test measures the level of the protein lipase in the blood. Lipase is released by the pancreas to help digest fats and levels fluctuate when there is pancreatic dysfunction.

1377
Q

What is the normal range for a A lipase test ?

A

Normal range: Roughly 23 - 85 U/L

1378
Q

What do high and low terms for lipase test mean?

A

HIGH & LOW

Pancreatic dysfunction

1379
Q

What is An amylase test?

A

An amylase test measures the level of the protein amylase in the blood. Amylase is released by the pancreas to help digest carbohydrates and levels fluctuate when there is pancreatic dysfunction.

1380
Q

What is the normal range for An amylase test?

A

Normal range: Roughly 23 - 85 U/L

1381
Q

What do high and low levels in an amylase test signify?

A

HIGH

LOW

Pancreatic dysfunction

1382
Q

What are pregnancy test ?

A

Pregnancy tests are labs ordered to evaluate for the presence of pregnancy and monitor its progression by measuring the levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the mother’s blood.

1383
Q

What are common pregnancy labs?

A

Qualitative hCG

Quantitative hCG

1384
Q

What is a A qualitative hCG test?

A

A qualitative hCG test is a yes/no measure of pregnancy. It detects hCG in the mother’s urine or blood, but does not put a number to it.

1385
Q

What is the normal range for a A qualitative hCG ?

A

Normal range:
Not pregnant: < 5 mIU/mL
Pregnant: > 20 mIU/mL, sometimes as low as 6.3 mIU/mL
Between 6 and 24 mIU/mL is a grey area indicating a need for retesting

1386
Q

What does a high / low level for qualitative hCG mean??

A

HIGH
Pregnancy
LOW
No pregnancy

1387
Q

What is a A quantitative hCG test?

A

A quantitative hCG test is a numerical measure of pregnancy. It detects and measures the specific level of hCG in the mother’s blood.

1388
Q

What is a normal range for A quantitative hCG test?

A

Normal range:
Not pregnant: < 5 mIU/mL
Pregnant: > 25 mIU/mL, should increase exponentially throughout the first trimester
Between 6 and 24 mIU/mL is a grey area indicating a need for retesting

Normal ranges may vary from site to site.

1389
Q

What do high and low levels for a A quantitative hCG test signify?

A
HIGH
Pregnancy
LOW or 
DECREASING
No pregnancy/
miscarriage
1390
Q

What are the pregnancy tests??

A

Qualitative hCG

+

Quantitative hCG

1391
Q

What are Urine tests ?

A

Urine tests are labs ordered to evaluate the contents of the urine for things like infection and kidney failure.

1392
Q

What are examples of common urine labs?

A

The common urine labs are:
Urinalysis
Urine Culture

1393
Q

A urinalysis or “UA”

A

A urinalysis or “UA” is a lab often ordered to look at the condition of the urine.

1394
Q

Main components of A urinalysis or “UA”

A
Main Components
Color
Appearance
Glucose
Bilirubin
Ketones
Specific gravity
Blood
pH
Protein
Urobilinogen
Nitrites
Leukocyte esterase
White blood cells (WBC)
Epithelial cells
1395
Q

Urine color can indicate …

A

Urine color can indicate a number of things including hydration level and presence of blood.

1396
Q

Urine color normal range?

A

Shades of yellow

1397
Q

Urine color terms for scoring positive or negative

A
POSITIVE
Red, pink - hematuria
Amber - dehydration
NEGATIVE
Normal
1398
Q

Urine appearance can indicate

A

Urine appearance can indicate the presence of white blood cells.

Normal range: Clear

1399
Q

Urine appearance positive and negative terms…

A

POSITIVE
Hazy - possible cystitis
NEGATIVE
Normal

1400
Q

Urine glucose testing can help do what?

A

Urine glucose testing can help determine blood sugar levels. When they are too high, glucose will be eliminated in the urine.

1401
Q

Urine glucose testing normal range?

A

Roughly 0 - 0.8 mmol/L

1402
Q

Urine glucose testing - positive and negative testing terms?

A

POSITIVE
Hyperglycemia
NEGATIVE
Normal

1403
Q

Urine bilirubin levels can be used to?

A

Urine bilirubin levels can be used to evaluate liver function. Bilirubin is dumped into the urine for elimination when there is liver dysfunction.

1404
Q

Urine bilirubin levels normal range?

A

None

1405
Q

Urine bilirubin levels - positive and negative terms

A

POSITIVE
Liver disease
NEGATIVE
Normal

1406
Q

Urine ketone levels can be used to…

A

Urine ketone levels can be used to evaluate risk for diabetic ketoacidosis. Elevated urine ketones indicate the body is burning fat because there isn’t enough sugar.

1407
Q

Urine ketone levels normal range

A

None

1408
Q

Urine ketone levels positive and negative terms

A

POSITIVE
Diabetic ketoacidosis (in diabetic patients)
NEGATIVE
Normal

1409
Q

What is Urine specific gravity?

A

Urine specific gravity is the measure of the concentration of solutes in urine and used to evaluate hydration level and kidney function.

1410
Q

Urine specific gravity normal range?

A

roughly 1.010 - 1.030

1411
Q

Urine specific gravity - high and low levels?

A
HIGH
High urine concentration - dehydration
LOW
Low urine concentration -good/
overhydration
1412
Q

What can blood in the urine indicate?

A

Blood in the urine can be an indicator of infection or kidney dysfunction, but can also indicate more benign conditions.

Normal range: None

1413
Q

Blood in urine - POSITIVE/ NEGATIVE TERMS

urinalysis

A

POSITIVE
Hematuria
NEGATIVE
Normal

1414
Q

What does Urine pH measure?

A

Urine pH measures the acidity or alkalinity of the urine and is used to evaluate risk for kidney stones. Things such as diet and medications can affect urine pH.

1415
Q

What does a normal range of Urine PH look like?

A

Roughly 6.0 (slightly acidic)

Can range from 4.5 - 8.0

1416
Q

What are the terms for high/ low Urine PH?

A

HIGH
Alkalosis
LOW
Acidosis

1417
Q

Elevated urine protein can be an indication…

A

Elevated urine protein can be an indication of kidney dysfunction.

1418
Q

Elevated urine protein normal range?

A

0 - 20 mg/dL

1419
Q

Elevated urine protein - positive/ negative terms?

A

POSITIVE
Proteinuria
NEGATIVE
Normal

1420
Q

Elevated urine urobilinogen can be an indication of…

A

Elevated urine urobilinogen can be an indication of liver dysfunction. Urobilinogen is produced when the intestines reduce bilirubin.

1421
Q

elevated urine urobilinogen normal range?

A

Normal range: Roughly 0.1 - 1.8 mg/dL

1422
Q

elevated urine urobilinogen positive and negative terms?

A

POSITIVE
Liver disease
NEGATIVE
Normal

1423
Q

The presence of nitrites in the urine is a specific indicator of?

A

The presence of nitrites in the urine is a specific indicator of bacterial infection of the urinary tract. Some bacteria are able to convert nitrates into nitrites, resulting in nitrites being present in the urine.

1424
Q

The presence of nitrites in the urine has a normal range of…

A

NONE

1425
Q

The presence of nitrites in the urine - POSITIVE AND NEG TERMS

A

POSITIVE
Cystitis
NEGATIVE
Normal

1426
Q

The presence of leukocyte esterase in the urine?

A

The presence of leukocyte esterase in the urine is used as an indicator that there are white blood cells in the urine. Leukocyte esterase is produced by white blood cells.

1427
Q

The presence of leukocyte esterase normal range

A

none

1428
Q

The presence of leukocyte esterase in the urine - POSITIVE

AND NEG TERMS

A

POSITIVE
Nonspecific urinary tract infection
NEGATIVE
Normal

1429
Q

White blood cells or WBCs in urinalysis?

A

White blood cells or WBCs are able to be visualized in the urine during a microscopic urinalysis. The presence of these cells indicate infection.

1430
Q

Normal range of white blood cells in urinalysis?

A

Normal range: Roughly 0 - 5 WBCs

1431
Q

White blood cells or WBCs in urinalysis POSITIVE AND NEG

TERMS?

A

POSITIVE
Nonspecific urinary tract infection
NEGATIVE
Normal

1432
Q

Epithelial cells summary in urinalysis tests

A

Epithelial cells line the urinary tract and can contaminate urine specimens if the urethral opening is not cleaned prior to urine catch. They can also indicate infection in the presence of other positive indicators.

1433
Q

Epithelial cells line in normal range - urinalysis tests?

A

Normal range: Roughly 1 - 5 cells/HPF

1434
Q

Epithelial cells in urinalysis - HIGH/ LOW LEVELS?

A

HIGH
Contaminated sample/infection
LOW
Normal

1435
Q

What is a A urine culture?

A

A urine culture is a lab often ordered to evaluate the urine for presence of organisms in the urine that can cause infections. Cultures are meant to grow out certain organisms over others to help medical professionals determine the best treatment for each infection.

1436
Q

What are main components of a urine culture?

A

Main Components
Bacterial Growth
Urine culture sensitivity

1437
Q

What is a urine culture?

A

A urine culture is a test that looks for bacterial growth. If there is growth, the bacteria are placed on a microscope slide where they are stained and observed to determine what type of organism is causing the infection.

1438
Q

What a normal range for a urine culture?

A

Normal range: No growth

1439
Q

What are positive and negative terms for urine culture?

A

POSITIVE
Bacterial growth seen = infection
NEGATIVE
Normal

1440
Q

what is a A urine culture sensitivity test?

A

A urine culture sensitivity test measures the susceptibility of the organism causing infection to different treatments. This step is taken after the organism is identified using a culture.

1441
Q

normal range for a A urine culture sensitivity test

A

Normal range: Positive

1442
Q

What are the positive and negative terms for

urine culture sensitivity?

A

POSITIVE
Decreasing bacterial growth = susceptible
NEGATIVE
Continued bacterial growth = not susceptible

1443
Q

What are tests for acute illnesses?

A

Tests for acute illnesses are labs ordered to evaluate for the presence of acute (rapid onset, short-term) illnesses.

1444
Q

The common tests for acute ilnesses?

A

The common tests for acute illnesses are:
Rapid Strep Test (Rapid strep)
Flu test (Flu swab)
Monospot

1445
Q

what is A rapid strep test or just “rapid strep” ?

A

A rapid strep test or just “rapid strep” is a swab of the throat that tests specifically for Group A Streptococcus, which causes a bacterial infection of the throat.

1446
Q

What is the normal range for a A rapid strep test or just “rapid strep” ?

A

Negative

1447
Q

What are the pos and neg terms for a A rapid strep test or just “rapid strep”

A

POSITIVE
Strep pharyngitis
NEGATIVE
Normal/No strep

1448
Q

what is A flu test or “flu swab”

A

A flu test or “flu swab” is a nasal swab which tests specifically for Influenza A and Influenza B, the two most common causes of the flu.

When positive, they are 99% accurate; however, they also have a high rate of false negatives.

1449
Q

normal range for a A flu test or “flu swab”

A

negative

1450
Q

A flu test or “flu swab” - positive and negative terms

A

POSITIVE
Influenza A or B
NEGATIVE
Normal/No flu

1451
Q

whats a A Monospot

A

A Monospot is a rapid blood test that screens for the Epstein-Barr virus, which causes the common infection mononucleosis or “mono”.

1452
Q

Whats a normal range for a monospot?

A

negative

1453
Q

Whats the positive and negative terms for a monospot?

A

POSITIVE
Epstein - Barr Virus (EBV)/ Mononucleosis
NEGATIVE
Normal/No mono

1454
Q

3 tests for Tests for Acute Illness

A

Rapid Strep

+

Flu Swab

+

Monospot

1455
Q

What are Tests for altered mental status?

A

Tests for altered mental status are labs ordered when the patient is abnormally below baseline to evaluate for possible chemical causes, such as illicit substances and alcohol

1456
Q

What are the common screening tests for altered mental status

A

The common screening tests for altered mental status are:
Urinary Drug/Toxicology Screen (UDS/Utox)
Ethanol level (EtOH)

1457
Q

What is A urine drug screen, “UDS”, or urine toxicology screen, “Utox”?

A

A urine drug screen, “UDS”, or urine toxicology screen, “Utox”, is a urinalysis that looks specifically for the presence of illicit substances. False positives sometimes occur due to medications.

1458
Q

what do A urine drug screen, “UDS”, or urine toxicology screen, “Utox”, screen for the following….

A
Most screen for the following:
Amphetamines
Cocaine
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
Methamphetamines
PCP (Phencyclidine)
Oxy (Oxycodone)
THC (Marijuana)
1459
Q

What is the normal range for urine drug screen or UDS?

A

Normal range: Negative

1460
Q

A urine drug screen, “UDS”, or urine toxicology screen, “Utox”, - POsitive and negative terms

A

POSITIVE
Likely use of positive drug
NEGATIVE
Normal/No drug use

1461
Q

what is An ethanol level or “EtOH” ?

A

An ethanol level or “EtOH” is a blood test that screens for the presence of ethanol, a form of alcohol, in the blood.

Normal range: Negative

1462
Q

ethanol level or “EtOH” Positive and negative terms

A

POSITIVE
Alcohol intoxication
NEGATIVE
Normal/No alcohol use

1463
Q

Tests for Altered Mental Status

A

EtOH

+

UDS

1464
Q

Tests for Altered Mental Status

A

EtOH

+

UDS

1465
Q

what are Cultures?

A

Cultures are labs ordered to evaluate for the presence of infection and what organism is causing it. They are meant to grow out certain organisms over others to help medical professionals determine the best treatment for each infection.

1466
Q

common Cultures tests

A

The common cultures are:
Blood Culture
Sputum Culture
Bacterial Wound Culture

1467
Q

whats a A blood culture?

A

A blood culture is a test of a blood sample to find bacteria or other organisms that cause a blood infection.

1468
Q

Whats the normal range for a culture?

A

Normal range: Negative

1469
Q

A blood culture positive and negative terms?

A

POSITIVE
Bacteremia
NEGATIVE
Normal/No infection

1470
Q

What is a A sputum culture?

A

A sputum culture is a test to detect organisms such as bacteria that infect the lungs and breathing passages.

1471
Q

A sputum culture - normal range?

A

Normal range: Negative

1472
Q

sputum culture - pos and neg terms?

A

POSITIVE
Bacterial lower respiratory infections
NEGATIVE
Normal/No infection

1473
Q

What is a wound culture?

A

A wound culture is a test of the skin, tissue, or fluid to detect organisms such as bacteria that cause infection.

1474
Q

Wound culture - normal range?

A

Normal range: Negative

1475
Q

Wound culture - pos and negative terms?

A

POSITIVE
Wound infection
NEGATIVE
Normal/No infection

1476
Q

What are stool tests?

A

Stool tests are labs ordered to evaluate if there are substances in the stool that do not belong, such as blood or bacteria.

1477
Q

What are common stool tests?

A

The common stool tests are:
Fecal Occult Blood Test (Guaiac test)
Clostridium difficile stool test (C. diff)

1478
Q

what is a fecal occult blood test or “guaiac test”

A

A fecal occult blood test or “guaiac test” is a rapid test performed by the provider to determine if there is blood in the stool. Unlike the other tests in this presentation, these are the only results typically recorded in the physical exam and not the MDM or A/P.

1479
Q

A fecal occult blood test or “guaiac test” - NORMAL RANGE

A

Negative

1480
Q

A fecal occult blood test or “guaiac test” - POSITIVE / NEGATIVE TERMS

A

POSITIVE
Nonspecific GI bleed
NEGATIVE
No GI bleed

1481
Q

what is A Clostridium difficile or “C. diff” stool test

A

A Clostridium difficile or “C. diff” stool test is used to detect intestinal infection with the opportunistic bacteria Clostridium difficile, which causes severe diarrhea.

1482
Q

A Clostridium difficile or “C. diff” stool test normal range?

A

Negative

1483
Q

A Clostridium difficile or “C. diff” stool test- POSITIVE/ NEGATIVE TERMS?

A

POSITIVE
C. diff infection
NEGATIVE
No C. diff infection

1484
Q

Stool Tests

A

Guaiac test

+

C. diff

1485
Q

what are other labs do not fit into the aforementioned categories?

A

These common labs are:
Type and Screen/Cross (T & S/X)
Arterial Blood Gasses (ABG)

1486
Q

what is A type and screen or “T & S”, also known as type and cross or “T & X”?

A

A type and screen or “T & S”, also known as type and cross or “T & X”, is a blood test to determine blood type.

1487
Q

what is the normal range for A type and screen or “T & S”, also known as type and cross or “T & X”?

A

varies

1488
Q

A type and screen or “T & S”, also known as type and cross or “T & X” - What types of blood can be identified?

A

A, B, AB, O | Rh positive or negative:

A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, or O+, O-

1489
Q

What is An arterial blood gas or “ABG” panel?

A

An arterial blood gas or “ABG” panel is a series of tests run on blood drawn from an artery (versus a vein like most other labs) to evaluate the acidity (pH) and the levels of oxygen/carbon dioxide in the blood. When there is an imbalance, the blood can become either too acidic or too basic.

1490
Q

what is the normal range for An arterial blood gas or “ABG” panel?

A

Varies by test

1491
Q

An arterial blood gas or “ABG” panel - HIGH/ LOW levels =

A

HIGH& LOW:

Metabolic or respiratory acidosis or alkalosis

1492
Q

Other Common Tests

A

T & X

+

PTT

1493
Q

what are Diagnostic studies?

A

Diagnostic studies are any form of testing used to help diagnose a patient’s condition. Diagnostic studies include labs, imaging, and other testing.

1494
Q

What are Imaging studies?

A

Imaging studies are a form of diagnostic testing performed with a variety of techniques that produce pictures of the inside of a patient’s body for the purpose of making a clinical decision, such as a treatment or diagnosis.

1495
Q

What are the the most common imaging studies?

A
Some of the most common imaging studies are:
X-rays
Computed (Axial) Tomography
Ultrasounds
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Magnetic Resonance Angiography
Magnetic Resonance Venography
Nuclear Imaging
Ventilation/perfusion scans
Stress tests
1496
Q

In the Ambulatory Care Setting imaging is often ordered to be completed … where??

A

In the Ambulatory Care Setting imaging is often ordered to be completed outside of the office, meaning the orders are recorded as a part of the Plan, versus including a completed imaging report.

1497
Q

Who reviews the images received from an imaging study?

A

The raw images obtained during these studies are reviewed by a radiologist who then creates a narrative summary of the results, called the “report.” This report is copied verbatim into the patient note.

1498
Q

What are X-rays ?

A

X-rays are images of the internal composition of a part of the body produced by x-rays being passed through and absorbed to different degrees by different materials based on density.

1499
Q

Bones are more ____ than ________ and appear the whitest in a normal X-ray and ______ in an inverted X-ray.

A

Bones are more dense than soft tissues and appear the whitest in a normal X-ray and darkest in an inverted X-ray. X-rays are most commonly viewed in Normal mode.

1500
Q

How are xrays commonly viewed?

A

X-rays are most commonly viewed in Normal mode.

1501
Q

Why would you order a chest x-ray?

A

Chest pain
Chest trauma
Shortness of breath
Cough

1502
Q

What would a normal interpretation look like for

imaging studies?

A

There are no bony abnormalities. Airspaces: No acute disease. No cardiomegaly. Mediastinal structures are within normal limits. Interpretation: No acute disease.

1503
Q

What would an abnormal findings look like for a chest

X-Ray?

A
Rib fractures
Infiltrates
Pneumonia
Cardiomegaly
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
1504
Q

Why would you order an abdominal X-ray?

A
Abdominal pain
Abdominal distention
Constipation
Ingested foreign body
CVA tenderness
1505
Q

What x-ray would you order to evaluate

kidneys, ureter, or bladder?

A

There is a specific type of abdominal x-ray called a KUB which is ordered specifically to evaluate the kidneys, ureter, and bladder.

1506
Q

What would normal findings look like

in abdominal x-ray?

A

No bony abnormalities. Nonspecific bowel gas pattern. No free air. No air fluid levels. No evidence of obstruction. Interpretation: No acute disease.

1507
Q

What would abnormal findings look like for an

abdominal x-ray exam?

A

Constipation
Small bowel obstruction
Renal calculi

1508
Q

Why would you order an extremity X-ray?

A
Extremity pain
Extremity trauma
Joint pain
Joint trauma
Possible foreign body
1509
Q

What would a normal interp for an extremity x-ray look like?

A

There are no bony abnormalities. Soft tissue spaces appear within normal limits. Joint spaces are intact. No fractures, dislocations, or subluxations. Interpretation: No acute abnormalities.

1510
Q

What would an abnormal extremity x-ray look like?

A

Fractures
Dislocations
Arthritis
Foreign body

1511
Q

Why would you order a spine x-ray?

A

Back pain
Back trauma
Neck pain
Neck trauma

1512
Q

What would a normal interp. for a spine x-ray look like?

A

There are no bony abnormalities. Soft tissue spaces appear within normal limits. Disc spaces appear preserved. No fractures or subluxations. Curvature lines intact. Interpretation: No acute abnormalities.

1513
Q

What would a abnormal interp. for a spine x-ray look like?

A

Vertebral fractures
Vertebral malalignment
Loss of disc height Abnormal curvature

1514
Q

What is a Computed (Axial) Tomography, also called a CT or CAT scan?

A

Computed (Axial) Tomography, also called a CT or CAT scan is a specialized test that produces cross-sectional images of the body using X-rays and a computer.

1515
Q

Can CTs be completed without contrast?

A

CTs can be completed with or without contrast, which is a special dye injected into the veins to outline organs and tissue

1516
Q

What would a normal interpretation for a spine x-ray look like?

A

There are no bony abnormalities. Soft tissue spaces appear within normal limits. Disc spaces appear preserved. No fractures or subluxations. Curvature lines intact. Interpretation: No acute abnormalities.

1517
Q

What would an abnormal finding look like for a spine x-ray?

A

Vertebral fractures
Vertebral malalignment
Loss of disc height Abnormal curvature

1518
Q

Why would you order a cat scan for abdomen + pelvis?

A
Hematuria
CVA tenderness
Abdominal pain
Abdominal distension
McBurney's point tenderness
Nausea/vomiting
Hernia
1519
Q

What would a normal interpretation for abdomen + pelvis CT

look like?

A

No acute findings

1520
Q

What would a abnormal interpretation for abdomen + pelvis CT

look like?

A
Kidney stones
Pyelonephritis
Diverticulosis
Diverticulitis
Appendicitis
Gastritis
Gastroenteritis
Small bowel obstruction
1521
Q

Why would you order a head ct?

A

Headache
Head trauma
Changes in mentation or behavior
Neurologic changes

1522
Q

What would an normal interpretation for a head ct look like?

A

No acute findings

1523
Q

What would an abnormal finding for a head ct scan look like?

A
Hydrocephalus
Subdural hematoma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Stroke
TIA
1524
Q

Why would you order a Spine CT?

A

Back pain
Sciatica
Lower/upper extremity paresthesias/weakness

1525
Q

What would a normal interpretation for spine ct look like?

A

No acute findings

1526
Q

What would an abnormal finding for a Spine CT look like?

A

Vertebral fractures
Herniated discs
DDD
Osteoarthritis

1527
Q

Why would you order a chest CT?

A

Chest pain
Chest trauma
Shortness of breath
Cough

1528
Q

What is an Ultrasonography?

A

Ultrasonography, or US, is a diagnostic imaging technique which produces images through the therapeutic application of ultrasounds (the same waves used by bats and dolphins in echolocation).

1529
Q

Why would you order an abdominal US (ultrascan)

A

Abdominal pain
Murphy’s point tenderness
Abdominal distention

1530
Q

What would a normal interpretation for an Abdominal US look like?

A

No acute findings

1531
Q

What would an abnormal finding for a abdominal US study look like?

A
AAA
Cholelithasis
Cholecystitis
Ascites
Liver fibrosis
Cirrhosis
1532
Q

What would a pelvic US (ultra sound) be ordered?

A

Pelvic pain

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

1533
Q

There are diff types of ultra sounds??

A

A pelvic ultrasound is ordered when a patient is not pregnant to evaluate pelvic pain/bleeding. A different ultrasound is ordered for pregnant women.

1534
Q

What would a normal interp for a pelvic U.S. look like?

A

no acute findings

1535
Q

What would an abnormal interpretation for a pelvic U.S.

look like?

A

Ovarian cysts
Ectopic pregnancy
Endometriosis

1536
Q

Why would you order a pregnancy US (ultrasound)?

A

To evaluate pregnancy
Abdominal pain with pregnancy
Vaginal bleeding with pregnancy

1537
Q

pregnancy US (ultrasound) normal interpretation?

A

Normal pregnancy

1538
Q

Pregnancy US - Abnormal findings?

A

Miscarriage
Subchorionic hemorrhage
Abnormal fetal development
Fetal demise

1539
Q

why would you order a Scrotal US

A

Scrotal pain
Scrotal swelling
Testicular pain

1540
Q

What would a normal interp for a Scrotal US look like?

A

No acute findings

1541
Q

What would an abnormal interp for a Scrotal US look like?

A

Hydrocele

Epididimitis

1542
Q

Why would you order an Arterial/Vascular US?

A

Soft tissue pain (especially calf pain)

Poor circulation

1543
Q

When looking at an Arterial/Vascular US what do the colors

signify?

A

The colored area in the above image are a visual representation of sound waves. The different colors indicate the speed and direction of blood flow.

1544
Q

Normal interp for an Arterial/Vascular US?

A

No acute findings

1545
Q

abnormal interp for an Arterial/Vascular US?

A

DVT

Atherosclerosis

1546
Q

What is Magnetic Resonance Imaging, or MRI?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging, or MRI, is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses strong magnetic fields, magnetic field gradients, and radio waves to generate images of the body.

1547
Q

Why would you order a brain MRI?

A
Headache
Head trauma
Vision changes
Changes in mentation or behavior
Paresthesias/weakness
1548
Q

What would a normal interp for a brain MRI look like?

A

no acute findings

1549
Q

abnormal findings for a brain mri?

A
Stroke
TIA
Subdural hematoma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Multiple sclerosis
Structural abnormalities
1550
Q

Why would you order a cervical spine MRI?

A

Neck pain

Upper extremity paresthesias/weakness

1551
Q

Normal interp for a cervical spine MRI?

A

No acute findings

1552
Q

abnormal interp for a cervical spine MRI?

A

Spinal stenosis
Herniated disc
DDD
Multiple sclerosis

1553
Q

Why would you order a Lumbar Spine MRI?

A

Back pain
Lower extremity paresthesias/weakness
Bowel/bladder incontinence
Saddle paresthesias

1554
Q

normal interpretation for a lumbar spine MRI?

A

No acute findings

1555
Q

abnormal interpreation for lumbar spine MRI

A
Spinal stenosis
Herniated disc
DDD
Cauda equina syndrome
Epidural abscess
1556
Q

What is The Magnetic Resonance Angiogram, or MRA?

A

The Magnetic Resonance Angiogram, or MRA, is a form of MRI that is specialized for visualizing the anatomy of blood vessels using a specialized dye.

1557
Q

Why would you order a MRA?

A

Concern for vascular dysfunction

1558
Q

What would a normal interpretation for a MRA be?

A

No acute findings

1559
Q

What would an abnormal findings for a MRA look like?

A
Stroke
Atherosclerosis
Aneurysms
Aortic dissection
Aortic stenosis
1560
Q

What is Magnetic resonance venography, or MRV?

A

Magnetic resonance venography, or MRV, is a form of MRI that is used to visualize veins specifically.

1561
Q

Why would you order a MRV?

A

Concern for venous dysfunction

1562
Q

What would a normal interp for a MRV look like?

A

No acute findings

1563
Q

What would an abnormal interp for a MRV look like?

A

Stroke

IIH

1564
Q

What is Nuclear medicine imaging ?

A

Nuclear medicine imaging is a method of producing images by detecting radiation from different parts of the body after a radioactive tracer is given to the patient.

1565
Q

What is a ventilation/perfusion lung scan, also called a V/Q scan?

A

A ventilation/perfusion lung scan, also called a V/Q scan, is a imaging technique that uses scintigraphy and a radioactive tracer to evaluate the circulation of air and blood within a patient’s lungs, in order to determine the ventilation/perfusion ratio.

1566
Q

Why would you order a V/Q Scan?

A

Shortness of breath with elevated D-dimer

Concern for lung dysfunction

1567
Q

What would a normal interp for V/Q scan look like?

A

No acute findings

1568
Q

What would an abnormal finding for a V/Q scan look like?

A

Pulmonary embolism
COPD
Pneumonia

1569
Q

What is a stress test?

A

A stress test, also known as an exercise test or treadmill test, is a cardiac test that measures the heart’s ability to respond to external stress. The stress response is induced by exercise or by pharmacological stimulation.

1570
Q

Why would you order a Cardiac stress test?

A

Recent MI
Risk for heart disease/complications
Surgical clearance

1571
Q

Normal interp for a Cardiac stress test?

A

Normal cardiac function

1572
Q

What would an abnormal finding for a cardiac stress

test look like?

A

CAD
HFpEF
HFrEF
Post-MI scarring

1573
Q

What types of diagnostic studies that do not produce images:

A

Cardiac monitoring
Electrocardiogram
Holter monitor
Electroencephalography

1574
Q

What is Cardiac monitoring?

A

Cardiac monitoring is the continuous or intermittent monitoring of heart activity, generally by electrocardiography, with assessment of the patient’s condition relative to their cardiac rhythm.

1575
Q

Why would you order cardiac monitoring?

A

Chest pain
Palpitations
Syncope
Other high-acuity complaints

1576
Q

Normal interpretation for Cardiac monitoring?

A

Normal sinus rhythm.
No ectopy.
No ST elevations or depressions.

1577
Q

Abnormal interpretation for cardiac monitoring?

A
Arrhythmias
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
ST elevation
ST depression
1578
Q

What is an An electrocardiogram, or ECG/EKG?

A

An electrocardiogram, or ECG/EKG, is the interpretation of the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, as detected by electrodes attached to the outer surface of the skin and recorded by a device external to the body.

1579
Q

Why would you order a EKG?

A

Chest pain
Palpitations
Surgical/medication clearance
History of heart disease

1580
Q

EKG normal interpretation?

A

Normal sinus rhythm. No ectopy. Normal QRS interval. Normal QRS axis. There are no significant acute/new ST-T wave changes. Interpretation: No acute ECG changes noted.

1581
Q

EKG abnormal findings

A
Atrial fibrillation
PSVT
Ectopy
Axis deviation
Bundle branch block
STEMI
1582
Q

What is a Holter monitor?

A

A Holter monitor is a small, battery-powered medical device that measures heart activity over 24 to 72 hours when more information is needed about how the heart functions than a routine electrocardiogram provides.

1583
Q

Why would you order a holter monitor?

A

Recurrent palpitations
Recurrent arrhythmias
Syncope
Recent MI

1584
Q

holter monitor normal interpretation?

A

No irregular cardiac activity

1585
Q

holter monitor abnormal findings??

A

Atrial fibrillation
PSVT
Bradycardia
Other irregular heart rates and rhythms

1586
Q

What is a EEG?

A

An electroencephalogram, or EEG, is a noninvasive test used to evaluate the electrical activity in the brain by placing electrodes placed along the scalp.

1587
Q

what is electrocorticography

A

There is another form of electroencephalography called electrocorticography which involves invasive electrodes that are placed directly into the brain.

1588
Q

Why would you order a EEG

A
Seizures
Alzheimer's
Dementia
Unexplained memory loss
Head injuries
Sleep disorders
1589
Q

What is a normal interp for EEG

A

No abnormal electrical activity

1590
Q

What is an abnormal interp for EEG

A

Seizure disorder
Epilepsy
Sleep disorder
Migraines (in some cases)

1591
Q

What are nonsurgical procedures?

A

Nonsurgical procedures are very minimally invasive for the patient. The procedures included in this presentation are commonly seen in both the acute and ambulatory care settings, usually with only local anesthesia.

1592
Q

How do nonsurgical procedures differ from surgical procedures?

A

These differ from surgical procedures, which require general anesthesia or conscious sedation (putting the patient to “sleep”).

1593
Q

What are Cardiovascular procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the heart and vasculature.

1594
Q

What are some examples of Cardiovascular procedures?

A

Cardioversion
Peripherally inserted central catheter
Port-a-Cath

1595
Q

What is cardioversion?

A

Cardioversion is a nonsurgical procedure where an abnormally fast heart rate (tachycardia) or cardiac arrhythmia is converted to a normal rhythm using electricity or medications.

1596
Q

What is a A peripherally inserted central catheter, or PICC, ?

A

A peripherally inserted central catheter, or PICC, form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period of time (for chemotherapy regimens, extended antibiotic therapy, etc). Typically placed in the upper arm under local anesthesia. There is an access point for the line outside of the body at all times.

1597
Q

What is a A Port-a-Cath?

A

A Port-a-Cath is an intravenous catheter that is surgically implanted under local anesthesia and placed underneath the skin near the clavicle. Used for frequent administration of chemotherapy, blood transfusions, antibiotics, blood draws, etc. There is no extension of the port-a-cath outside the body as there is with a PICC line.

1598
Q

What are Dermatologic procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the skin.

1599
Q

what is An incision and drainage, or I & D

A

An incision and drainage, or I & D, is a minor surgical procedure to release pus or pressure built up under the skin, from an abscess, boil, or other infections. A small incision is made in the skin above the affected area with a scalpel and the contents are expressed.

1600
Q

What is laceration repair

A

Laceration repair, or lac repair, is the act of cleaning, preparing, and closing a laceration, using a variety of materials. These include sutures, staples, Dermabond (tissue adhesive), or Steri-strips (surgical tape strips).

1601
Q

What is Wound debridement?

A

Wound debridement is the removal of damaged skin tissue to help a wound heal. It is also done to remove foreign material from tissue. Often performed on burns, lacerations, abrasions, and infected wounds.

1602
Q

What is Cryotherapy?

A

Cryotherapy is the use of extreme cold, usually in the form of liquid nitrogen, as a treatment for moles, skin tags, and warts. The freezing source is applied to the skin lesion to cause damage to the affected tissue.

1603
Q

What are procedures that target conditions affecting the ears, nose, and throat?

A

ENT procedures:
Cerumen disimpaction
Epistaxis management

1604
Q

What is Cerumen disimpaction?

A

Cerumen disimpaction is the removal of impacted cerumen (earwax) by microsuction, mechanical removal, and irrigation.

1605
Q

What is Epistaxis management ?

A

Epistaxis management involves variety of procedures used to stop epistaxis (nosebleeds). These methods include: topical vasoconstriction (Afrin), chemical cautery (silver nitrate), electrocautery, nasal packing, posterior gauze packing, and many more.

1606
Q

what are Genitourinary procedures:

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the genitals and urinary tract.

1607
Q

what are the master list of Genitourinary procedures?

A

Hemodialysis

PAP smear

1608
Q

What is Hemodialysis?

A

Hemodialysis, also called dialysis or HD, is the process of purifying the blood of a person whose kidneys are malfunctioning. This type of dialysis removes waste products such as creatinine, urea, electrolytes, and free water from the blood when the kidneys are in a state of failure.

1609
Q

What is a PAP smear?

A

A PAP smear is a method of cervical screening used to detect potentially precancerous and cancerous processes in the cervix of females.

1610
Q

What are Procedures that target conditions affecting the muscles, bones, and joints.?

A

Genitourinary procedures:

1611
Q

what are example Genitourinary procedures?

A

Closed joint reduction
Nerve block
Nail avulsion
Nail trephination

1612
Q

What is a closed joint reduction?

A

A closed joint reduction is the manipulation of a dislocated joint to its original position without overlying skin breakdown or surgical intervention. Commonly used to treat shoulder, knee, and phalangeal dislocations.

1613
Q

What is a nerve block?

A

A nerve block is an injection of local anesthetics to decrease inflammation or “block” a pain signal along a specific distribution of nerve. Common injections of this type are digital (finger/toe), dental, epidural, and occipital nerve blocks.

1614
Q

What is a nail avulsion?

A

A nail avulsion, or nail resection, is the removal of the nail plate (the hard part of the nail) from a finger or toe. Typically done to treat paronychia (nail infections), recurrent ingrown toenails, or traumatic nail injuries. A resection refers to a partial avulsion, commonly done to treat ingrown nails.

1615
Q

What is Nail trephination

A

Nail trephination is the act of draining of a subungual hematoma (blood under the nail bed). An electrocautery tool is used to poke a hole in the nail and drain excess blood responsible for causing pressure and pain.

1616
Q

What is the assessment?

A

The Assessment also known as the Impression or Final Diagnosis is the final determination of the patient’s Reason for Visit. This can be simply the diagnosis or a narrative paragraph describing the patient’s subjective history, objective findings and the final diagnosis.

1617
Q

What is an example of an assessment/impression/ final diagnosis?

A

Example:
Reason for Visit: Cough
Impression: Pneumonia

Example:
47-year-old female who presented with cough. Chest x-ray revealed infiltrate in the right lower lobe consistent with pneumonia.

1618
Q

What is The Disposition?

A

The Disposition refers to where a patient goes after they leave the healthcare setting in which you are working

1619
Q

In an acute care setting, where can patients be dispositioned to

A

In an acute care setting, patients can be dispositioned to three areas:
Discharged home
Admitted to the hospital
Transferred to another facility

1620
Q

In an ambulatory care setting, patients can be dispositioned to two areas , where can patients be dispositioned to?

A

In an ambulatory care setting, patients can be dispositioned to two areas:
Checked out to home
Sent to the hospital

1621
Q

What is the Plan?

A

The Plan refers to what the provider plans to do for the patient’s medical condition. This can be a bullet list or part of a narrative paragraph.

1622
Q

What is an example of the plan?

A

Example:

  1. Start azithromycin 500 mg BID x 5 days
  2. Use ProAir inhaler
  3. Monitor pulse ox at home
  4. Follow up with your PCP in 3 days
1623
Q

What is an example of the plan?

A

Example:
Given the patient’s pneumonia on chest x-ray, plan to start azithromycin 500 mg BID for 5 days and a ProAir inhaler to use as needed for shortness of breath. I discussed monitoring his pulse ox at home and if it drops below 90%, he should return to the ED. I recommend he follow up with his PCP in 3 days for reevaluation.

1624
Q

What is surgery?

A

Surgery is a technology consisting of a physical intervention on tissues. As a general rule, a procedure is considered surgical when it involves cutting of a person’s tissues or closure of a previously sustained wound.

1625
Q

What are Cardiovascular procedures:

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the heart and vasculature.

1626
Q

What are example cardiovascular procedures?

A
AV fistula
AV graft
Pacemaker
Automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator
Cardiac ablation
Cardiac catheterization
Coronary artery bypass graft
Coronary artery stenting
Inferior vena cava filter
Valve repair or replacement
1627
Q

What is An arteriovenous fistula?

A

An arteriovenous fistula, also called a dialysis fistula or AV fistula, is an abnormal connection between an artery and a vein. This particular connection is artificially made for hemodialysis. Since this connection bypasses the capillaries, blood flows more rapidly.

1628
Q

what are Arteriovenous grafts, also called dialysis grafts or AV grafts?

A

Arteriovenous grafts, also called dialysis grafts or AV grafts, are very similar to fistulas in most respects, except that an artificial vessel is used to join the artery and vein. Grafts are used when the patient’s native vasculature does not permit a fistula.

1629
Q

What is a pacemaker?

A

A pacemaker is a small device placed under the skin of the chest or abdomen to help control abnormal heart rhythms. This device uses electrical pulses to prompt the heart to beat at a normal rate. Pacemakers are used to treat heart rhythms that are too slow, fast, or irregular.

1630
Q

What is An automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, or AICD?

A

An automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, or AICD, is a small device placed under the skin in the chest or abdomen to help monitor and control irregular heartbeats and risk for sudden cardiac arrest by sending electrical pulses or shocks to the heart when it senses any abnormalities in heartbeat.

1631
Q

What is Cardiac ablation?

A

Cardiac ablation is a surgical procedure to correct cardiac arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. A catheter is inserted through a vein in the groin and threaded to the heart to correct structural problems of the heart that may be causing the arrhythmia.

1632
Q

What is Cardiac catheterization?

A

Cardiac catheterization is a surgical procedure used to diagnose and treat some heart conditions. A long, thin, flexible tube called a catheter is put into a peripheral blood vessel in the arm, groin (upper thigh), or neck and threaded to the heart to determine if there are blockages in the coronary arteries.

1633
Q

What is A coronary artery bypass graft, also called bypass or CABG?

A

A coronary artery bypass graft, also called bypass or CABG, is a surgical procedure used to treat coronary artery disease (CAD). A peripheral blood vessel, the graft, is removed from one area of the body (chest, arm, or leg) and placed in the heart around the area or areas of narrowing to “bypass” blockages and restore blood flow to the heart muscle.

1634
Q

What is Coronary artery stenting?

A

Coronary artery stenting is a surgical procedure in which a tube-shaped device is placed in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart, to keep the arteries open in the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD).

1635
Q

What is Inferior vena cava filter placement, or IVC filter placement

A

Inferior vena cava filter placement, or IVC filter placement, is a surgical procedure in which a vascular filter is implanted into the inferior vena cava to trap blood clots and prevent them from traveling to the heart and lungs.

1636
Q

What is A valve repair or replacement

A

A valve repair or replacement is a surgical procedure used to repair or replace damaged or diseased heart valves. The most common types of replacement valves are bovine (cow), porcine (pig), or mechanical. Valves are important in preventing the backflow of blood once it has passed through a vessel.

1637
Q

What are Chest wall procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the chest wall and breasts.

1638
Q

What are example chest wall procedures?

A

Lumpectomy

Mastectomy

1639
Q

What is a A lumpectomy?

A

A lumpectomy is the surgical removal of a suspected malignant (cancerous) tumor, or lump, and a small portion of the surrounding tissue from a woman’s breast. This tissue is then tested to determine if it contains cancerous cells.

1640
Q

What is A mastectomy

?

A

A mastectomy is the surgical removal of one or both breasts, partially or completely, possibly including surrounding lymph nodes. A mastectomy is usually carried out to treat breast cancer.

1641
Q

What are ENT procedures:

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the ears, nose, and throat.

1642
Q

What is An adenoidectomy?

A

An adenoidectomy is the surgical removal of the adenoids when they obstruct breathing or block the eustachian tubes. Adenoids are a mass of lymphoid tissue located behind the nasal passages.

1643
Q

what are Pressure equalizer tubes, also called ear tubes?

A

Pressure equalizer tubes, also called ear tubes, are tiny, hollow cylinders, usually made of plastic or metal, that are surgically inserted into the eardrum. An ear tube creates an airway that ventilates the middle ear and prevents the accumulation of fluids behind the eardrum.

1644
Q

What is A tonsillectomy?

A

A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. The procedure is mainly performed to treat recurrent tonsillitis, throat infections (such as strep throat), and obstructive sleep apnea.

1645
Q

what are Gastrointestinal procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the stomach, intestines, and accessory digestive organs.

1646
Q

Master list of Gastrointestinal procedures:

A
Appendectomy
Cholecystectomy
Colectomy
Colostomy
Colonoscopy
Endoscopy
Gastric bypass
Herniorrhaphy
Splenectomy
1647
Q

What is An appendectomy?

A

An appendectomy, sometimes referred to as an appe, is the surgical removal of the appendix performed when an infection has made it inflamed and swollen (appendicitis). The infection may occur when the opening of the appendix becomes clogged with bacteria and stool, causing the appendix to become swollen and inflamed.

1648
Q

What is a A cholecystectomy?

A

A cholecystectomy, sometimes referred to as a chole, is the surgical removal of the gallbladder performed to treat gallstones (cholelithiasis) and the complications they cause, such as cholecystitis. May be emergent or elective.

1649
Q

What is a colectomy?

A

A colectomy, also called a bowel resection, is the surgical removal of all or part of the colon performed to treat multiple conditions, including: colon or rectal cancer, inflammatory bowel diseases such as Crohn’s or ulcerative colitis, and diverticulitis. When only part of the colon is removed, it is called a “partial colectomy.”

1650
Q

What is A colostomy?

A

A colostomy is the surgical formation of an artificial anus by connecting the colon to an artificial opening in the abdominal wall (stoma) as an alternative channel for feces to leave the body after trauma to the colon.

1651
Q

whats A colonoscopy

A

A colonoscopy is a nonsurgical procedure used to examine the inner lining of the large intestine (rectum and colon). A colonoscope — a long, flexible tube with a tiny camera at the tip — is used to look at the colon to monitor for polyps, which may or may not be cancerous.

1652
Q

whats an An endoscopy

A

An endoscopy is a nonsurgical procedure used to examine the upper digestive tract. An endoscope — a flexible tube with a light and camera attached — is lowered down the throat into the digestive tract to monitor for polyps, ulcers, and other problems of the upper digestive tract lining.

1653
Q

Whats a Gastric bypass ?

A

Gastric bypass is a surgical procedure for weight loss where the size of the stomach is shrunk, so the patient cannot eat as much as they normally do. The surgeon will also bypass part of the digestive system so not as much food is absorbed.

1654
Q

Whats a A herniorrhaphy?

A

A herniorrhaphy is the surgical repair of a hernia in which a surgeon repairs the weakness in the abdominal wall which has allowed an internal part of the body to push through, forming a hernia.

1655
Q

Whats a splenectomy?

A

A splenectomy is the surgical removal of the spleen due to severe damage or as therapeutic treatment of chronic conditions. The spleen helps fight infection and filters unneeded material, such as old or damaged blood cells, from the blood.

1656
Q

What are Genitourinary procedures:?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the urinary tract, kidneys, and reproductive organs.

1657
Q

Master list of all surgical Genitourinary procedures:

A
Caesarean section
Dilatation and curettage
Hysterectomy
Lithotripsy
Nephrectomy
Oophorectomy
Prostatectomy
Salpingectomy
Tubal ligation
Vasectomy
1658
Q

What is A caesarean section, commonly referred to as a C-section?

A

A caesarean section, commonly referred to as a C-section, is a surgical procedure to deliver a fetus via incisions in the mother’s abdominal wall and the uterus.

1659
Q

What is Dilatation and curettage, also called a D & C?

A

Dilatation and curettage, also called a D & C, is a surgical procedure to remove tissue from inside the uterus. Providers perform dilation and curettage to diagnose and treat certain uterine conditions — such as heavy bleeding — or to clear the uterine lining after a miscarriage.

1660
Q

What is a hysterectomy?

A

A hysterectomy, sometimes abbreviated hyst, is the surgical removal of the uterus. The most common reasons for having a hysterectomy include: heavy periods, fibroids, endometriosis, untreated pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and uterine cancer.

1661
Q

What is Lithotripsy?

A

Lithotripsy is a nonsurgical procedure which uses shock waves to break up stones in the kidney, bladder, or ureter. After the procedure, tiny pieces of stones pass out of the body in the urine.

1662
Q

What is a A nephrectomy?

A

A nephrectomy is the surgical removal of one or both of the kidneys performed to treat a number of kidney diseases including kidney cancer and polycystic kidney disease. It is also done to remove a normal healthy kidney from a living or deceased donor for a kidney transplant.

1663
Q

Whats is An oophorectomy?

A

An oophorectomy is the surgical removal of one or both of the ovaries often performed because of diseases such as ovarian cysts or cancer, as prophylaxis to reduce the chances of developing ovarian cancer or breast cancer, or in conjunction with a hysterectomy.

1664
Q

What is A prostatectomy?

A

A prostatectomy is the surgical removal of all or part of the prostate gland performed to treat BPH and prostate cancer.

1665
Q

what is The most common type of simple prostatectomy ?

A

The most common type of simple prostatectomy is a transurethral resection of the prostate, or TURP, which involves removing part of the prostate by instrumentation through the urethra.

1666
Q

what is A salpingectomy ?

A

A salpingectomy is the surgical removal of one or both of the fallopian tubes commonly done as treatment for ectopic pregnancies. This procedure is called a salpingo-oophorectomy when paired with an oophorectomy.

1667
Q

Whats A tubal ligation?

A

A tubal ligation, also called a tubal or BTL, is a surgical procedure for sterilization in women. The fallopian tubes are clamped and blocked, or severed and sealed with the goal of preventing eggs from reaching the uterus for fertilization.

1668
Q

whats A vasectomy?

A

A vasectomy is a surgical procedure for sterilization in men. During the procedure, the vas deferens are severed and then tied/sealed in a manner to prevent sperm from entering into the seminal stream (ejaculate) and thereby prevent fertilization.

1669
Q

what are Musculoskeletal procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the muscles, bones, and joints.

1670
Q

What are the list of Musculoskeletal procedures:?

A

Above the knee amputation
Below the knee amputation
Arthroplasty
Spinal fusion

1671
Q

whats an An above the knee amputation, or AKA

A

An above the knee amputation, or AKA, is the surgical removal of part of a lower extremity above the knee joint when that limb has been severely damaged or diseased (such as from diabetes).

1672
Q

Whats A below the knee amputation, or BKA,?

A

A below the knee amputation, or BKA, is the surgical removal of part of a lower extremity below the knee joint when that limb has been severely damaged or diseased (such as from diabetes).

1673
Q

Whats An arthroplasty?

A

An arthroplasty is a surgical procedure to restore the integrity and function of a joint performed when the joint has become severely diseased or damaged.

1674
Q

Whats A spinal fusion, also referred to as a C, T, or L spine fusion?

A

A spinal fusion, also referred to as a C, T, or L spine fusion, is a surgical procedure used to correct problems of the vertebrae, commonly used to treat degenerative disc disease. It is essentially the “welding” of two or more vertebrae so that they heal into a single, solid bone.

1675
Q

What are Neurological procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the brain, skull, and nerves.

1676
Q

What are example Neurological procedures?

A

Craniotomy

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement

1677
Q

What is A craniotomy?

A

A craniotomy, also referred to as a crani, is a surgical procedure in which a bone flap is temporarily removed from the skull to access the brain. This procedure is commonly used to access the brain in order to treat brain tumors, aneurysms, and blood clots/bleeds.

1678
Q

What is Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement, or VP shunt placement,

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement, or VP shunt placement, is a surgical procedure in which a shunt in placed in the head to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid into the abdomen (specifically the peritoneal space), leading to a decrease in intracranial pressure. Primarily used to treat the conditions hydrocephalus and idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).

1679
Q

What are Pulmonary procedures?

A

Procedures that target conditions affecting the trachea, lungs, and breathing.

1680
Q

What are example surgical Pulmonary procedures:?

A

Bronchoscopy
Lobectomy
Tracheostomy

1681
Q

What is A bronchoscopy?

A

A bronchoscopy is a nonsurgical procedure to visualize the lungs and air passages, performed to diagnose a variety of lung diseases. A bronchoscope — a long, thin tube with a light and camera attached — is passed through the nose or mouth, down the throat, and into the lungs.

1682
Q

What is A lobectomy?

A

A lobectomy is the surgical removal of one or more of the lobes of the lung performed to treat severe disease or damage of that part of the lung. The right lung has 3 lobes and the left lung has 2 lobes.

1683
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure in which an opening in the neck (stoma) below the vocal cords is created in order to place a tube into the trachea to allow air to enter the lungs when the upper airway is obstructed, to remove secretions, and to more safely deliver oxygen.

1684
Q

Where medical abbreviations used?

A

Medical abbreviations are used regularly in patient notes and in conversation in medicine. These abbreviations are widely accepted in the medical field.

1685
Q

Some abbreviations should be never be used… yes or no?

A

However, some abbreviations should never be used in a note, so take pay attention.

1686
Q

A & O

A

MEANING: Alert and Oriented
Placement: Physical Exam

(Typically followed by “x3” or “x4,” meaning the patient is oriented to person, place, time, and situation.)

1687
Q

What is a fib?

A

MEANING:Atrial fibrillation

Placement: Past medical history, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

1688
Q

What is AAA?

A

Meaning: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1689
Q

Abd

A

Meaning: Abdominal or Abdomen

Where: All sections

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1690
Q

ABG

A

Meaning
Arterial Blood Gas

Location in Note
Labs

1691
Q

Abx

A

Meaning
Antibiotics

Location in Note
HPI, assessment and plan, disposition
Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1692
Q

ADD

A

Meaning
Attention Deficit Disorder

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1693
Q

ADHD

A

Meaning
Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1694
Q

AICD

A

Meaning
Automated Implantable Cardiac Defibrillator

Location
in Note
Past surgical history, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

1695
Q

AIDS

A

Meaning
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1696
Q

ALOC

A

Meaning

Altered Level Of Consciousness

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment
Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1697
Q

AMA

A

Meaning
Against Medical Advice

Location in Note
Disposition

1698
Q

AMS

A

Meaning
Altered Mental Status

Location in Note
HPI
Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1699
Q

What is

APGAR

A

Meaning
Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

Location in Note
Physical exam - infants only

1700
Q

Appe

A

Meaning
Appendectomy
Location in Note
Past surgical history

1701
Q

ARDS

A

Meaning
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1702
Q

ASA

A

Meaning
Aspirin

Location in Note
HPI, medications
Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1703
Q

BAC

A

Meaning
Blood Alcohol Content

Location in Note
Labs

1704
Q

BG

A

Meaning
Blood Glucose

Location in Note
Labs

Notes
Do NOT use in note -spell it out

1705
Q

BID

A

Meaning
Twice a day

Location in Note

Medications

1706
Q

Bilat

A

Meaning
Bilateral

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1707
Q

BiPAP

A

Meaning
Biphasic Positive Airway Pressure

Location in Note
Past medical history, vital signs

1708
Q

BLE

A

Meaning
Bilateral Lower Extremities
Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes
Spell it out unless told otherwise by provider

1709
Q

BM

A

Meaning
Bowel Movement

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1710
Q

BMP

A

Meaning
Basic Metabolic Panel

Location in Note
Labs

1711
Q

BNP

A

Meaning
Brain Natriuretic Peptide

Location in Note
Labs

1712
Q

BP

A

Meaning
Blood Pressure

Location in Note
Vital signs

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1713
Q

BPH

A

Meaning
Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1714
Q

BPM

A

Meaning
Beats Per Minute

Location in Note
Vital signs, physical exam

1715
Q

BRBPR

A

Meaning
Bright Red Blood Per Rectum

Location in Note
Physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

1716
Q

BS

A

Meaning
Blood Sugar or Bowel Sounds or Breath Sounds

Location in Note
Labs

Physical exam
Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1717
Q

BTL

A

Meaning
Bilateral Tubal Ligation

Location in Note
Past surgical history

1718
Q

BUE

A

Meaning: Bilateral Upper Extremities
Location: HPI, physical exam
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1719
Q

BUN

A

Meaning

Blood Urea Nitrogen

Location in Note

Labs

1720
Q

C. diff

A

Meaning
Clostridium difficile

Location in Note
Past medical history, labs, diagnosis, assessment

1721
Q

CA

A

Meaning
Cancer

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1722
Q

Cancer is normally accompanied by the type….

A

While cancer is a diagnosis, assessment, it is normally accompanied by the type. For example, “breast cancer” or “metastatic colon cancer”.

1723
Q

CABG

A

Meaning
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

Location in Note
Past surgical history

1724
Q

CAD

A

Meaning
Coronary Artery Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1725
Q

CT

A

Meaning
Computed Tomography

Location in Note
Imaging

1726
Q

Cath

A

Meaning
Catheter

Location in Note
Physical exam, procedure

1727
Q

What can cath mean? Why is context important?

A

The term “cath” can be a number of things, from a urinary catheter to a cardiac catheterization. Context is important to determine which is meant.

1728
Q

CBC

A

Meaning
Complete Blood Count

Location in Note
Labs

1729
Q

CHF

A

Meaning
Congestive Heart Failure

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1730
Q

Chole

A

Meaning
Cholecystectomy

Location in Note
Past surgical history

1731
Q

CK

A

Meaning
Creatinine Kinase

Location in Note
Labs

1732
Q

CKD

A

Meaning
Chronic Kidney Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1733
Q

CMP

A

Meaning
Comprehensive Metabolic Panel

Location in Note
Labs

1734
Q

What is CMT?

A

Meaning
Cervical Motion Tenderness

Location in Note
Physical exam

1735
Q

CNS

A

Meaning
Central Nervous System

Location in Note
Physical exam

1736
Q

c/o

A

Meaning
Complaints Of

Location in Note
HPI

1737
Q

CO

A

Meaning
Carbon Monoxide

Location in Note
Labs

1738
Q

CO2

A

Meaning
Carbon Dioxide

Location in Note
Labs

1739
Q

COPD

A

Meaning
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1740
Q

CP

A

Meaning
Cerebral Palsy or Chest Pain

Location in Note
Past medical history

HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1741
Q

CPAP

A

Meaning
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

Location in Note
Past medical history, vital signs

1742
Q

CPR

A

Meaning
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

Location in Note
HPI, procedures

1743
Q

CRP

A

Meaning
C-Reactive Protein

Location in Note
Labs

1744
Q

C-section

A

Meaning
Caesarean Section

Location in Note
Past surgical history

1745
Q

C-spine

A

Meaning
Cervical Spine
Location in Note
Physical exam

1746
Q

CSF

A

Meaning
Cerebrospinal Fluid

Location in Note
Labs

1747
Q

CTA

A

Meaning
Clear To Auscultation or Computed Tomography Angiography

Location in Note
Physical exam

Imaging

1748
Q

CV

A

Meaning
Cardiovascular

Location in Note
Physical exam

1749
Q

CVA

A

Meaning
Cerebrovascular Accident or Costovertebral Angle

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

Physical exam

1750
Q

CXR

A

Meaning
Chest X-Ray

Location in Note
Imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1751
Q

DC

A

Meaning
Discontinue

Location in Note
Assessment and plan, disposition

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1752
Q

D/C

A

Meaning
Discharge

Location in Note
Disposition

1753
Q

D & C

A

Meaning
Dilation and Curettage

Location in Note
Past medical history, procedures

1754
Q

DDD

A

Meaning
Degenerative Disc Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1755
Q

DIP

A

Meaning
Distal Interphalangeal joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1756
Q

Dispo

A

Meaning
Disposition

Location in Note
Last section of ED note

1757
Q

DJD

A

Meaning
Degenerative Joint Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1758
Q

DKA

A

Meaning
Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1759
Q

DM

A

Meaning
Diabetes Mellitus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1760
Q

What are the two types of DM

A

There are two types of DM: insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) and non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

1761
Q

DNR

A

Meaning
Do Not Resuscitate

Location in Note
Patient information

1762
Q

DOA

A

Meaning
Dead On Arrival

Location in Note
HPI, disposition

Notes
Use only if instructed

1763
Q

DOB

A

Meaning
Date of Birth

Location in Note
Patient information

1764
Q

DP

A

Meaning
Dorsalis Pedis

Location in Note
Physical exam

1765
Q

DTR

A

Meaning
Deep Tendon Reflexes

Location in Note
Physical exam

1766
Q

DVT

A

Meaning
Deep Vein Thrombosis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1767
Q

Dx

A

Meaning
Diagnosis/ assessment

Location in Note
Disposition, assessment and plan

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1768
Q

ECHO

A

Meaning
Echocardiogram

Location in Note
Imaging

1769
Q

E. coli

A

Meaning
Escherichia coli

Location in Note
Past medical history, labs

1770
Q

ED

A

Meaning
Emergency Department or Erectile Dysfunction

Location in Note
HPI

Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1771
Q

EDD

A

Meaning
Expected Date of Delivery

Location in Note
HPI, past medical history, pregnancy details

1772
Q

EENT

A

Meaning
Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
Location in Note
Physical exam

1773
Q

EF

A

Meaning
Ejection Fraction
Location in Note
Past medical history

1774
Q

EGD

A

Meaning
Esophagogastro-duodenoscopy

Location in Note
Imaging

1775
Q

EJ

A

Meaning
External Jugular

Location in Note
Physical exam, procedures

1776
Q

EKG/ECG

A

Meaning
Electrocardiogram
Location in Note
MDM, imaging

1777
Q

EMR/EHR

A

Electronic Medical Record or Electronic Hospital Record

Location in Note
This is where the note is written

1778
Q

EMS

A

Meaning
Emergency Medical Services

Location in Note
HPI

1779
Q

EMT

A

Meaning
Emergency Medical Technician

Location in Note
Mentioned in HPI

1780
Q

EMTALA

A

Meaning
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act

Location in Note
N/A

1781
Q

ENT

A

Meaning
Ears, Nose, and Throat

Location in Note
Physical exam, consultations, referral

1782
Q

ENT is both..

A

a body system and a specialty practice.

1783
Q

EOM

A

Meaning: Extraocular Movements

Location in Note
Physical exam

1784
Q

EOMI

A

Meaning
Extraocular Movements Intact

Location in Note
Physical exam

1785
Q

Epi

A

Meaning
Epinephrine

Location in Note
HPI, procedures

1786
Q

ERCP

A

Meaning
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-
pancreatography

Location in Note
Imaging

1787
Q

ESR

A

Meaning
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

Location in Note
Labs

1788
Q

ESR and the term “sed rate” are used…

A

ESR and the term “sed rate” are used interchangeably for the same meaning.

1789
Q

ESRD

A

Meaning
End Stage Renal Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

ESRD is often followed by “on dialysis” and the days of the week the patient has dialysis.

1790
Q

EtOH

A

Meaning
Ethanol (alcohol)

Location in Note
Past social history, labs

1791
Q

ET tube

A

Meaning
Endotracheal tube

Location in Note
Procedures

1792
Q

FB

A

Meaning
Foreign Body

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam, procedure

Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1793
Q

FHx

A

Meaning
Family History

Location in Note
Past histories

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1794
Q

FHT

A

Meaning
Fetal Heart Tones

Location in Note
Procedures, pregnancy details

1795
Q

FROM

A

Meaning
Full Range Of Motion

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Only use if instructed by provider - otherwise spell it out

1796
Q

Fx

A

Meaning
Fracture

Location in Note
Past medical history, imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1797
Q

GC

A

Meaning
Gonorrhea

Location in Note
Past medical history, labs, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1798
Q

GCS

A

Meaning
Glasgow Coma Score

Location in Note
Physical exam

1799
Q

GERD

A

Meaning
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1800
Q

GFR

A

Meaning
Glomerular Filtration Rate

Location in Note
Labs

1801
Q

GI

A

Meaning
Gastrointestinal

Location in Note
Physical exam

1802
Q

G/P/A

A

Meaning

Gravida/Para/
Abortus

Location in Note
HPI, past histories

1803
Q

GSW

A

Meaning
Gunshot Wound

Location in Note
Past medical history, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

1804
Q

G-tube

A

Meaning
Gastric tube

Location in Note
Past medical history, physical exam, procedures

1805
Q

GJ-tube

A

Meaning
Gastro-Jejunal tube

Location in Note
Past medical history, physical exam, procedures

1806
Q

GU

A

Meaning
Genitourinary

Location in Note
Physical exam

1807
Q

GYN

A

Meaning
Gynecology

Location in Note
Consultations, referral, patient education

Notes
Spell it out unless instructed by provider

1808
Q

H & H

A

Meaning
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit

Location in Note
Labs

1809
Q

H & P

A

Meaning
History and Physical

Location in Note
HPI and physical exam

1810
Q

HA

A

Meaning
Headache

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1811
Q

Hct

A

Meaning
Hematocrit

Location in Note
Labs

1812
Q

HD

A

Meaning
Hemodialysis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise instructed

1813
Q

how is Hemodialysis is often written

A

Hemodialysis is often written following ESRD and is then followed by the days the patient gets dialysis. For example, “history of ESRd on dialysis M/W/F”.

1814
Q

HDL

A

Meaning
High Density Lipoprotein

Location in Note
Labs

1815
Q

HEENT

A

Meaning
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat

Location in Note
Physical exam

1816
Q

Hep A/B/C

A

Meaning
Hepatitis A, B, or C

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1817
Q

HFpEF

A

Meaning
Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
This term replaced CHF

1818
Q

what did CHF get replaced by

A

The old term, CHF or congestive heart failure, was a broad, general term which was replaced by HFpEF, HFrEF, and HFrecEF. HFpEF is most commonly used in documentation.

1819
Q

Hgb

A

Meaning
Hemoglobin

Location in Note
Labs

1820
Q

HI

A

Meaning
Homicidal Ideation

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1821
Q

HIV

A

Meaning
Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1822
Q

HLD

A

Meaning
Hyperlipidemia

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1823
Q

HPI

A

Meaning
History of Present Illness
Location in Note
HPI

1824
Q

HPV

A

Meaning
Human Papillomavirus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1825
Q

HR

A

Meaning
Heart Rate

Location in Note
Vital signs

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1826
Q

HSV

A

Meaning
Herpes Simplex Virus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1827
Q

HTN

A

Meaning
Hypertension

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1828
Q

Hx

A

Meaning
History

Location in Note
Past histories

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell out out

1829
Q

I & D

A

Meaning
Incision and Drainage

Location in Note
Procedures

1830
Q

IBS

A

Meaning
Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1831
Q

ICD - 10

A

Meaning
International Classification of Diseases - 10th Revision

Location in Note
Diagnoses

1832
Q

how are diagnoses classified

A

ICD-10 codes are how diagnoses are classified and there are thousands of different codes.

1833
Q

ICU

A

Meaning
Intensive Care Unit

Location in Note
Disposition

1834
Q

ID

A

Meaning
Infectious Disease

Location in Note
Consultations, assessment and plan, referral

1835
Q

IM

A

Meaning
Intramuscular

Location in Note
Medications

1836
Q

INR

A

Meaning
International Normalized Ratio

Location in Note
Labs

1837
Q

IP

A

Meaning
Interphalangeal joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1838
Q

IUP

A

Meaning
Intrauterine Pregnancy

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1839
Q

IV

A

Meaning
Intravenous

Location in Note
Medications

1840
Q

IVC

A

Meaning
Inferior Vena Cava

Location in Note
Past medical history, physical exam, diagnosis, assessment

1841
Q

IVCD

A

Meaning
Intraventricular Conduction Delay

Location in Note
EKG in the MDM

1842
Q

JVD

A

Meaning
Jugular Vein Distention

Location in Note
Physical exam

1843
Q

KUB

A

Meaning
Kidneys, Ureter, Bladder x-ray

Location in Note
Imaging

1844
Q

L & D

A

Meaning
Labor and Delivery

Location in Note
Consultations, disposition

1845
Q

Lac

A

Meaning
Laceration

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam, procedures

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1846
Q

LAD

A

Meaning
Left Axis Deviation

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1847
Q

LBBB

A

Meaning
Left Bundle Branch Block

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1848
Q

LAFB

A

Meaning
Left Anterior Fascicular Block

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1849
Q

Lab

A

Meaning
Laboratory

Location in Note
MDM

1850
Q

LDL

A

Meaning
Low Density Lipoprotein

Location in Note
Labs

1851
Q

LFT

A

Meaning
Liver Function Tests
Location in Note
Labs

1852
Q

LLE

A

Meaning
Left Lower Extremity

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1853
Q

LLQ

A

Meaning
Left Lower Quadrant

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1854
Q

LMP

A

Meaning
Last Menstrual Period

Location in Note
HPI, past history

Notes
This is the most recent period, normal or otherwise

1855
Q

LNMP

A

Meaning
Last Normal Menstrual Period

Location in Note
HPI, past history

Notes
This is the last “normal” period, meaning unchanged from typical

1856
Q

LOC

A

Meaning
Loss Of Consciousness

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

Note that in this abbreviation the “L” stands for “Loss” not “Level” as in the abbreviation “ALOC”. Be careful not to confuse the two.

1857
Q

LP

A

Meaning
Lumbar Puncture

Location in Note
Procedures

1858
Q

LUE

A

Meaning
Left Upper Extremity

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1859
Q

LUQ

A

Meaning
Left Upper Quadrant

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1860
Q

LVH

A

Meaning
Left Ventricular Hypertrophy

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1861
Q

LWBS

A

Meaning
Left Without Being Seen

Location in Note
Disposition

Notes
Typically this is included in a nursing note, not the provider note

1862
Q

L-spine

A

Meaning
Lumbar Spine

Location in Note
Physical exam

1863
Q

mcg

A

Meaning
Micrograms

Location in Note
Medications

1864
Q

MCP

A

Meaning
Metacarpo-
phalangeal joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1865
Q

Meds

A

Meaning
Medications

Location in Note
HPI, disposition

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1866
Q

Mets

A

Meaning
Metastases

Location in Note
HPI, past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1867
Q

mg

A

Meaning
Milligrams

Location in Note
Medications

1868
Q

MI

A

Meaning
Myocardial Infarction

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1869
Q

mL

A

Meaning
Milliliters

Location in Note
Medications

1870
Q

MMR

A

Meaning
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine

Location in Note
Past history

1871
Q

MRA

A

Meaning
Magnetic Resonance Angiography

Location in Note
Imaging

1872
Q

MRI

A

Meaning
Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Location in Note
Imaging

1873
Q

MRSA

A

Meaning
Methicillin-
Resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1874
Q

MS

A

Meaning
Multiple Sclerosis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1875
Q

MSK

A

Meaning
Musculoskeletal

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1876
Q

MTP

A

Meaning
Metatarso-phalangeal joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1877
Q

MVA/MVC

A

Meaning
Motor Vehicle Accident/
Motor Vehicle Collision

Location in Note
HPI, past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1878
Q

NAD

A

Meaning
No Acute Disease

Location in Note
Physical exam, imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1879
Q

NG tube

A

Meaning
Nasogastric tube

Location in Note
Physical exam, procedure

1880
Q

NKA

A

Meaning
No Known Allergies

Location in Note
Patient information, HPI, past history

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1881
Q

NKDA

A

Meaning
No Known Drug Allergies

Location in Note
Patient information, HPI, past history
Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1882
Q

Nml

A

Meaning
Normal

Location in Note
All sections

Notes

Do NOT use in note- spell it out

1883
Q

NPO

A

Meaning
Nil Per Os (Nothing by mouth)

Location in Note
HPI, orders

1884
Q

NSAID

A

Meaning
Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug

Location in Note
Medications

1885
Q

NSR

A

Meaning
Normal Sinus Rhythm

Location in Note
Vital signs, physical exam, EKG in MDM

1886
Q

nSTEMI

A

Meaning
Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1887
Q

NTG

A

Meaning
Nitroglycerin

Location in Note
Medications

1888
Q

N/V

A

Meaning
Nausea and Vomiting

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1889
Q

NVD

A

Meaning
Nausea, Vomiting, and Diarrhea

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1890
Q

O2 Sat

A

Meaning
Oxygen Saturation

Location in Note
Vital signs

1891
Q

OA

A

Meaning
Osteoarthritis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

(Degenerative joint disease is another name for osteoarthritis.)

1892
Q

OB/GYN

A

Meaning
Obstetrics and Gynecology

Location in Note
Consultations, assessment and plan, referral

1893
Q

OD

A

Meaning
Overdose or Oculus Dexter (right eye)

Location in Note
HPI, diagnosis, assessment

Medications

Notes
Do NOT use in note for overdose - spell it out

1894
Q

OG tube

A

Meaning
Orogastric tube

Location in Note
Physical exam, procedures

1895
Q

OR

A

Meaning
Operating Room

Location in Note
Disposition

1896
Q

ORIF

A

Meaning
Open Reduction with Internal Fixation

Location in Note
Past surgical history, physical exam

1897
Q

Ortho

A

Meaning
Orthopedics

Location in Note
Consultations, assessment and plan, referral

1898
Q

OS

A
Meaning
Oculus Sinister (left eye)

Location in Note
Medications

1899
Q

OSHA

A

Meaning
Occupational Health and Safety Administration

Location in Note
N/A

1900
Q

OTC

A

Meaning
Over - The -
Counter

Location in Note
Medications

1901
Q

PAC

A

Meaning
Premature Atrial Contraction

Location in Note
Physical exam, EKG in MDM

1902
Q

PCOS

A

Meaning
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1903
Q

PCP

A

Meaning
Primary Care Provider

Location in Note
Patient information

(PCP is also an acronym for an illicit substance tested for in a UDS.)

1904
Q

PE

A

Meaning
Pulmonary Embolism

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1905
Q

Peds

A

Meaning
Pediatrics

Location in Note
Consultation, assessment and plan, referral

1906
Q

PEG tube

A

Meaning
Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy tube

Location in Note
Past medical history, physical exam, procedures

1907
Q

PERRL

A

Meaning
Pupils are Equal, Round, and Reactive to Light

Location in Note
Physical exam

1908
Q

PICC

A

Meaning
Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam, procedures

1909
Q

PID

A

Meaning
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1910
Q

PIP

A

Meaning
Proximal Interphalangeal joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1911
Q

PNA

A

Meaning
Pneumonia

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1912
Q

PO

A
Meaning
Per Os (by mouth)

Location in Note
Medications

1913
Q

POC

A

Meaning
Products of Conception

Location in Note
Physical exam, imaging

1914
Q

Post-op

A

Meaning
Postoperative

Location in Note
HPI

1915
Q

PPE

A

Meaning
Personal Protective Equipment

Location in Note
N/A

1916
Q

ppd

A

Meaning
Packs Per Day

Location in Note
Past history

1917
Q

Pre-op

A

Meaning
Preoperative

Location in Note
HPI

1918
Q

PRN

A

Meaning
As needed

Location in Note
Medications

1919
Q

PSVT

A

Meaning
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1920
Q

Psych

A

Meaning
Psychiatry or Psychiatric

Location in Note
Consultations, assessment and plan, referral

1921
Q

pt

A

Meaning
Patient

Location in Note
All sections

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1922
Q

PT

A

Meaning
Physical Therapy or Prothrombin Time or Posterior Tibialis

Location in Note
Consultation, assessment and plan, referral

Labs

Physical exam

1923
Q

PTA

A

Meaning
Prior To Arrival

Location in Note
HPI

1924
Q

PTSD

A

Meaning
Post-
Traumatic Stress Disorder

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1925
Q

PTT

A

Meaning
Partial Thromboplastin Time

Location in Note
Labs

1926
Q

PUD

A

Meaning
Peptic Ulcer Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1927
Q

PVC

A

Meaning
Premature Ventricular Contraction

Location in Note
Physical exam, EKG in MDM

1928
Q

PVD

A

Meaning
Peripheral Vascular Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1929
Q

Q#H

A

Meaning
Every # Hours

Location in Note
Medications

Most common dosing time frames used in this way are Q4H, Q6H, and Q8H. These translate to “every 4 hours”, “every 6 hours”, and “every 8 hours” respectively.

1930
Q

QAM

A

Meaning
Every morning

Location in Note
Medications

1931
Q

QD

A

Meaning
Every day

Location in Note
Medications

1932
Q

QHS

A

Meaning
At bedtime

Location in Note
Medications

1933
Q

QID

A

Meaning
4 times a day

Location in Note
Medications

1934
Q

QPM

A

Meaning
Every evening

Location in Note
Medications

1935
Q

RA

A

Meaning
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1936
Q

RAD

A

Meaning
Reactive Airway Disease

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1937
Q

RBBB

A

Meaning
Right Bundle Branch Block

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1938
Q

RBC

A

Meaning
Red Blood Cell

Location in Note
Labs

1939
Q

RICE

A

Meaning
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation

Location in Note
Care instructions

1940
Q

RLE

A

Meaning
Right Lower Extremity

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1941
Q

RLQ

A

Meaning
Right Lower Quadrant

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1942
Q

r/o

A

Meaning
Rule Out

Location in Note
Assessment and plan, disposition

1943
Q

ROM

A

Meaning
Range of Motion

Location in Note
Physical exam

1944
Q

ROS

A

Meaning
Review of Systems

Location in Note
ROS

1945
Q

RRR

A

Meaning
Regular Rate and Rhythm

Location in Note
Physical exam

1946
Q

RSV

A

Meaning
Respiratory Syncytial Virus

Location in Note
Past medical history, labs, diagnosis, assessment

1947
Q

RUE

A

Meaning
Right Upper Extremity

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes

Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1948
Q

RUQ

A

Meaning
Right Upper Quadrant

Location in Note
HPI, physical exam

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out unless otherwise told by provider

1949
Q

Rx

A

Meaning
Prescription

Location in Note
Medications

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1950
Q

SAH

A

Meaning
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1951
Q

SARS

A

Meaning
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1952
Q

SBO

A

Meaning
Small Bowel Obstruction

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1953
Q

Sed Rate

A

Meaning
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

Location in Note
Labs

Sed rate and the term “ESR” are used interchangeably for the same meaning.

1954
Q

SI

A

Meaning
Suicidal Ideation

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1955
Q

SL

A

Meaning
Sublingual

Location in Note
Medications

1956
Q

SLE

A

Meaning
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1957
Q

SLR

A

Meaning
Straight Leg Raise

Location in Note
Physical exam

1958
Q

SNF

A

Meaning
Skilled Nursing Facility

Location in Note
Disposition

1959
Q

SOAP

A

Meaning
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

Location in Note
Note layout in clinic

1960
Q

SOB

A

Meaning
Shortness of breath

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1961
Q

s/p

A

Meaning
Status Post

Location in Note
HPI

1962
Q

STD/STI

A

Meaning
Sexually Transmitted Disease/
Sexually Transmitted Infection

Location in Note
HPI, past medical history

1963
Q

STEMI

A

Meaning
ST-Elevated Myocardial Infarction

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1964
Q

Strep

A
Meaning
Streptococcus (type of bacteria)

Location in Note
Labs

1965
Q

Sub Q

A

Meaning
Subcutaneous

Location in Note
Medications

1966
Q

SVT

A

Meaning
Supraventricular Tachycardia

Location in Note
Vital signs, EKG in MDM

1967
Q

Sx

A

Meaning
Symptoms

Location in Note
N/A

1968
Q

Sz

A

Meaning
Seizure

Location in Note
HPI

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1969
Q

T3

A

Meaning
Triiodothyronine

Location in Note
Labs

1970
Q

T4

A

Meaning
Thyroxine

Location in Note
Labs

1971
Q

TB

A

Meaning
Tuberculosis

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1972
Q

TBI

A

Meaning
Traumatic Brain Injury

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1973
Q

Tdap

A

Meaning
Tetanus, Diphtheria, And Pertussis vaccine

Location in Note
Past history

1974
Q

Temp

A

Meaning
Temperature

Location in Note
Vital signs

1975
Q

TIA

A

Meaning
Transient Ischemic Attack

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1976
Q

TID

A

Meaning
3 times a day

Location in Note
Medications

1977
Q

TM

A

Meaning
Tympanic Membrane

Location in Note
Physical exam

1978
Q

Tmax

A

Meaning
Tympanic Membrane

Location in Note
Physical exam

1979
Q

Tmax

A

Meaning
Maximum Temperature

Location in Note
HPI

1980
Q

TJ

A

Meaning
Temporo-mandibular Joint

Location in Note
Physical exam

1981
Q

tPA

A

Meaning
Tissue Plasminogen Activator

Location in Note
Medications

1982
Q

Trach

A

Meaning
Tracheostomy

Location in Note
Past surgical history, physical exam

1983
Q

TSH

A

Meaning
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

Location in Note
Labs

1984
Q

TTP

A

Meaning
Tenderness To Palpation

Location in Note
Physical exam

Notes
Only use when told to by provider

1985
Q

T-spine

A

Meaning
Thoracic Spine

Location in Note
Physical exam

1986
Q

UA

A

Meaning
Urinalysis

Location in Note
Labs

1987
Q

UDS

A

Meaning
Urinary Drug Screen

Location in Note
Labs

1988
Q

URI

A

Meaning
Upper Respiratory Infection

Location in Note
diagnosis, assessment

1989
Q

US

A

Meaning
Ultrasound

Location in Note
Imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1990
Q

UTD

A

Meaning
Up To Date

Location in Note
Past history

1991
Q

UTI

A

Meaning
Urinary Tract Infection

Location in Note
Past medical history, diagnosis, assessment

1992
Q

V fib

A

Meaning
Ventricular Fibrillation

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1993
Q

VP shunt

A

Meaning
Ventriculo-peritoneal shunt

Location in Note
Past medical history

1994
Q

VQ scan

A

Meaning
Ventilation Perfusion Scan

Location in Note
Imaging

1995
Q

V tach

A

Meaning
Ventricular Tachycardia

Location in Note
EKG in MDM

1996
Q

WBC

A

Meaning
White Blood Cell

Location in Note
Labs

1997
Q

wnl

A

Meaning
Within Normal Limits

Location in Note
Imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

1998
Q

WPW

A

Meaning
Wolff-
Parkinson White syndrome

Location in Note
Past medical history, EKG in MDM, diagnosis, assessment

1999
Q

XR

A

Meaning
X-Ray

Location in Note
Imaging

Notes
Do NOT use in note - spell it out

2000
Q

y/o

A

Meaning
Year(s) old

Location in Note
HPI

2001
Q

How are Orders or prescriptions for medications written?

A

[MEDICATION NAME] dose administration route and finally, dose timing.

2002
Q

What is an example of how Orders or prescriptions for medications are written?

A

TORADOL 30 mg IM
IBUPROFEN 600 mg PO Q4H PRN

Prescriptions will include a number indicating how much of the medication the patient needs.
ZOFRAN ODT 4 mg PO #10

2003
Q

PO -

A

Per os

2004
Q

SL

A
  • Sublingual
2005
Q

ODT

A
  • Oral dissolving tablets
2006
Q

SQ

A
  • Subcutaneous
2007
Q

IM

A
  • Intramuscular
2008
Q

IV

A
  • Intravenous
2009
Q

PO -

A

Per os, meaning “by mouth”. Medications are taken by mouth and chewed or swallowed.

2010
Q

SL -

A

Sublingual, meaning “under the tongue”. Medications are placed under the tongue where they dissolve.

2011
Q

ODT -

A

Oral dissolvable tablet, held in the mouth until it dissolves.

2012
Q

SQ -

A

Subcutaneous. Medications are injected under the skin in the subcutaneous layer.

2013
Q

IM -

A

Intramuscular. Medications are injected directly into the muscle.

2014
Q

IV

A
  • Intravenous. Medications are injected directly into the veins.
2015
Q

Medications given in the ED or urgent care are ordered and given only…..

A

Medications given in the ED or urgent care are ordered and given only while in the facility.

2016
Q

Whats the difference between medications given in the ED

or urgent care vs home medications?

A

Medications given in the ED or urgent care are ordered and given only while in the facility.

Home medications may be taken on a regular or as needed basis.

2017
Q

What are schedule medications and when are they taken?

A

Scheduled medications are taken on a regular basis once or multiple times per day.

2018
Q

What are as needed medications

and when are they taken?

A

As needed medications are only taken when the patient is symptomatic.

2019
Q

QD

A
  • Every day/daily
2020
Q

BID -

A

Twice a day

2021
Q

TID

A
  • Three times a day
2022
Q

QID

A
  • Four times a day
2023
Q

Q4H

A
  • Every 4 hours
2024
Q

Q6H

A
  • Every 6 hours
2025
Q

Q8H -

A

Every 8 hours

2026
Q

QAM -

A

Every morning

2027
Q

QPM -

A

Every evening

2028
Q

QHS

A
  • At bedtime
2029
Q

PRN

A
  • As needed
2030
Q

Full list of at home dosing periods:

A
QD - Every day/daily
BID - Twice a day
TID - Three times a day
QID - Four times a day
Q4H - Every 4 hours
Q6H - Every 6 hours
Q8H - Every 8 hours
QAM - Every morning
QPM - Every evening
QHS - At bedtime
PRN - As needed
2031
Q

What are the diff types of medications?

A
Cardiovascular
Dermatologic
Endocrine
ENT
Gastrointestinal
Genitourinary
Hematologic
Musculoskeletal
Neurologic
Psychiatric
Respiratory
Systemic
2032
Q

What are Cardiovascular medications used for?

A

Cardiovascular medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the heart and vasculature.

2033
Q

Generic Name

lisinopril

A

Zestril

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardio Vascular Med

2034
Q

Catapres

Generic Name
clonidine

A

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension/anxiety

Cardiovascular MED

(This medication is often given for hypertension in the ED, but is prescribed for anxiety more often in an outpatient setting.

2035
Q

Generic Name

amiodarone

A

Nexterone

Condition Being Treated
Arrhythmias

Tip Box: This drug is used often to chemically cardiovert patients in SVT or atrial fibrillation.

2036
Q

Generic Name

losartan

A

Cozaar

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2037
Q

Diovan

Generic Name
valsartan

A

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2038
Q

Generic Name

metoprolol

A

Lopressor

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2039
Q

Tenomin

Generic Name
atenolol

A

Condition Being Treated

Hypertension

2040
Q

Coreg

Generic Name
carvedilol

A

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2041
Q

Inderal

Generic Name
propranolol

A

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular med

2042
Q

Digox

A

Generic Name
digoxin

Condition Being Treated
CHF, arrhythmias

2043
Q

Generic Name

amlodipine

A

Norvasc

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2044
Q

Cardizem

Generic Name
diltiazem

A

Condition Being Treated
Angina, arrhythmias

Cardiovascular Med

2045
Q

Lasix

A

Generic Name
furosemide

Condition Being Treated
Fluid retention, hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2046
Q

Aldactone

Generic Name
spironolactone

A

Condition Being Treated
Fluid retention, hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

Tip Box: This drug is also sometimes prescribed to women who struggle with acne.

2047
Q

Microzide

Generic Name
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

A

Condition Being Treated
Fluid retention, hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2048
Q
Generic Name
Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
A

Aspirin

Condition Being Treated
Fever, pain, MI/blood clot prevention

Cardiovascular Med

Tip Box: Aspirin is often referred to as an anticoagulant - this is actually incorrect, as it is an antiplatelet drug. It specifically targets platelets instead of targeting coagulation factors.

2049
Q

Lipitor

Generic Name
atorvastatin

A

Condition Being Treated
Hyperlipidemia

Cardiovascular Med

2050
Q

Generic Name

simvastatin

A

Zocor

Condition Being Treated
Hyperlipidemia

Cardiovascular Med

2051
Q

Generic Name

pravastatin

A

Pravachol

Condition Being Treated
Hyperlipidemia

Cardiovascular Med

2052
Q

Crestor

Generic Name
rosuvastatin

A

Condition Being Treated
Hyperlipidemia

Cardiovascular Med

2053
Q

Generic Name

lovastatin

A

Brand Name:
Altoprev

Condition Being Treated
Hyperlipidemia

Cardiovascular Med

2054
Q

Brand Name
Nitrostat/
Nitropaste

Generic Name
Nitroglycerin (NTG)

A

Condition Being Treated
Angina

Cardiovascular Med

Tip Box: Nitroglycerin can be given topically (on the skin) or orally and is sometimes referred to simply as ‘nitro’.

2055
Q

Brand Name Apresoline

Generic Name
hydralazine

A

Condition Being Treated
Hypertension

Cardiovascular Med

2056
Q

What are Dermatologic medications used for?

A

Dermatologic medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the skin.

2057
Q

Brand Name
Hydrocort

Generic Name
hydrocortisone

A

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation/
itching

Dermatologic Medications

2058
Q

Generic Name

triamcinolone

A

Brand Name
Kenalog

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation/itching

Dermatologic Medications

2059
Q

What are Endocrine medications used for?

A

Endocrine medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the endocrine system which is responsible for hormone secretion and regulation.

2060
Q

Generic Name

Metformin

A

Brand Name
Glucophage

Condition Being Treated
Diabetes

Endocrine Medications

2061
Q

Generic Name

pioglitazone

A

Brand Name
Actos

Condition Being Treated
Diabetes

Endocrine Medications

2062
Q

Lantus/Levemir

Generic Name
insulin

A

Condition Being Treated
Diabetes

Tip Box: There are many different brands of long-acting insulin.

Endocrine Medications

Tip Box: There are many different brands of long-acting insulin.

2063
Q

Generic Name

insulin

A

Brand Name

Novolog/
Humalog

Condition Being Treated
Diabetes

Endocrine Medications

Tip Box: There are many different brands of rapid-acting insulin.

2064
Q

Generic Name

glipizide

A

Brand Name
Glucotrol

Condition Being Treated
Diabetes

Endocrine Medications

2065
Q

Generic Name

levothyroxine

A

Brand Name
Synthroid

Condition Being Treated
Hypothyroidism

Endocrine Medications

2066
Q

What are ENT medications used

for?

A

ENT medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the ears, nose, and throat.

2067
Q

Brand Name
Flonase

Generic Name
fluticasone

A

Condition Being Treated
Allergies/
inflammation

ENT Medications

2068
Q

Brand Name
Claritin

Generic Name
loratadine

A

Condition Being Treated
Allergies

ENT Medications

2069
Q

Generic Name

cetirizine

A

Brand Name
Zyrtec

Condition Being Treated
Allergies

ENT Medications

2070
Q

Brand Name
Vistaril

Generic Name
hydroxyzine

A

Condition Being Treated
Allergies/
anxiety

ENT Medications

2071
Q

Brand Name
Singulair

Generic Name
montelukast

A

Condition Being Treated
Allergies

ENT Medications

2072
Q

What are Gastrointestinal medications used for?

A

Gastrointestinal medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the stomach and intestines.

2073
Q

Brand Name
Zofran

Generic Name
ondansetron

A

Condition Being Treated
Nausea

Gastrointestinal Medications

2074
Q

Generic Name

promethazine

A

Brand Name
Phenergan

Condition Being Treated
Nausea

Gastrointestinal Medications

2075
Q

Brand Name
Reglan

Generic Name
metoclopramide

A

Condition Being Treated
Nausea, GERD, gastroparesis

Gastrointestinal Medications

2076
Q

Brand Name
Compazine

Generic Name
prochlorperazine

A

Condition Being Treated
Nausea, anxiety, schizophrenia

Gastrointestinal Medications

2077
Q

Generic Name

ranitidine

A

Brand Name
Zantac

Condition Being Treated
GERD

Gastrointestinal Medications

Recently, new evidence has come out that shows a correlation between a patient taking certain types of ranitidine and developing cancer, causing the FDA to order a recall of those batches.

2078
Q

Brand Name
Pepcid

Generic Name
famotidine

A

Condition Being Treated
GERD

Gastrointestinal Medications

Tip Box: Though normally prescribed for GERD, famotidine can also treat allergic reactions involving itching since it is an H2 blocker.

2079
Q

Brand Name
Colace

Generic Name
docusate

A

Condition Being Treated
Constipation

Gastrointestinal Medications

2080
Q

Generic Name

polyethylene glycol

A

Brand Name
Miralax

Condition Being Treated
Constipation

Gastrointestinal Medications

2081
Q

Generic Name

omeprazole

A

Brand Name
Prilosec

Condition Being Treated
GERD

Gastrointestinal

2082
Q

Brand Name
Protonix

Generic Name
pantoprazole

A

Condition Being Treated
GERD

Gastrointestinal Medications

2083
Q

Brand Name
“GI cocktail”

Generic Name
Maalox/Mylanta, benadryl, and viscous lidocaine

A

Condition Being Treated
GERD, gastritis, stomach upset

Gastrointestinal Medications

A GI cocktail may include slightly different blends of medications from practice to practice.

2084
Q

What are genitourinary medications used for?

A

Genitourinary medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the urinary tract and genitalia.

2085
Q

Brand Name
Propecia

Generic Name
finasteride

A

Condition Being Treated
Urinary retention

Genitourinary Medications

Tip Box: This medication is only prescribed to men, specifically to decrease complications of BPH which are a direct result of testosterone.

2086
Q

Generic Name

tamsulosin

A

Brand Name
Flomax

Condition Being Treated
BPH, urinary retention

Genitourinary Medications

Tip Box: This drug is also given to help patients pass kidney stones with less pain.

2087
Q

Brand Name
Macrobid

Generic Name
nitrofurantoin

A

Condition Being Treated
UTI

Genitourinary Medications

Tip Box: Macrobid is one of the few antibiotics that is used as a specific treatment - in this case it is considered the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs.

2088
Q

Brand Name
Oxytrol

Generic Name
oxybutynin

A

Condition Being Treated
Urinary incontinence

Genitourinary Medications

2089
Q

Generic Name

estradiol

A

Brand Name
Estrace

Condition Being Treated
Menopause

Genitourinary Medications

2090
Q

Generic Name

sildenafil

A

Brand Name
Viagra

Condition Being Treated
Erectile dysfunction

Genitourinary Medications

2091
Q

What are Hematologic medications used for?

A

Hematologic medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the blood.

2092
Q

Generic Name

warfarin

A

Brand Name
Coumadin

Condition Being Treated
DVT/PE

Hematologic Medications

2093
Q

Brand Name
Xarelto

Generic Name
rivaroxaban

A

Condition Being Treated
DVT/PE/Afib, MI/CVA prevention

Hematologic Medications

2094
Q

Brand Name
Eliquis

Generic Name
apixaban

A

Condition Being Treated
DVT/PE/Afib, MI/CVA prevention

Hematologic

2095
Q

Generic Name

clopidogrel

A

Brand Name
Plavix

Condition Being Treated
MI/CVA prevention

Endocrine

Tip Box: Plavix is often referred to as an anticoagulant - this is actually incorrect, as it is an antiplatelet drug. It specifically targets platelets instead of targeting coagulation factors.

2096
Q

What are Musculoskeletal medications used

to treat?

A

Musculoskeletal medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the muscles and bones.

2097
Q

Brand Name
Zanaflex

Generic Name
tizanidine

A

Condition Being Treated
Muscle spasms

Musculoskeletal Medications

2098
Q

Generic Name

acetaminophen

A

Brand Name
Tylenol

Condition Being Treated
Pain, fever

Musculoskeletal Medications

2099
Q

Brand Name
Colcrys

Generic Name
colchicine

A

Condition Being Treated
Gout prevention

Musculoskeletal Medications

2100
Q

Generic Name

allopurinol

A

Brand Name
Alloprim

Condition Being Treated
Gout

Musculoskeletal Medications

2101
Q

Generic Name

cyclobenzaprine

A

Condition Being Treated
Muscle spasms

Musculoskeletal Medications

Brand Name
Flexeril

2102
Q

Generic Name

methocarbamol

A

Brand Name
Robaxin

Condition Being Treated
Muscle spasms

Musculoskeletal Medications

2103
Q

Generic Name

baclofen

A

Brand Name
Gablofen

Condition Being Treated
Muscle spasms

Musculoskeletal Medications

2104
Q

Generic Name

carisoprodol

A

Brand Name
Soma

Condition Being Treated
Muscle spasms

Musculoskeletal Medications

2105
Q

Generic Name

naproxen

A

Brand Name

Aleve/
Naprosyn

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation, pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2106
Q

Brand Name
Aleve/
Naprosyn

Generic Name
naproxen

A

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation, pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2107
Q

Generic Name

diclofenac

A

Brand Name
Voltaren

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation, pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2108
Q

Generic Name

ibuprofen

A

Brand Name
Motrin

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation, pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2109
Q

Generic Name

ketorolac

A

Brand Name
Toradol

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation, pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2110
Q

Generic Name
hydrocodone &
acetaminophen

A

Brand Name
Vicodin/Norco

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

Tip Box: Vicodin and Norco are different names for the same medication: “hydrocodone with acetaminophen”; however, the different names correspond to different doses of hydrocodone.

2111
Q

Brand Name
Ultram

Generic Name
tramadol

A

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2112
Q

Brand Name
Percocet

Generic Name
oxycodone/
acetaminophen

A

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2113
Q

Generic Name

morphine

A

Brand Name
MS-Contin

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Musculoskeletal Medications

2114
Q

What are Neurologic medications used for?

A

Neurologic medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the brain and nerves.

2115
Q

Generic Name

phenytoin

A

Brand Name
Dilantin

Condition Being Treated
Seizures

Neurologic Medications

2116
Q

Brand Name
Trileptal

Generic Name
oxcarbazepine

A

Condition Being Treated
Seizures

Neurologic Medications

2117
Q

Generic Name

levetiracetam

A

Brand Name
Keppra

Condition Being Treated
Seizures

Neurologic Medications

2118
Q

Brand Name
Topamax

Generic Name
topiramate

A

Condition Being Treated
Seizures, headaches

Neurologic Medications

2119
Q

Generic Name

divalproex

A

Brand Name
Depakote

Condition Being Treated
Seizures

Neurologic Medications

2120
Q

Generic Name
Carbidopa/
Levodopa

A

Brand Name
Duopa

Condition Being Treated
Parkinson’s disease

Neurologic Medications

2121
Q

Brand Name
Lyrica

Generic Name
pregabalin

A

Condition Being Treated
Nerve pain, seizures

Neurologic Medications

2122
Q

Brand Name
Neurontin

Generic Name
gabapentin

A

Condition Being Treated
Nerve pain, seizures

Neurologic Medications

2123
Q

Brand Name
Antivert

Generic Name
meclizine

A

Condition Being Treated
Vertigo

Neurologic Medications

2124
Q

Brand Name
Imitrex

Generic Name
sumatriptan

A

Condition Being Treated
Headaches/
Chronic migraines

Neurologic Medications

2125
Q

Brand Name
Maxalt

Generic Name
rizatriptan

A

Condition Being Treated
Headaches/
Chronic migraines

Neurologic Medications

2126
Q

What are Psychiatric medications used for?

A

Psychiatric medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of behavior and mood.

2127
Q

Brand Name
Seroquel

Generic Name
quetiapine

A

Condition Being Treated
Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder

Psychiatric Medications

2128
Q

Generic Name

aripiprazole

A

Brand Name
Abilify

Condition Being Treated
Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder

Psychiatric Medications

2129
Q

Generic Name

risperidone

A

Brand Name
Risperdal

Condition Being Treated
Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder

Psychiatric Medications

2130
Q

Brand Name
Buspar

Generic Name
buspirone

A

Condition Being Treated
Anxiety

Psychiatric Medications

2131
Q

Brand Name
Xanax

Generic Name
alprazolam

A

Condition Being Treated
Anxiety

Psychiatric Medications

2132
Q

Generic Name

clonazepam

A

Brand Name
Klonopin

Condition Being Treated
Anxiety

Psychiatric Medications

2133
Q

Generic Name

lorazepam

A

Brand Name
Ativan

Condition Being Treated
Anxiety

Psychiatric Medications

2134
Q

Generic Name

diazepam

A

Brand Name
Valium

Condition Being Treated
Anxiety, seizures

Psychiatric Medications

2135
Q

Generic Name

zolpidem

A

Brand Name
Ambien

Condition Being Treated
Insomnia

Psychiatric Medications

2136
Q

Brand Name
Cymbalta

Generic Name
duloxetine

A

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2137
Q

Brand Name
Desyrel

Generic Name
trazodone

A

Condition Being Treated
Insomnia, depression

Psychiatric Medications

2138
Q

Brand Name
Zoloft

Generic Name
sertraline

A

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2139
Q

Brand Name
Prozac

Generic Name
fluoxetine

A

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2140
Q

Generic Name

citalopram

A

Brand Name
Celexa

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2141
Q

Brand Name
Wellbutrin

Generic Name
bupropion

A

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2142
Q

Brand Name

Lexapro

A

Generic Name
escitalopram

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2143
Q

Generic Name

mirtazapine

A

Brand Name
Remeron

Condition Being Treated
Depression

Psychiatric Medications

2144
Q

Brand Name
Elavil

Generic Name
amitriptyline

A

Condition Being Treated
Depression, chronic migraines

Psychiatric Medications

2145
Q

Generic Name

nortriptyline

A

Brand Name
Pamelor

Condition Being Treated
Depression, chronic migraines

Psychiatric Medications

2146
Q

What are Respiratory medications used for?

A

Respiratory medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the lungs and upper respiratory tract.

2147
Q

Generic Name

tiotropium

A

Brand Name
Spiriva

Condition Being Treated
Asthma, COPD

Respiratory Medications

2148
Q

Generic Name

benzonatate

A

Brand Name
Tessalon Perles

Condition Being Treated
Cough

Respiratory Medications

2149
Q

Brand Name
Advair Diskus

Generic Name
fluticasone/
salmeterol

A

Condition Being Treated

Asthma, COPD

2150
Q

Generic Name

albuterol

A

Brand Name
ProAir/
Ventolin

Condition Being Treated
Dyspnea

Respiratory Medications

Tip Box: This is most commonly prescribed as a rescue inhaler, but albuterol is also prescribed as a nebulizer treatment.

2151
Q

Brand Name
Robitussin DM

Generic Name
dextromethorphan

A

Condition Being Treated
Cough

Respiratory Medications

Tip Box: This medication is considered over-the-counter, but is still controlled when purchased due to abuse risk.

2152
Q

Generic Name

guaifenesin

A

Brand Name
Mucinex

Condition Being Treated
Congestion

Respiratory Medications

2153
Q

What are Systemic medications used for?

A

Systemic medications are used to treat conditions and diseases of the whole body.

2154
Q

Brand Name
Xylocaine

Generic Name
lidocaine

A

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Systemic Medications

Tip Box: This is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in most EDs and clinics.

2155
Q

Brand Name
Marcaine

Generic Name
bupivacaine

A

Condition Being Treated
Pain

Systemic Medications

2156
Q

Brand Name
Amidate

Generic Name
etomidate

A

Condition Being Treated
Conscious sedation

Systemic Medications

2157
Q

Generic Name

Propofol

A

Brand Name: Diprivan

Condition Being Treated
Conscious sedation

Systemic Medications

2158
Q

Generic Name

fluconazole

A

Brand Name
Diflucan

Condition Being Treated
Yeast infections, Valley Fever

Class
Antifungal

Systemic Medications

2159
Q

Generic Name

Amoxicillin

A

Brand Name
Amoxil

Condition Being Treated
Pneumonia, strep, cellulitis, otitis

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2160
Q

Brand Name
Augmentin

Generic Name
amoxicillin/ clavulanate

A

Condition Being Treated
Pneumonia, impetigo, cellulitis, otitis

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2161
Q

Generic Name

azithromycin

A

Brand Name
Z-pak/
Zithromax

Condition Being Treated
Pneumonia, chlamydia, multiple other infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2162
Q

Generic Name

sulfamethoxazole & trimethoprim

A

Brand Name
Bactrim

Condition Being Treated
UTI, cellulitis

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2163
Q

Brand Name
Cipro

Generic Name
ciprofloxacin

A

Condition Being Treated
UTI, pyelonephritis, multiple other infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2164
Q

Cleocin

Generic Name
clindamycin

A

Condition Being Treated
Strep, acne, multiple other infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2165
Q

Brand Name

Levaquin

A
2166
Q

Generic Name

levofloxacin

A

Brand Name
Levaquin

Condition Being Treated
UTI, pyelonephritis, multiple other infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2167
Q

Generic Name

metronidazole

A

Brand Name
Flagyl

Condition Being Treated
Bacterial vaginosis, C. diff, trichomoniasis

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2168
Q

Brand Name
Keflex

Generic Name
cephalexin

A

Condition Being Treated
UTI, cellulitis

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2169
Q

Generic Name

penicillin

A

Brand Name
Penicillin VK

Condition Being Treated
ENT, respiratory tract, and multiple other infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2170
Q

Generic Name

doxycycline

A

Condition Being Treated Brand Name

Multiple resistant infections

Class
Antibiotic

Systemic Medications

2171
Q

Brand Name
Benadryl

Generic Name
diphenhydramine

A

Condition Being Treated
Allergic reactions, sleeplessness

Systemic Medications

2172
Q

Generic Name

acyclovir

A

Condition Being Treated
Herpes, shingles

Systemic Medications

2173
Q

Generic Name

valacyclovir

A

Brand Name
Valtrex

Condition Being Treated
Herpes, shingles

Systemic Medications

2174
Q

Brand Name
Valtrex

Generic Name
valacyclovir

A

Condition Being Treated
Herpes, shingles

Systemic Medications

2175
Q

Brand Name

Tamiflu

A

Condition Being Treated
Influenza

Systemic Medications

2176
Q

Generic Name

cyanocobalamin

A

Brand Name
Vitamin B12

Condition Being Treated
Vitamin B12 deficiency

Systemic

2177
Q

Generic Name

prednisone

A

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation

Systemic Medications

2178
Q

Generic Name

methylprednisolone

A

Brand Name
Medrol

Condition Being Treated
Inflammation

Systemic Medications

2179
Q

Generic Name

rocuronium (“roc”)

A

Condition Being Treated
Conscious sedation

Systemic Medications

2180
Q

Generic Name

epinephrine

A

Brand Name
EpiPen

Condition Being Treated
Anaphylaxis

Systemic Medications

2181
Q

Which of the following are considered diagnostic studies? (Check all that apply).
1 point

A
Differential diagnosis
Consultations
Labs
Procedures
Imaging
Reevaluations
2182
Q

Which of the following would be included in a Plan? (Check all that apply).

3 points

A

Changes in medications/new medications being prescribed.
Conversations with other providers during the treatment of the patient.
Orders for labs, imaging, or other additional testing.
A list of symptoms reported by the patient.
All communications with nursing staff.
Referrals to other healthcare professions.

2183
Q

Generic Name

succinylcholine (“sux”)

A

Condition Being Treated
Conscious sedation

Systemic Medications

2184
Q

Subjective fever

ROS or exam?

A

ROS

2185
Q

Measured fever

ROS or Exam?

A

ROS

2186
Q

Chills

ROS or Exam?

A

ROS

2187
Q

Sweating

ROS or Exam?

A

ROS

2188
Q

Diaphoresis

ROS or Exam?

A

ROS

2189
Q

Generalized weakness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2190
Q

Fatigue

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2191
Q

Malaise

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2192
Q

Decreased appetite

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2193
Q

Decreased oral intake

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2194
Q

Weight gain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2195
Q

Weight loss

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2196
Q

Urticaria

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2197
Q

Rash

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2198
Q

Itching

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2199
Q

Redness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2200
Q

Ecchymosis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2201
Q

Abrasion

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2202
Q

Laceration

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2203
Q

Burn

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2204
Q

Dryness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2205
Q

Lesion

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2206
Q

Jaundice

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2207
Q

Cyanosis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2208
Q

Dog bite/Human bite

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2209
Q

Blurred vision

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2210
Q

Diplopia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2211
Q

Visual changes

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2212
Q

Eye pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2213
Q

Eye discharge

ROS OR Exam?

A

ROS

2214
Q

Mattering

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2215
Q

Eye discoloration

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2216
Q

Eye foreign body

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2217
Q

Excessive tearing

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2218
Q

Eyelid swelling

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2219
Q

Ear pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2220
Q

Ear discharge

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2221
Q

Tinnitus

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2222
Q

Decreased hearing

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2223
Q

Hearing loss

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2224
Q

Nasal congestion

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2225
Q

Rhinorrhea

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2226
Q

Epistaxis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2227
Q

Mouth pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2228
Q

Dental pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2229
Q

Tongue swelling

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2230
Q

Oral lesions

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2231
Q

Bleeding gums

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2232
Q

Dry mouth

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2233
Q

Sore throat/throat pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2234
Q

Difficulty swallowing

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2235
Q

Throat swelling

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2236
Q

Chest pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2237
Q

Palpitations

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2238
Q

Syncope

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2239
Q

Diaphoresis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2240
Q

Peripheral edema

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2241
Q

Abdominal pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2242
Q

Pelvic pain

A

ROS

2243
Q

Flank pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2244
Q

Nausea

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2245
Q

Vomiting

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2246
Q

Post-tussive emesis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2247
Q

Hematemesis

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2248
Q

Diarrhea

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2249
Q

Hematochezia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2250
Q

Melena

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2251
Q

Constipation

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2252
Q

Dysphagia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2253
Q

Rectal bleeding

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2254
Q

Rectal pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2255
Q

Dysuria

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2256
Q

Hematuria

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2257
Q

Urinary incontinence

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2258
Q

Urinary frequency

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2259
Q

Urinary urgency

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2260
Q

Urinary retention

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2261
Q

Nocturia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2262
Q

Vaginal bleeding

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2263
Q

Vaginal discharge

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2264
Q

Metrorrhagia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2265
Q

Genital lesions

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2266
Q

Testicular pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2267
Q

Scrotal swelling

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2268
Q

Penile pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2269
Q

Penile discharge

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2270
Q

Back pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2271
Q

Back pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2272
Q

Neck pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2273
Q

Myalgias

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2274
Q

Arthralgias

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2275
Q

Extremity pain

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2276
Q

Headache

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2277
Q

Photophobia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2278
Q

Phonophobia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2279
Q

Dizziness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2280
Q

Lightheadedness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2281
Q

Rotational

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2282
Q

Altered level of consciousness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2283
Q

Numbness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2284
Q

Tingling

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2285
Q

Weakness

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2286
Q

Seizure

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2287
Q

Dysarthria

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2288
Q

Dysphasia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2289
Q

Bowel/bladder incontinence

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2290
Q

Saddle anesthesia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2291
Q

Anxiety

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2292
Q

Depression

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2293
Q

Mania

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2294
Q

Suicidal ideation

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2295
Q

Homicidal ideation

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2296
Q

Auditory or Visual Hallucinations

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2297
Q

Insomnia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2298
Q

Substance abuse

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2299
Q

Eating disorders

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2300
Q

Polyuria

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2301
Q

Polydipsia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2302
Q

Polyphagia

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2303
Q

Hypoglycemia
Heat/Cold intolerance
Hirsutism

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2304
Q

Alopecia
Hot flashes

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2305
Q

Bleeding tendency
Bruising tendency
ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2306
Q

Petechiae
Swollen lymph nodes

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2307
Q

Seasonal allergies
Food allergies

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2308
Q

Recurrent infections
Impaired immunity
Immunosuppressive therapy

ROS OR EXAM

A

ROS

2309
Q

ROS OR EXAM? Why?

Constitutional
Skin
Eyes
ENMT (Ears, Nose, Mouth, and Throat) *****
Respiratory
Cardiovascular
Gastrointestinal
Genitourinary
Musculoskeletal
Neurologic
Psychiatric
Endocrine *****
Heme/Lymph (Hematologic/Lymphatic) *****
Allergy/Immunologic ******
A

Constitutional

The above = ROS, bottom exam
Skin
Head/Neck ********
Eyes
ENT ******
Lymphatics
Cardiovascular
Respiratory/Chest Wall *******
Gastrointestinal
Genitourinary
Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremities *****
Neurological
Psychiatric
2310
Q

Some physical exam findings may fit in more than one body system. These may also contradict a finding in another system, so always be cognizant when recording exams.
T/F??

A

True

2311
Q

Alert
No acute distress
Well-developed, well-nourished

ROS OR EXAM?

A

Exam

Body System: Constitutional

2312
Q

Somnolent
Obtunded
Unresponsive

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Constitutional

2313
Q

Mild distress
Moderate distress
Severe distress

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Constitutional

2314
Q

Cachectic
Ill-appearing
Obese/grossly overweight

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Constitutional

2315
Q

Cachectic
Ill-appearing
Obese/grossly overweight

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Constitutional

2316
Q

Warm
Dry
Pink

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2317
Q

Intact

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2318
Q

No signs of infection

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2319
Q

No rashes

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2320
Q

No signs of trauma

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2321
Q

Cool

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2322
Q

Moist
Clammy
Diaphoretic

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2323
Q

Jaundiced
Cyanotic
Pale

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2324
Q

Laceration
Abrasion

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2325
Q

Avulsion
Lesion

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2326
Q

Fluctuance
Induration

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2327
Q

Erythema
Purulent drainage

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2328
Q

Lymphangitis

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2329
Q

Urticaria
Petechiae
Vesicles

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2330
Q

Hematoma
Ecchymosis

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Skin

2331
Q

Normocephalic
Atraumatic
No head tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2332
Q

Supple
Trachea midline

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2333
Q

No JVD
No cervical lymphadenopathy

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2334
Q

No JVD
No cervical lymphadenopathy

ROS OR EXAM

A

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2335
Q

No carotid bruit
No neck tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2336
Q

No neck tenderness
No deformity

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2337
Q

Craniectomy
Skull malformations

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2338
Q

Battle sign
Contusions

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2339
Q

Lacerations
Hematomas

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2340
Q

Ecchymosis

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2341
Q

Skull tenderness
Sinus tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2342
Q

Supple

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2343
Q

Nuchal rigidity

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2344
Q

Trachea midline

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2345
Q

Deviation

Tracheal deviation

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2346
Q

No JVD
JVD

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2347
Q

No cervical lymphadenopathy

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2348
Q

Cervical lymphadenopathy

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2349
Q

No carotid bruit
Carotid bruit

ROS OR EXAM

A

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2350
Q

No tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2351
Q

C-spine tenderness
Paraspinal muscle tenderness
Trapezius tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2352
Q

C-spine tenderness
Paraspinal muscle tenderness
Trapezius tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2353
Q

No deformity

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2354
Q

Bony crepitus
Step-offs

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Head/Neck DIFF

2355
Q

PERRLA
EOMI

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2356
Q

Normal conjunctiva
Anicteric sclera

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2357
Q

Sluggish pupils
Blown pupil

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2358
Q

Dilated pupils
Fixed pupils

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2359
Q

Nystagmus
Entrapment

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2360
Q

Injected conjunctiva
Pale conjunctiva

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2361
Q

Scleral Icterus

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Eyes

2362
Q

TMs clear

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2363
Q

Retracted TM
Bulging TM

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2364
Q

Erythematous TM
Dull TM

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2365
Q

Hemotympanum
TM obscured by cerumen

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2366
Q

Normal nares (nostrils)

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2367
Q

Epistaxis
Rhinorrhea

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2368
Q

Septal hematoma
Boggy turbinates

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2369
Q

Nasal deformity

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2370
Q

Moist mucous membranes
Dry mucous membranes

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2371
Q

Dental caries
Edentulous
Gingival abscess

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2372
Q

Tonsillar hypertrophy
Pharyngeal erythema

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2373
Q

Pharyngeal exudates
Cobblestoning

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2374
Q

No lymphadenopathy
Lymphadenopathy

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: ENMT

2375
Q

Regular rate
Regular rhythm
No edema

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2376
Q

Good capillary refill
Strong, equal distal pulses
Normal heart sounds

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2377
Q

Tachycardia
Bradycardia

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2378
Q

Arrhythmia
Atrial fibrillation

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2379
Q

Peripheral edema

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2380
Q

Delayed cap(illary) refill

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2381
Q
Absent pulse (0+) - Bounding (4+)
ROS OR EXAM
A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2382
Q

Rubs
Gallops
Murmurs

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Cardiovascular

2383
Q

Lungs CTA
Equal breath sounds
Non-labored respirations

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2384
Q

No chest wall tenderness
No chest wall deformity
Normal breast exam

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2385
Q

Wheezes
Crackles

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2386
Q

Rales
Rhonchi
Stridor

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2387
Q

Diminished breath sounds

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2388
Q

Tachypnea
Bradypnea
Apnea

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2389
Q

Tenderness

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2390
Q

Crepitus
Seat belt sign

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2391
Q

Ecchymosis
Emphysema

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2392
Q

Masses
Nipple discharge
Tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Respiratory/ Chest Wall**

2393
Q

Soft
Nontender
Nondistended

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2394
Q

Normal bowel sounds
No palpable masses
Normal rectal exam

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2395
Q

Rigid (involuntary guarding)

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2396
Q

Mild tenderness
Moderate tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2397
Q

Severe tenderness
Rebound tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2398
Q

Voluntary guarding
Murphy’s sign
Mcburney’s point tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2399
Q

Psoas sign
Obturator sign
Rovsing’s sign

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2400
Q

Distended

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2401
Q

Absent
Hyperactive
Hypoactive

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2402
Q

Hernia (umbilical, inguinal, etc/reducible, unable to reduce, etc)

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2403
Q
Rectal exam:
Normal tone
Brown stool
Guaiac negative
No hemorrhoids

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2404
Q

Rectal exam:
Decreased tone
Black (melanotic), red, white stool
Guaiac positive

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2405
Q

Internal/external/ thrombosed hemorrhoids

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Gastrointestinal**

2406
Q

Normal external female genitalia
Normal bimanual exam

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2407
Q

Normal speculum exam
Normal external male genitalia

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2408
Q

Sores
Lesions
Rashes

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2409
Q

Cervical motion tenderness
Adnexal tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2410
Q

Cervical os open
Blood or malodorous/
discolored discharge in the vault

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2411
Q

Penile lesions
Penile sores
Urethral discharge

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2412
Q

Normal external male genitalia
Circumcised/uncircumcised

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2413
Q

Scrotal swelling
Testicular mass
Inguinal hernia

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Genitourinary**

2414
Q

Nontender bones/muscles
Full range of motion (extremities)
Normal muscle strength

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2415
Q

Distal neurovascular intact
No bony deformity
Nontender back

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam
Exam
Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2416
Q

No back deformity
Full range of motion (back)
ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2417
Q

Bony tenderness
Soft tissue tenderness
Calf tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2418
Q

Decreased/limited range of motion

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2419
Q

Muscle weakness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2420
Q

Capillary refill delay
Poor distal pulses
Edema

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2421
Q

Joint laxity
Bony crepitus
Obvious deformity

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2422
Q

Malalignment
Palpable cords
Homan’s sign

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2423
Q

T/L- spine tenderness
CVA tenderness
Paraspinal muscle tenderness

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Musculoskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2424
Q

Crepitus
Step-offs
Kyphosis

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2425
Q

Decreased/limited range of motion

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Muskuloskeletal/Back/Extremities**

2426
Q

A/O x4
Normal speech
No focal neuro deficits

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2427
Q

Normal sensation
Normal deep tendon reflexes
Cranial nerves II - XII intact

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2428
Q

Cranial nerves II - XII intact
Normal gait
Normal finger-to-nose, heel-to-shin

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2429
Q

Negative Romberg’s
No meningismus

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2430
Q

Disoriented to 1 or more
Somnolent
Obtunded

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2431
Q

Responsive only to voice/painful stimuli
Unresponsive
Does not follow commands

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2432
Q

Dysarthria
Dysphasia
Aphasia

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2433
Q

Extremity weakness
Pronator drift
Decreased grip strength (< 5/5)
Tremors

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2434
Q

Paresthesias/
decreased sensation

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2435
Q

Abnormally fast or slow reflexes

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2436
Q

Changes in neuro functions that affect eyes to upper shoulders, including the face

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2437
Q

Ataxia

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2438
Q

Dysmetria

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2439
Q

Positive Romberg’s sign

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2440
Q

Meningismus

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Neurological**

2441
Q

Cooperative behavior
Appropriate mood and affect

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2442
Q

Normal judgement
Non-suicidal

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2443
Q

Uncooperative
Belligerent
Relaxed

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2444
Q

Anxious
Depressed
Tearful

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2445
Q

Hostile
Flat
Paranoid

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2446
Q

Appears intoxicated

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2447
Q

Abnormal psychotic thoughts:
Suicidal
Homicidal

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**

2448
Q

Hallucinations
Tangential
Flight of ideas

ROS OR EXAM

A

Exam

Body System: Psychiatric**