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2019 RC Specialties > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the last sinus to develop?

A

Frontal

**Ego Means SelF
= Ethmoid - Maxillary - Sphenoid - Frontal

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2
Q

Tell me when the sinuses develop.

A

Ego means SelF

= Ethmoid= air @ birth
= Maxillary= present at birth; air @ 4
= Sphenoid= present at 5
= Frontal= start @ 7-8 but not fully done till teens

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3
Q

Most common long-term sequelae associated with congenital CMV?

A

Hearing loss

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4
Q

T or F: kids with congenital CMV can pass newborn hearing test.

A

True!

50% will pass but develop loss later.

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5
Q

What is the leading cause of acquired hearing loss?

A

Bacterial meningitis

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6
Q

Please list min. 5 non-infectious RF for neonatal sensorineural hearing loss.

A 
Preg: *in utero infectxn (i.e. CMV)
Post Natal
- Apgar 0-4 @ 1 min or 0-6 @ 5min
- *BW < 1500 g
- *Craniofacial anomalies (involving external ear)
- NICU > 2d
- *ECMO
- mechanical vent 5+ days
- *ototoxic meds (gent, tobra), diuretics (lasix)
- *hyperbili needing exchange
PMHX
- *congenital bacterial meningitis
- *syndromes: NF, Alport, Jervell and Lange-Nielson syndromes
- Neurodegenerative (Hunter)
- Sensory motor neuropathies (Charcot-Marie Tooth Syn)
- Recurrent or persistent AOM x 3 mon.
Meds: chemo
HPI: *trauma, noise level
Development: GDD, SLP delay
FHX: *fhx of permanent hearing loss
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7
Q

1.5 year old boy with sudden fall with normal LOC that has nystagmus. What is dx?

A

Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo

Associated: Migraines.

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8
Q

What is vertigo?

A

rotation or spinning component

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9
Q

T or F: true vertigo is associated with LOC.

A

False

  • No LOC
  • association= N/V, pallor, diaphoresis
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10
Q

Do you teens have benign paroxysmal or position vertigo?

A

Positional!

Paroxysmal usually resolve by 6 y.o.

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11
Q

How can you tell peripheral or central vertigo?

A

Central= constant, any direction nystagmus, neuro signs

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12
Q

List common reasons for acute vertigo:

A
  • AOM
  • benign paroxysmal vertigo (1-2 y.o.; short period; may get migraine later, tx gravol symptoms)
  • benign positional vertigo (~6 y.o., free debris in canal, sudden vertigo btwn episodes)
  • labyrinthitis (infection of inner ear; infection preceding; resolve over day)
  • vestibular neuritis (teens; after resp infection; postural imbalance w/ ear pain)
  • basilar artery migraine (teen F; episodic vertigo; h/a after)
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13
Q

List reasons for chronic vertigo:

A
  • NF2 neuromas
  • posterior fossa tumours
  • meds: aminoglycosides
  • cerebral infarct
  • MS (demyelinating process)
  • endo/metabolic (DM, thyroid)
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14
Q

What test must all people with vertigo undergo?

A

Hearing test.

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15
Q

What maneuver can you do for Benign POSITIONAL vertigo?

A

Epley test.

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16
Q

How do you treat vertigo?

A

Symptomatic if no RED flags

  • If persistent= W/U
  • If neuro= imaging
  • If LOC= EEG

Most recover w/out intervention over wk-months.

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17
Q

What is the most objective test for middle ear effusion?

A

Tympanometry.

Fluid= non compliant TM = flattened tympanogram tracing. Test limited by pt cooperation.
Does not distinguish btwn OME vs. AOM.

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18
Q

Facial nerve is which cranial nerve?

A

7

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19
Q

Most common causes of facial nerve palsy?

A

AOM
Bell’s palsy
Lyme disease

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20
Q

List 3 congenital causes of facial nerve palsy

A

CONGENITAL
1. Congenital Traumatic (LGA, forcep, prem)

  1. Moebius syndrome (CN 7 and 6)
  2. Asymmetric crying facies (loop-sided lip)
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21
Q

List 3 acquired causes of facial nerve palsy

A

ACQUIRED

  1. Tumour or Trauma
    - cholesteatoma
    - CA invasion
    - Basal skull #
  2. Infection
    - chronic AOM
    - parotitis or mastoiditis
    - Bell’s palsy (whole side)
    - Ramsay Hunt Syn (Herpes Zoster)
    - Lyme disease
  3. Systemic
    - sarcoidosis (esp if bilateral)
    - MS
    - Hyperthyroidism
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22
Q

What is the most common cause of unilateral facial weakness?

A

Bell’s Palsy

CC: usually abrupt loss of control + sensation on one side
~2 wk after infection
Dx of exclusion
Tx: steroids +/- valacyclovir

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23
Q

Describe the Ramsay Hunt Triad:

A
  1. Ipsilateral facial palsy
  2. Ear pain
  3. Vesicles (auditory canal, palate, tongue)
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24
Q

How do you tell the difference btwn central vs. peripheral lesions causing facial palsy?

A

Central =

  1. contralateral side from lesion
  2. spare upper 1/2 of face (wrinkle forehead)
    * see wkness if ask “show your teeth”
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25
Q

Describe areas you look at when assessing palsy?

A
  1. Forehead + Brow (lose mvmt)
  2. Eyes (can’t close or drooping or eyelid)
  3. Nasolabial folds (lost)
  4. Lip (drooping)
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26
Q

Tx of facial palsy:

A

Corticosteroids (prednisone x 1 week w/ taper)

+/- Antiviral (valacyclovir if severe or Ramsay Hunt)

PT EBM unclear
Surgical: rare

Remember: If can’t close their eyes= artificial tears w/ ophthalmic ointment + patch at night

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27
Q

What is the prognosis for Bell’s Palsy?

A

Excellent

> 85% full recovery (95% in some sources)

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28
Q

What is the consequence of withholding treatment x 48hr in child w/ AOM?

A

Prolonged duration of overall symptoms (including fever)

NOT: pain, mastoiditis

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29
Q

Give three indications for tympanostomy tubes.

A
  1. Recurrent AOM with MEE (middle ear effusion)
  2. OME + symptoms (hearing loss or school behav)
  3. OME (otitis media w/ effusion) > 3 month (w/ hearing loss or symp or high risk pop’n)

High risk pop’n: ASD, T21, cleft palate, DD, blind, craniofacial abnormalities, SLP delay, permanent hearing loss

  1. Hammer: B/L OME > 3 mon. + conductive hearing loss
  2. Hammer: other uncommon (complications of AOM like mastoiditis, lack of med tx response, chronic retraction of TM)
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30
Q

How do you diagnose AOM?

A
  1. Acute Symptoms
    - otalgia, irritability
  2. Middle Ear Effusion
    - immobile TM or otorrhea
  3. Significant middle-ear inflammation
    - bulging TM
    - discoloured TM
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31
Q

List risk factors for AOM

A
  1. orofacial anomalies (i.e. cleft palate)
  2. short duration of BF
  3. prolonged bottle feeding while supine
  4. household crowding
  5. exposure to cig smoke
  6. (+) FHX AOM
  7. First Nations or Inuit

Other CPS: young age, pacifier use, low IgA, CF

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32
Q

When do you do watchful waiting in AOM?

A 
Min 6 mo. old
\+ Well (no immuno, cardiac, pul., T21)
\+ Mild (fever < 39, mild pain)
\+ do not meet full criteria
= wait x 48 hr

If not improve or worsen = Tx

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33
Q

When do you treat AOM?

A

Unwell
OR febrile (min. 39) + mod-severe or severe otalgia
OR min. 48hr wait
= Tx

Note: AAP also says < 2 y.o. w/ bilateral to treat.

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34
Q

What are risk factors for Abx resistant S. pneumonia for AOM (which is why we do high dose)?

A

< 2 y.o.
daycare
frequent/recent (w/in 3 mo.)
failed initial Abx

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35
Q

Which Abx can you use for AOM?

A
  1. Amoxicillin 90 divided BID
  2. Amox-Clav
    - amox in last 30 days
    - If unimmunized
    - AOM + purulent conjunctivitis as more likely H. influx + M. catarrhalis
  3. Cefprozil or Cefuroxime
    - non IgE rxn
    - Note only Ceftriaxone if PO not tolerated or Amox-Clav fail
  4. Clarithromycin or Azithro x 5d
    - IgE Rxn
  5. Clindamycin
    - IgE Rxn (not as good w/ s. pneumonia or H. Influ)
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36
Q

How long do you treat AOM for?

A

5 DAY= > 2 y.o. = 5 day

10 DAY = < 2 or frequent or perf TM or failed initial Tx

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37
Q

List some serious complications of AOM?

A
  1. *Mastoiditis
  2. Sub-periosteal abscess
  3. Facial Nerve Palsy
  4. Venous Sinus Thrombosis
  5. Meningitis

Other: labyrinthitis, Bezold’s absces, * cholesteatoma etc.

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38
Q

How do you treat AOM w/ tube otorrhea

A

Ciprodex (steroids + Abx)

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39
Q

How do you treat AOM + perf TM/otorrhea

A

PO Amox x 10 d

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40
Q

When do you refer a perforated TM to ENT?

A

Does not heal in 6 wk

  • heal usually w/out intervention
  • keep out water + cotton tips
  • eval hearing
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41
Q

List three possible Abx for a pt w/ AOM treated with Clarithro a few weeks ago for resp infection.

A
  1. high dose amox
  2. amox-clav
  3. cefuroxime or cefprozil
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42
Q

How do you prevent AOM?

A
  1. Hygiene (reduce virus)
  2. Exclusive BF until min. 3 mon (reduce chance for 4-12 mo. after BF ceases)
  3. Avoid pacifier
  4. No smoking
  5. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine for all as per schedule.
  6. Recommend annual flu vaccine.
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43
Q

When do you suspect primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

PCD= immotile cilia syn; AR dx
50% situs inversus= Kartagener’s Syn

  • chronic or recurring URTI or LRTI
  • bronchiectasis of RML or lingula
  • chronic AOM
  • rhinosinusitis
  • nasal polyps
  • heterotaxy (TGA common)
  • infertility

Consider: CXR, CT lung, PFT
Dx: nasal nitric oxide (low in PCD), nasal bx (ciliary motion)

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44
Q

Most common cause of epistaxis?

A

picking the nose

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45
Q

List a brief list of aetiologies for epistaxis:

A
  • trauma (nose picking, acute facial trauma causing septal hematoma)
  • rhinitis
  • sinusitis
  • FB
  • polyp, tumours
  • vascular malformations/telangiectasia
  • bleeding dx (vWF, hemophilia)
  • irritant (Smoke)
  • meds (anticoag, NSAID, topical corticosteroids)
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46
Q

How do you manage epistaxis

A
  1. Sit child upright
  2. Tilt head fwd
  3. compress nare x 5-10 min.
  4. cold compress to nose

if does not work

  • oxymetazole
  • anterior pack + cauterize site
  • tx underlying coagulopathy
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47
Q

When do you refer to ENT for epistaxis?

A
  • b/l nasal bleeding

- posterior hemorrhage (not from Kiesselbach plexus)

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48
Q

How do you prevent epistaxis?

A

Humidify + Lubricate!

  • humidifier
  • nasal saline drops
  • vaseline to septum
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49
Q

What is Otrivin?

A

Oxymetazoline= vasoconstrictor

  • nose bleed
  • topical decongestant for rhinitis
  • only use max 3-5d
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50
Q

What is rhinitis medicamentosa?

A

= Rebound nasal rhinitis after Otrivin

= rebound nasal hypertrophy, congestion, inflam.

  • resolve in 1-2 wk
  • can use IN steroids to tx
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51
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Sleep disruption
+ Hypoxemia
+ Daytime symptoms

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52
Q

What is the most common cause of OSA?

A

Adenotonsilar Hypertrophy

53
Q

List 5 daytime symptoms of OSA:

A
  • *difficult to wake in am
  • *morning h/a
  • mouth breathing
  • chronic nasal congestion
  • *hyponasal speech
  • *somnolence= excess daytime sleepiness/ naps
  • *neurobehav issues= poor mood, behav difficulties
54
Q

What are the paradise criteria recommendations for tonsillectomy in cases of recurrent tonsillitis?
How many episodes are too much?

A

Relative indication

“7 in 1
5 in 2
3 in 3”
( # of episode go down by 2 while year go up by 1)

  • 7 episode sore recurrent throat infctxn in pvx year
  • min. 5 episodes in each of pvx 2 yrs
  • min. 3 episodes in each of past 3 yrs
55
Q

List the paradise criteria for recurrent tonsillitis and T&A

A

7 in 1
5 in 2
3 in 3

56
Q

1 y.o. w/ exudative pharyngitis- likely dx?

A

Viral!

  • strep uncommon before 2-3 y.o.
  • virus predominate over bacterial
  • Mono < 4 y.o. usually asymptomatic
57
Q

Triad for EBV in teens

A

Fatigue
+ Pharyngitis
+ Generalized lymphoadenopathy

58
Q

At which age group is GAS pharyngitis more common?

A

5- 15 y.o.

59
Q

How do you treat GAS pharyngitis:

A

Pen PO x 10 d

60
Q

When is EBV symptomatic?

A

Teens

61
Q

Tell me about splenic hemorrhage.

A
  • highest risk during 2nd week of dx

- avoid contact sport + strenuous athletic activities during 2-3 wk of illness or while splenomegaly there

62
Q

What are absolute indications for tonsillectomy?

A
  • acute airway obstruction
  • cor pulmonale
  • suspected CA or TB
  • acute hemorrhagic tonsillitis
  • severe dysphagia

VS. Relative indication= recurrent tonsillitis (paradise criteria), tonsillitis complications (peritonsillar abscess, sleep apnea, hard swallowing), tonsilloliths and halitosis

63
Q

List two contraindications to T&A

A
  1. repaired cleft palate

2. hemophilia.

64
Q

What condition is pathognomonic for bifid uvula?

A

Loeys-Dietz Syn
= AD connective tissue dx

Primary CC: arterial tortuosity + wide spaced eyes (hypertelorism) + bifid uvula + aortic root aneurysm

Other: 
Cardiac- PDA, ASD
Aneurysm
Midface cleft palate
MSK scoliosis, club foot
Skin bruising, scar
65
Q

Q: RPA with Sx decompression. New H/A. Likely cause?

A

Internal jugular vein thrombosis.

  • HENT infection most common cause of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

Other Complications of RPA:

  • obstruction
  • rupture leading to aspiration pneumonia
  • erosion of carotid sheath
66
Q

What are some differences between peritonsillar abscess vs. retropharyngeal abscess

A 
Peritonsillar=
Teens
GAS
TRIMUS + Dsyphagia
CT
Sx
RPA=
< 5 y.o. (RP nodes involute)
Polymicrobial
Throat pain + muffle
TORTICOLLIS
1/3 have trismus
Inspiration XR
\+/- CT
IV Abx + Sx
67
Q

Recurrent stridor often need what type of test?

A

Bronchoscopy

DX:

  • allergic/spasmodic croup
  • resp infection w/ narrow airways
  • laryngomalacia
68
Q

T or F: cool mist in ED is helpful in helpful in tx croup.

A

False.

  • Cochrane shows no evidence despite observational comments.
69
Q

What is the #1 tx for croup?

A

Oral corticosteroids + Nebulized epinephrine.
* should respond w/in 10-30 min.

Note: heliox considered if thinking intubation (but evidence inconclusive)

70
Q

2 mon. old w/ noisy breathing but well. Dx and maneuver?

A

Laryngomalacia.

Maneuver: improve w/ prone.

71
Q

T or F: laryngomalacia is most common cause of stridor in infants AND chidlren

A

True.

72
Q

What is the natural course of laryngomalacia?

A

Present by 1st mo.

Worsen up 6-8mo.

Resolve by 2 y.o.

73
Q

Treatment for laryngomalacia

A

Reassurance.

If severe (resp failure, growth, FTT, DD) = Sx

74
Q

List a DDX for noisy breathing:

A

THINK ANATOMY (Nose -> Oro -> Larynx -> Subglottic -> Tracheobronchial)

OR CATEGORIES
- Congenital: chonanal atresia, laryngomalacia, laryngeal cleft, tracheomalacia

  • Trauma: FB, hematoma
  • Inflammatory: polyps, tonsil hypertrophy, RPA, laryngitis, croup, asthma
  • Neoplastic: hemangioma, tumour, thyroid
  • MSK: hypotonia, Vocal cord paralysis
75
Q

What is paradoxical vocal cord dysfunction?

A
  • inappropriate closing during inspiration
    = stridor or wheeze w/ activity (not working w/ asthma meds)
  • Think if truncated (flattened at bottom) or inconsistent (vs. asthma is scooped top) PFT flow-vol loop
76
Q

How do you treat paradoxical vocal cord dysfunction?

A

Rx: speech training + behaviour therapy (relaxation), +/- heliox if acute

77
Q

Swollen red midline neck mass = ?

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst.

78
Q

What is the pathognomonic sign for thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

Vertical elevation of mass w/ swallowing and tongue protrusion.

79
Q

Why do we not do Sx while thyroglossal duct cyst infected?

A
  • increase risk of recurrence

- increased chance of seeding infected cell outside

80
Q

List 2 DDX for congenital torticollis that are NOT a SCM tumour.

A
  1. Positional deformity
  2. Unilateral absence of SCM
  3. Vertebral anomalies (failure segmentation)

… Acquired DDX:

  • trauma (muscular injury to cervical muscle)
  • cervical inflame
    • RPAbscess
  • JIA
  • Dystonic drug rxn
  • Cervical cord tumour
  • Sandifer syndrome (GERD, hiatal hernia)
  • Benign paroxysmal torticollis
81
Q

What is Sturge Weber Syndrome?

A

Sporadic neurocutaneous vascular dx.

82
Q

What are the three main components of Sturge Weber Syndrome?

A

Skin-Brain-Eye

  1. Port-Wine Stain
  2. Leptomeningeal angioma
    - abN blood vessel in brain= Sz DD, hemiparesis, stroke
  3. Glaucoma
    - abN vessel in eye or others
83
Q

Cyst in salivary gland in sublingual area called what? What do you do?

A

Ranula.

Refer to Sx for excision!

84
Q

What is the gold standard for testing obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Nocturnal Polysomnography.

85
Q

Sequelae of Untreated OSA?

A
  • pulmonary HTN
  • R and LVH
  • Cor Pulmonale
86
Q

What are common trach complications

A
  • Obstruction
  • Accidental decannulation
  • Recurrent tracheitis
  • Tracheal ulceration
  • Tracheal granuloma
  • Hemorrhage
87
Q

What are key teaching points for families w/ Trach?

A
  • CPR
  • ABC/ need to be able to assess resp status
  • trach hygiene
  • suction
  • tube change
  • emergency trach + back up kit
  • back up power
88
Q

Common causes of stridor in TEF post-op:

A
  • tracheomalacia (associated w/ TEF)
  • GERD w/ laryngospasm
  • tracheal structure
  • vocal cord paralysis
89
Q

How long does it take for an effusion to clear after an AOM?

A

12 weeks (90% resolved)

90
Q

Teen w/ chronic left ear drainage - likely?

A

Cholesteatoma.

  • unilateral
  • foul
  • persistent
  • respond to tx but recur
91
Q

What is the most common congenital birth defect?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss.

92
Q

What is the most common genetic/hereditary cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Connexion 26

  • AR
  • non syndromic kids

Other: Waardenburg (AD), NF2 (AD), Treacher Collins (AD), Jervell/Lange-Nielsen (AR), Alport (X)

93
Q

How many of congenital CMV have symptoms?

A

5-10%

and 50% of those have SNHL.

vs. 90-95% asymptomatic but later 5-15% of those have SNHL.

94
Q

What most common non-genetic cause of hearing loss?

A

Congenital CMV

  • newborn screen miss 50%
  • high frequency sound
  • progressive (>50% in first 5 yr)
  • unilateral loss in most
95
Q

Most common cause of bilateral nasal obstruction in child?

A

Adenoid hypertrophy

96
Q

Most common cause of new foul persistent unilateral nasal d/c?

A

Nasal FB

97
Q

What do you worry about in nasal trauma or #?

A

septal hematoma

  • no XR needed; clinical exam
  • closed reduction b4 2 wk
98
Q

List complications of sinonasal infections?

A
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Sinovenous thrombosis
  • Brain abscess
99
Q

List signs of orbital cellulitis:

A 
H/A or severe pain
Diplopia
Vision change
Proptosis
LOC change
100
Q

How do you manage sinonasal infections?

A

Abx
Nasal corticosteroids
Decongestants
Sx: abscess drainage, source control

101
Q

Which is false: secondary indications of OSA include daytime somnolence, FTT, ADHD, enuresis.

A

Trick- they’re all true!

102
Q

What is enlarged soft tissue space in RPA or RP cellulitis?

A

Pre vertebral soft tissue > 1x width of vertebral body.

  • Or > 7mm @C2
  • Or > 14mm @C6

Other signs on XR: loss of cervical lordosis

103
Q

Describe the airway involved:

  • inspiratory stridor
  • biphasic
  • expiratory stridor
A

Insp= supra glottis
… laryngomalaia.. epiglottitis

Biphasic= VC/ Subglottis
… B/L VC paresis, subglottic hemangioma, croup

Exp= Trach + Bronchi
… tracheomalacia, TEF , complete trach ring

104
Q

What type of stridor do you get with FB?

A

ANY! can be anywhere.

  • supraglottis= insp
  • VC= biphasic
  • trach/bronchi= exp
105
Q

What are Stridor Red Flags (when to refer):

A
  • Eating/Feeding
  • Cyanosis
  • Progression
  • Severe
  • biphasic stridor
  • parental concern
  • dx question
106
Q

Beard distribution hemangioma =

A

Subglottic hemangioma

  • “Croup” too early
  • tx: propanolol
  • +/- steroid
    +/- laser/Sx
107
Q

Tell me the diff btwn stridor in laryngomalacia vs. tracheomalacia.

A

Laryngomalacia = INSP

Tracheomalacia= EXP

108
Q

What type of malacia is associated w/ TEF repair?

A

Tracheomalacia.

109
Q

When do a bronchoscopy with FB?

A

Object-Exam-XR

  • high density food: peanut, carrot, apple
  • P/E: wheeze, prolonged expiration, low AE
  • XR: air trapping or consolidation
110
Q

Most common FB?

A

Food

1/3= nuts (esp peanuts).

111
Q

What CC is usually suggestive of FB?

A

abrupt choking/coughing w/ new onset wheeze

Consider also in recurrent pneumonia

112
Q

What type of XR do you order if FB suspected?

A

Inspiratory + Expiratory (doesn’t deflate)

If can’t cooperate= Left + R lateral decubitus

113
Q

If you see a double ring circulator object on AP CXR or step on lateral? What is that?

A

Esophageal Button Battery

114
Q

Does OAE tell you about degree of hearing loss?

A

No!

  • objective test best in BB w/ no RF with clear middle ear that tell you if loss present
115
Q

What type of hearing screen do you do for newborns:

A

No RF and well:
OAE (otoacoustic emission)

If (+) or BB has RF: AABR (Auditory brainstem response)

116
Q

Neck Masses Etiology Categories

A

COIN

  • Congenital
  • Other
  • Infectious/Inflam
  • Neoplasm
117
Q

List 2 acute and 2 chronic infectious causes of neck masses:

A

Acute

  1. Viral: EBV, CMV
  2. Bacterial: GAS, Staph
  3. PFAPA lymphadenitis

Chronic

  1. HIV lymphadenitis
  2. Cat scratch (Bartonella)
  3. TB
  4. Atypical mycobacteria
118
Q

List two inflammatory conditions causing neck masses?

A
  1. KD

2. Sarcoidosis

119
Q

List 2 Benign and two malignant neoplastic causes of neck masses

A

Benign: hemangioma, neurofibroma

Malignant: lymphoma, neuroblastoma, thyroid malignancy

120
Q

List two causes each of midline neck masses vs. lateral

A

Midline:

  • thyroglossal duct cyst
  • dermoid cyst
  • cervical cleft

Lateral

  • branchial cleft cyst
  • thymic cyst

Vascular malformation can be either.

121
Q

Node is >1cm and round with high resistive index on U/S. Reactive or malignant?

A

Malignant!

>1cm
round (S/L > 0.5 cm)
no echogenic hilus
coagulative necrosis
high resistance index of blood flow
extracapscular spread
122
Q

If you see midline Ca2+ on neck on plain film=

A

Dermoid cyst

123
Q

If you have lateral smooth neck mass along SCM border

A

Branchial cleft cyst

124
Q

If you have neck mass that enlarges w/ valsalva?

A

Laryngocele

125
Q

If you have neck mass present at birth but grow then plateau and blue-

A

Hemangioma

126
Q

Compressible or transilluminate neck mass?

A

Lymphatic malformation

127
Q

Neck mass w/ torticollis

A

SCM tumour

128
Q

When do you Bx neck adenopathy

A 
Node > 2cm
Neonate
Firm, hard, fixed
CN abN
supraclavicular

No change x 4wk
‘B’ symptoms
PMHX cancer
FHX of cancer

2019 RC Specialties (31 decks)

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