ENT Secrets Flashcards

1
Q

What are the insertions and 5 layers of the true vocal cords?

A

The vocal cords extends from the anterior commissure of the thyroid cartilage to the vocal process of the arytenoid.

The layers from superficial to deep:

  1. Squamous epithelium (stratified, nonkeratinizing epithelium)
  2. Superficial lamina propria (fibrous matrix)
  3. Intermediate lamina propria (elastin)
  4. Deep lamina propria (dense collagen, and 3+4 makes up the vocal ligament
  5. Thyroarytenoid mussle complex (thyroarytenoid and vocalis muscle)
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2
Q

Where is the most common site for hypopharyngeal cancer to occur?

A

The pyriform sinus in 65-75% of the cases

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3
Q

What is tylosis?

A

An autosomal dominant disease with hyperkeratosis of the palms of hands and feet, leading to 95% chance of developing SCC by the age of 70

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4
Q

Since the PE of esophageal cancer is often unremarkable, which lab tests are useful to aid diagnosis? Other tests?

A
  1. Hematocrit and albumin to check for malnutrient secondary to dysphagia and odynophagia
  2. Alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin secondary to liver metastasis
  3. Ca secondary to bone metastasis
  4. Others: barium swallow, esophagoscopy, CT, MRI, PET etc
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5
Q

Which types of thyroid cancer require complete dissection of reurrent laryngeal nerve if it is involved?

A

Medullary and anaplastic carcinoma, which are unresponsive to radioactive 131I

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6
Q

What is the protocol for thyroid hormone replacement before 131I ablation therapy?

A

T3 should be used for hormone replacement due to its short half-life, so that when it is withdrawn, there will be a shorter period of hypothyroidism until TSH is above 30mU/L, and 131I is given

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7
Q

What is the origine of medullary thyroid cancer?

A

They come from calcitonin-secreting parafollicular C cells. They are associated with MEN II.

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8
Q

What are the cancers associated with different MEN types?

A

MEN I: Wermer’s syndrome:

Pituitary adenoma, parathyroid adenoma, pancreatic islet cell tumor, gastric carcinoid

MEN IIa: Sipple’s syndrome:

Parathyroid adenoma, medullary carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma

MEN IIb:

Mucosal neuroma, ganglioneuroma, marfanoid habitus, medullary carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

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9
Q

Which neoplasm conditions are associated with RET proto-oncogene mutation? Implication?

A

MEN IIa and IIb

Total thyroidectomy is recommended

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10
Q

Which markers are used to track thyroid cancer?

A

Thyroglobulin level is an indicator for well-differentiated thyroid cancer recurrence

Calcitonin is a marker for medullary thyroid cancer

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11
Q

Presenting Sx of primary hyperparathyroidism hypercalcemia?

A

Stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones.

Stones: kidney stones, cholelithiasis

**Bones: **bone pain, pathologic fractures, subperiosteal resorption

**Groans: **muscle pain, weakness, pancreatitis, gout, constipation

**Psychiatric overtones: **anorexia, anxiety, depression

**Others: **hypertension, polydipsia, polyuria, lethargy, weight loss, neck mass

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12
Q

What is the cell origin of paraganglioma?

Locations?

A

They are paraganglionic cells, derived from sympathogonia, which are neural crest cells. Some can produce catecholamine and therefore are chromaffin positive

Normally they are in the adrenal medulla, but in the H&N regions they are at the carotid bifurcation and glomus jugulare (jugular bulb in the temporal bone)

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13
Q

Compare the glomus tympanicum and glomus jugulare?

A

Both are paraganglioma tumors, and present with pulsatile tinnitus, conductive hearing loss, and a red/blue mass behind tympanic membrane

Glomus tympanicum: arise in the middle ear on the promontory of the cochlea; minimal risk with ressection

Glomus jugulare: arise on the jugular bulb (origin of the jugular vein); it can cause bone destruction and puts cranial nervse IX, X and XI at risk with ressection

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of (large) hemangioma-associated coagulopathy? Txt?

A

Platelet trapping leading to diseminated intravascular coagulation-like syndrome. Txt is by transfusion of clotting factors and platelets, and later on, resection of the hemangioma.

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15
Q

Describe Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

A congenital syndrome associated with venous angioma of cerebral leptomeninges and port-wine nevi along V2 and V3 branches. Angiomas of mouth, nasal mucosa; calcification of occipital and posterior lobes; seizures, and ophthalmologic problems.

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16
Q

Txt for cutaneous and H&N vascular lesions?

A

The majority of facial hemangioma will regress on their own by age 5-7

For those that do not regress, or port-wine stains (nevus flammeus), could be treated with laser therapy, local injection of steroids, systemic steroid therapy, or local injections of sclerosing agents.

Larger lesions might require ambolization and surgical excision, and skull base-related lesions might require radiation

17
Q

Describe cystic hygroma?

A

It is a benign lymphatic dilation, presents by the second year of life. They are painless, soft, and compressible, and could undergo rapid enlargement after a slow-growth period

18
Q

The delivery of radiation therapy? Example?

A

From a linear accelerator (Linac) machine, which creates a variety of radiation beams.

For example, a cobalt machine has a cobalt radioactive source with provides low energy beams.

The 2 most common

19
Q

What are the 2 most common types of radiation therapy?

A

Photon beams (deeply penetrating) and electron (superficial)

20
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Radiation delivered by placing a radioactive source into a person’s body.

21
Q

What are some of the contraindications of radiation therapy?

A

Patients with collagen-vascular disease, pregnant, or who have previously received the maximum dose of radiation therapy to that region.

22
Q

What is the most common side effect of H&N radiation and txt?

A

Xerostomia or dry mouth. Treated with pilocarpine, a parasympathomimetic, during and after salivary gland irradiation

23
Q

What is the radiation method used for acoustic neuromas?

A

Stereotactic radiosurgery with gamma knife, delivered from multiple angles

24
Q

Describe radiosensitizers?

A

Chemotherapeutic agents such as Cisplatin can induce DNA chances that are mutagenic and also increase damage to malignant nuclear DNA to enhance the anti-neoplastic capacity of radiotherapy.

25
Q

What are the most common types of actinic damages?

A

Dyschromia

Telangiectasia

Seborrheic keratoses

Actinic keratoses

26
Q

What are the Clark’s levels for melanoma?

A

Level 1: within the epidermis

2: within the papillary dermal
3: at the border of the papillary and reticular dermis
4: invades the reticular dermis
5: invades the subcutaneous fat

27
Q

Breslow staging for melanoma?

A

Level 1: less than 0.75mm

2: less than 1.5mm
3: less than 4mm
4: more than 4mm

28
Q

What are the 3 stages in which a skin graft is revascularized?

A

Stage 1: diffusion of nutrients from underlying tissues

Stage 2: after a few days, small blood vessels will grow from the underlying tissue into the graft

Stage 3: complete revascularization of the graft