ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main differentials for vertigo?

A
  1. benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
  2. menieres disease
  3. vestibular neuronitis /labrynthitis
  4. iron deficiency anaemia
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2
Q

describe the features of BPPV?

A

episodic vertigo - lasts for seconds
occurs when turn head e.g. in bed
relapsing remitting

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3
Q

What is BPPV precipitated by?

A

upper resp viral infection
head injury
inner ear pathology e.g. vestibular neuronitis
ear surgery

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4
Q

How is BPPV diagnosed?

A

dix hallpike manoeuvres - nystagmus if +ve

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5
Q

How is BPPV managed?

A

Epley Manoevres - by specialist

or Brandt Daroff exercises at home

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6
Q

Describe the features of menieres disease?

A
  1. episodic vertigo - lasts for 20 mins - 12 hours
  2. tinnitus - precedes the attack
  3. aural fullness “pressure, warm feeling in ear”
  4. hearing loss

-> leads to chronic unsteadiness and hearing loss

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7
Q

How can menieres disease be managed through lifestyle?

A

salt restriction
stop smoking
caffeine restriction
consider risks before driving, swimming, diving or operating machinery

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8
Q

How can menieres disease be managed with medication?

A
  1. anti emetic and anti histamine (e.g. cyclizine) for nausea
  2. betahistine for reducing endolymphatic fluid imbalance in inner ear
  3. IV labarynthe sedatives and fluids
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9
Q

Define vestibular neuronoitis?

A

inflammation of the vestibular nerve, usually by viral infection

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10
Q

Define labarythitis?

A

inflammation of the labarinth

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11
Q

how does vestibular neuronitis present?

A

sudden onset debilitating vertigo for 2-3 days + gradual recovery over few weeks
nausea and vomiting
unsteadiness
unwell for first few days

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12
Q

What sign can you see on examination of vestibular neuronitis?

A
Head
Impulse
Nystagmus
Type
Skew deviation test
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13
Q

How is vestibular neuronitis managed?

A
  1. supportive care - for nausea and vomiting can give oral /IM cyclizine or prochlorperazine but delays recovery time as interferes with cerebral compensatory mechanisms
  2. if persist for >6 weeks, consider referral
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14
Q

List the differentials for a sore throat?

A
tonsilitis 
pharyngitis
glandular fever 
quinsy 
laryngitis
epiglottitis 
diphtheria
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15
Q

What are the causes of tonsilitis?

A
  1. VIRAL (80%) - epstein barr virus **, herpes simplex, adenovirus
  2. BACTERIAL (20%) - streptococcus pyogenes** , strep pneumonia, staph aureus
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16
Q

What are the common features of tonsilitis?

A
  1. sore throat
  2. fever
  3. malaise
  4. cervical upper anterior lymphadenopathy

+ anorexia, dysphagia, halitosis
bacterial infection is a MORE SEVERE ILLNESS

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17
Q

Which criteria is used to assess the likelihood that the tonsilitis is a bacterial infection?

A

CENTOR CRITERIA

  1. fever
  2. tonsillar exudate
  3. tender anterior cervical adenopathy
  4. no cough
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18
Q

How is the centor criteria calculated and what does each score mean?

A

1 pt for each criteria + 1pt for age <15 y/o (subtract 1pt if > 44y/o)

0-1 pt = no antibiotics needed

2-3 pts = throat culture + antibiotic if culture +ve

4-5 pts = treat with antibiotic

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19
Q

Describe the appearance of tonsilitis on examination?

A

oedematous + yellow +/- white pustules

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20
Q

How is a bacterial tonsilitis treated?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin (or erythromycin) for 7-10 days

supportive care - bed rest, hydration, analgesia

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21
Q

What are the complications of tonsilitis?

A
peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
otitis media
rheumatic fever
scarlet fever
glomerulonephritis
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22
Q

What are the indications for a tonsillectomy?

A

> 7 bacterial infections in 12 months
1 quinsy
suspected malignancy
sleep disordered breathing e.g. sleep apnoea

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23
Q

What are the complications of tonsillectomy?

A

haemorrhage, pain

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic sore throat?

A

pharyngitis- caused by adenovirus, enterovirus, rhinovirus

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25
Q

How is pharyngitis treated?

A

paracetemol or ibuprofen
bed rest
plenty of fluids

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26
Q

What is the cause of glandular fever?

A

Epstein Barr virus (HHV4)

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27
Q

How does glandular fever present?

A

FOR 2-4 WEEKS:

  1. sore throat
  2. fever
  3. cervical lymphadenopathy - anterior and posterior triangles

+ anorexia, tiredness, headache, hepatosplenomegaly

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28
Q

How is glandular fever investigated and diagnosed?

A
  1. MONOSPOT *test - confirms in week 2
  2. FBC *

+ UandE , LFTS (causes hepatitis)

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29
Q

what would you find on examination of someone with glandular fever?

A

tonsils greatly enlarged and covered by membranous exudate

+ petechial haemorrhages + hepatosplenomegaly

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30
Q

How is glandular fever managed and what advice should be given?

A
  1. supportive care - bed rest, analgesia, fluids
  2. avoid alcohol
  3. avoid contact sports for 8 weeks (at risk of splenic rupture)
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31
Q

What happens if you take amoxicillin whilst having glandular fever?

A

maculopapular pruritic rash

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32
Q

What is quinsy?

A

= peritonsillar abscess

abscess/ pus forms between the tonsil capsule and superior constrictor muscle from a bacterial tonsillitis

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33
Q

How does a peritonsillar abscess typically present?

A

usually after bacterial tonsilitis

severe unilateral sore throat 
"hot potato" voice
dysphagia -> can result in dribbling 
trismus = difficulty opening mouth
cervical adenopathy
reduced neck mobility
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34
Q

Explain the findings on examination of quinsy?

A

uvula deviation
unilateral tonsillar inflammation
cervical adenopathy
reduced neck mobility

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35
Q

How is quinsy managed?

A
  1. refer to hospital
  2. IV penicillin
  3. surgical aspiration under local anaesthetic
  4. tonsillectomy
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36
Q

List the differentials for facial pain?

A
  1. atypical facial pain
    history of depression, vague history, unresponsive to medications
  2. trigeminal neuralgia
    sharp pain in maxillary and mandibular regions,
    Rx: carbamazepine
  3. giant cell arteritis
    + jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, fever, amaurosis fugax, polymyalgia rheumatica
    Rx: high dose pred
  4. sinusitis
  5. dental causes
    e. g. abscess
  6. migraine
    + severe unilateral pulsating throbbing pain, nausea
    Rx: NSAIDS, triptans
  7. ENT malignancy e.g. malignant pleomorphic adenoma
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37
Q

Define sinusitis?

A

inflammation of the mucous membranes of paranasal sinuses

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38
Q

List the 4 paranasal sinuses

A
  1. frontal sinus
  2. ethmoidal sinus
  3. sphenoidal sinus
  4. maxillary sinus
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39
Q

What is the common cause of sinusitis?

A

viral / bacterial infection - strep pneumonia **, h. influenza*, rhinovirus

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40
Q

What are the risk factors for sinusitis?

A
recent local infection 
smoking
swimming / diving
nasal polyposis 
deflected nasal septum or turbinate hypertrophy
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41
Q

List the features of acute sinusitis?

A

diffuse throbbing headache and facial pain - pressure in the forehead, between eyes and occipital ***
pain worse on bending forward
post coryzal nasal congestion and discharge
recurrent
halitosis

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42
Q

How is sinusitis treated?

A
  1. analgesia e.g. paracetemol, codeine
  2. intranasal decongestant or nasal drops e.g. oxymetazoline
  3. saline irrigation
  4. steam or menthol inhalations

if severe and suspect bacterial cause, give phenoxymethylpenicillin

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43
Q

What is a possible complication of sinusitis?

A

periorbital cellulitis, brain abscess, meningitis

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44
Q

When would a pt with sinusitis be referred to surgery?

A

refer if >3 antibiotics needed throughout the year, if suspected intracranial/ orbital involvement , refer for CT

  1. intranasal polypectomy
  2. septal correction
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45
Q

List the LOCAL causes of epistaxis?

A
idiopathic ** 
trauma e.g. injury, nose picking, surgery
foreign body
infection
neoplasia
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46
Q

List the GENERAL causes of epistaxis?

A

coagulation disorders e.g. thrombocytopenia, ITP, splenomegaly
drugs e.g. aspirin, warfarin, cocaine use
malignancy e.g. leukaemia
Hypertension
hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

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47
Q

What are two areas that can bleed in epistaxis?

A

ANTERIOR (90%) - epistaxis occurs in Kiesselbachs plexus (littles area)

POSTERIOR - more profuse bleeding and from deeper structures (higher risk of aspiration and airway compromise)

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48
Q

How are nose bleeds initially managed?

A

ABC + Trotters method = nostrils pinched together, patient leans forward, mouth open

+ topical anti septic (Naseptin) - to reduce crusting and vestibular risk

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49
Q

If epistaxis continues after initial first aid measures, what should you do?

A
  1. assess blood loss - BP, pulse, signs of shock, FBC, clotting screen and cross matched
  2. cauterize with local anaesthetic spray and silver nitrate
  3. if continue to bleed, use anterior nasal pack -> POSTNASAL PACK
  4. if continues need to examine under anaesthetic with arterial ligation
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50
Q

after epistaxis, what lifestyle advice is given?

A

avoid picking nose
avoid hot drinks, alcohol
avoid heavy lifting or exercise
avoid lying flat

51
Q

List the differentials for cervical lymphadenopathy / lump in neck?

A

MALIGNANCY - lymphoma (single neck lump), metastaic spread of cancer, primary cancer (thyroid carcinoma)

INFECTION - TB, glandular fever, mumps, hIV

AUTOIMMUNE - Sjogrens, SLE, scleroderma, RA

OTHER - sarcoidosis, branchial arch cyst , thyroglossal cyst

52
Q

How should a thyroid swelling be assessed?

A
  1. examination - differentiate between goitre or a nodular single mass, determine size, associated symptoms
  2. TSH *
  3. thyroid ultrasound scan * - determine if cystic or solid
53
Q

How should a thyroid swelling be treated?

A

thyroidectomy or thyroid lobectomy

54
Q

List the main risk factors for head and neck cancers?

A

smoking **
alcohol **
viruses - HPV 16, Epstein Barr virus **

55
Q

What is the main type of head and neck cancers?

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma *
56
Q

How are head and neck cancers investigated?

A
  1. examination - palpate lymph nodes, use flexible fibroptic endoscopy
  2. CT scan
  3. PET scan
  4. biopsy
57
Q

What are general features of head and neck cancers?

A
  1. neck lump
  2. persistent sore throat
  3. hoarseness
  4. persistent mouth ulcers
58
Q

How are head and neck cancers managed?

A
  1. surgery - quick local clearance of disease
  2. radiotherapy - can be option on its own

+ establish nutritional status, refer for dental assessment, correct anaemia, encourage smoking cessation, refer to SALT

59
Q

What are the main features of laryngeal cancer?

A

2nd most common head and neck cancer

hoarse voice, persistent irritating cough, dysphagia, dyspnoea

60
Q

What are the main features of cancer of the oral cavity?

A

high incidence world wide

persistent mouth ulcers, dental problems, dysphagia, numbness, referred ear pain

61
Q

What are the main features of cancer of the pharynx?

A

nasopharyngeal - cervical lymphadenopathy, nasal symptoms, unilateral hearing loss

oropharyngeal - sore throat, lump in throat

hypopharyngeal - dysphagia, odynophagia, hoarse voice

62
Q

What are the features of tumours of salivary gland?

A

painless lump in neck - difficult to distinguish between benign and malignant
facial pain, facial nerve palsy, infiltration of surroundings

63
Q

What are the different types of thyroid cancers?

A
  1. papillary * - good prognosis
  2. follicular * - good prognosis
  3. medullary
  4. anaplastic - poor prognosis
64
Q

Describe the presentation of papillary or follicular thyroid cancer?

A

painless neck lump **
younger females
10% have spread to lymph nodes

65
Q

Describe the features of anaplastic thyroid cancer?

A
elderly females
rapidly enlarging painful neck lump 
bilateral lymphadenopathy 
90% have distant/ regional spread at diagnosis
aggressive
66
Q

Describe who is more likely to get medullary thyroid cancer and how are they present?

A

MEN !! - familial
painless unilateral neck lump
cervical lymphadenopathy

67
Q

Describe the pathology of medullary thyroid cancers?

A

neuroendocrine tumour arising from the parafollicular C cells -> secrete calcitonin !!!

68
Q

How is a neck lump that is suspected to be thyroid cancer investigated?

A
  1. thyroid ultrasound * and fine needle aspiration
  2. calcitonin - high in medullary cancers, used to monitor disease
  3. TFT, FBC, LFTS, U&Es
  4. CT and PET scan
69
Q

How is papillary and follicular cancer managed?

A

total thyroidectomy + radioiodine (I-131) + yearly thyroglobulin levels to detect recurrence

70
Q

What are the risks with a thyroidectomy?

A

hypoparathyroidism
recurrent laryngeal nerve injury - hoarse voice, bovine cough
bleeding

71
Q

How is anaplastic thyroid cancer managed?

A

palliation with radiotherapy, resection if possible

72
Q

What are the different types of salivary gland neoplasia?

A

BENIGN
benign pleomorphic adenoma - painless lump
Warthins tumour - usually in parotid, mobile mass

VARIABLE
mucoepidermoid tumour - in paroid gland
acinic cell tumour

MALIGNANT
malignant pleomorphic adenoma - panful lump with facial pain
adenoid cystic carcinoma - swelling and facial pain
squamous cell carcinoma

73
Q

List the differentials for stridor?

A
croup
acute epiglottitis 
foreign body inhalation
laryngomalacia 
congenital tumours e.g. supraglottis haemangioma
anaphylaxis
subglottis stenosis
acute laryngitis 
laryngeal carcinoma
74
Q

What are the main features of croup?

A

cause: parainfluenza
s+s : fever, stridor, painful barking cough
who: 6 months - 3 years old

75
Q

How is croup treated?

A

high flow oxygen + nebulised dexamethasone +/- nebulised adrenaline

76
Q

How does acute epiglottitis present?

A

cause: group B haemophilus influenza

s+s: stridor, fever, severe sore throat, dribbling, breathing with open mouth

77
Q

How is acute epiglottitis managed?

A
  1. emergency - do not examine throat
  2. IV cefuroxime
  3. nebulised adrenaline
  4. extubate - call anaesthetist
78
Q

How does inhalation of foreign body present?

A

acute sudden onset coughing/ wheezing/ stridor

well in themselves

79
Q

How is anaphylaxis managed?

A
  1. high flow oxygen
  2. adrenaline 1:1000 0.5ml IM
  3. fluid bolus 500ml 0.9% saline
  4. stop causative drug
  5. IV chlorphenamine 10mg
  6. 200mg IV hydrocortisone
80
Q

List the differentials for otalgia (ear pain)

A
EAR RELALTED CAUSES
otitis media
otitis externia 
malignant otitis externa 
mastoiditis
ramsay hunt syndrome
neoplasia
perichronditis 
otosclerosis 
acute otitis barotrauma
NON EAR RELATED CAUSES
tonsilitis
TMJ disorders
neoplasmas of oropharyngeal
dental problems
foreign body
81
Q

Define otitis externa

A

inflammation of the external ear canal (between the outer ear and ear drum)

82
Q

What are the risk factors for otitis externa?

A
swimming "swimmers ear"
eczema in the ear canal
contact dermatitis
seborrhoeic dermatitis 
trauma with cotton wool buds
83
Q

What are the common infective agents of otitis externa?

A

staphylococcus aureus
pseudomonas aeruginosa
fungi

84
Q

How does otitis externa present?

A

painful discharging ear **

itching and irritation of ear

85
Q

How does ear look on examination in otitis externa?

A

red, swollen, tender ear
pain when pressing tragus or moving the pinna
discharge visible

86
Q

How is otitis externa treated?

A
  1. topical antibiotics
  2. removal of any canal debris +/- otowick if ear v swollen
  3. precautions: avoid swimming, keep ears dry, don’t touch
87
Q

Define otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear

88
Q

How is otitis media caused?

A
  1. VIRUS- RSV**, rhinovirus

2. BACTERIA - streptococcus pneumonia, h. influenzae

89
Q

How does otitis media present?

A

rapid onset of painful ear
rubbing/ tugging of ear
+ fever, systemic upset, irritable
often after a resp tract infection

90
Q

How is viral otitis media managed?

A

paracetemol and ibuprofen + nasal decongestants

91
Q

When should children with otitis media be prescribed antibiotics?

A
  1. <6 months old
  2. < 2y/o with bilateral OM
  3. immunocompromised
  4. increasingly unwell, decreased oral intake
  5. no improvement after 4 days
92
Q

What does the ear look like o/e in otitis media

A

tympanic membrane is red, yellow or cloudy and can be bulging

93
Q

What should be given if suspect bacterial otitis media?

A

5 days of amoxicillin (erythyromycin if allergic)

94
Q

What are the possible complications of otitis media?

A
mastoiditis 
hearing loss 
recurrence of infection
perforation of tympanic membrane 
intracranial complications: meningitis, extradual abscess
95
Q

Define otitis media with effusion and what can it cause?

A

glue ear= collection of fluid within the middle ear space with no signs of inflammation

most common cause of hearing loss in children

96
Q

What are the risk factors for otitis media with effusion?

A

cleft lip, downs syndrome, CF, recurrent otitis media, allergic rhinitis

97
Q

When is mastoiditis common and what is it?

A

inflammation of the mastoid lining

common after otitis media infection and in young children

98
Q

How does mastoiditis present?

A

painful ear
fever
systemically unwell

99
Q

What signs on examination points towards a diagnosis of mastoiditis?

A

sagging ear canal wall
swelling, tenderness, redness over the mastoid and zygomatic
pinna pushed down
drum head bulges / discharging pus

100
Q

How is mastoiditis treated?

A

IV antibiotics prolonged

101
Q

who does malignant otitis externa affect?

A

elderly diabetics ***

immuncompromised

102
Q

What is malignant otitis externa?

A

infection of the external ear canal that spreads into the temporal and mastoid bone - dangerous

103
Q

which organism causes malignant otitis externa?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa **

104
Q

How does malignant otitis externa present?

A

severe unremitting ear pain
temporal headaches
purulent discharge

105
Q

What are the complications of malignant otitis externa?

A

meningitis
cerebral abscess
dural sinus thrombosis

106
Q

How is malignant otitis media diagnosed and treated?

A
  1. CT scan *
  2. oral/ IV flucloxacillin
  3. surgical debridement?
107
Q

what is ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

facial nerve infection by varicella zoster (shingles)

108
Q

How does ramsay hunt syndrome present?

A

unilateral severe facial pain
vesicles on tM/ pinna
facial palsy
+ vertigo, deafness

109
Q

How is ramsay hunt syndrome managed?

A
  1. oral acyclovir and corticosteroids

2. analgesia

110
Q

What is conductive deafness?

A

when there is impediment / obstruction to the passage of sound waves between the external ear and footplate of the stapes

-> so there is decreased transmission of sound to the cochlea via air conduction

111
Q

What are the possible causes of conductive deafness?

A
  1. obstruction of the ear canal e.g. wax, oedema, foreign body
  2. perforation of the tympanic membrane
  3. otosclerosis
  4. infection
  5. trauma
112
Q

What is sensorineural deafness?

A

when there is fault in the cochlea or the cochlear nerve but sound transmitted normally to inner ear

113
Q

What are the causes of sensorineural deafness?

A
  1. drug ototoxicity e.g. gentamicin, chemotherapy, aspirin, furosemide
  2. noise damage
  3. menieres disease
  4. acoustic neuroma
  5. viral infections e.g. mumps
114
Q

How is acute deafness investigated?

A
  1. examination - ear, cranial nerves and neuro exam
  2. pure tone audiogram
  3. MRI
115
Q

Describe the webers test

A

put tuning fork in middle of head and asked which side is loudest

unilateral sensorineural deafness = sound localised to unaffected ear

unilateral conductive deafness = sound localised to affected ear

116
Q

Describe the Rinnes test

A

put tuning fork on mastoid process and when no longer heard, then reposition to over external acoustic meatus

normal = air conduction > bone conduction
conductive deafness= bone conduction > air conduction

117
Q

what are the signs of acoustic neuroma?

A

associated with type 2 neurofibromatosis

cancer of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8) so causes:

  1. hearing loss
  2. tinnitus
  3. vertigo

if causes cancer of CN7 then facial paralysis or CN5 absent corneal reflex

118
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

autosominal dominant condition where normal bone replaced with spongy bone

119
Q

What are the features of otosclerosis and how is it managed?

A

conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, “flamingo tinge” to tympanic membrane

Rx: stapedectomy

120
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

age related sensorineural hearing loss causing difficulty to follow conversations

121
Q

what are the complications of quinsy?

A

airway obstruction
necrotising fasciitis
mediastinitis

122
Q

what is a branchial cyst?

A

most common midline cyst in children
asymptomatic, moves on tongue protrusion
located below hyoid bone

123
Q

what is a branchial arch cyst?

A

lateral cysts and located in the anterior triangle in front of sternomastoid
non tender lump, does NOT MOVE on tongue protrusion
aspirate and surgical excise

124
Q

What is a cholesteoma?

A

Cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth of squamous epithelium that is ‘trapped’ within the skull base causing local destruction. It is most common in patients aged 10-20 years

causes hearing loss and discharge