ENS Flashcards

1
Q

When an unknown file is discovered by Adaptive Threat Protection, which of the following is the correct order of processes that the file hash is evaluated?

a. McAfee GTI, TIE Server, Local Reputation Cache
b. TIE Server, McAfee GTI, Local Reputation Cache
c. TIE Server, Local Reputation Cache, McAfee GTI
d. Local Reputation Cache; TIE Server, McAfee GTI

A

Local Reputation Cache; TIE Server, McAfee GTI

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2
Q

An ePO administrator has deployed Web Control to the environment, but has not configured any of the settings. Which of the following actions would, by default, happen if a user accesses a site that has not been rated by McAfee?

a. The user will be allowed to access the site with no notifications.
b. The user will be prompted to enter an explanation for why they want to see the site.
c. The user will be blocked from accessing the unknown site.
d. The user will see a warning message will appear first, then access will be granted.

A

The user will be allowed to access the site with no notifications.

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3
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Disaster Recovery?

a. Admin added
b. User added
c. Adaptive added
d. Learning added

A

User added

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4
Q

The incident response team would like to block bittorrent.exe, but allow it to run from an authorized location on Windows systems. Which of the following will meet this requirement?

a. Within the Threat Prevention Options policy, add the executable to the Potentially Unwanted Program Detections, and add the excluded path within the low-risk exclusion section of the policy.
b. Select “All Files” within the “What to Scan” section of the Threat Prevention On-Access Scan policy, and then include the allowed path to the exclusions section of the policy.
c. Add the executable as a high-risk process within the Threat Prevention On-Access Scan policy, and then include the allowed path within the high-risk exclusions section of the policy.
d. Configure a file or folder path that includes the specified process within the Threat Prevention On-Demand Scan policy, and add the authorized path to the exclusions section of the policy.

A

Within the Threat Prevention Options policy, add the executable to the Potentially Unwanted Program Detections, and add the excluded path within the low-risk exclusion section of the policy.

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5
Q

Which ENS module checks for viruses, spyware, potentially unwanted programs, and other threats by scanning items?

a. Firewall
b. Adaptive Threat Prevention
c. Threat Prevention
d. Web Control

A

Threat Prevention

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6
Q

Which ENS module acts as a filter between and endpoint computer an the network or the Internet?

a. Firewall
b. Adaptive Threat Protection
c. Threat Prevention
d. Web Control

A

Firewall

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7
Q

Which ENS module displays safety ratings and reports for websites during online browsing and web searching?

a. Firewall
b. Adaptive Threat Protection
c. Threat Prevention
d. Web Control

A

Web Control

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8
Q

What optional ENS module analyzes content from your enterprise and decides what to do based on file reputation, rules, and reputation thresholds?

a. Firewall
b. Adaptive Threat Protection
c. Threat Prevention
d. Web Control

A

Adaptive Threat Protection

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9
Q

In which type of ENS deployment will the administrator install product components on the management server, configure features settings, and then deploy the client software to multiple managed systems using deployment client tasks?

a. ePO Cloud deployment
b. Self-managed System deployment
c. ePO On-premises deployment
d. Endpoint Migration Assistant deployment

A

ePO On-premises deployment

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10
Q

In which type of ENS deployment will the end user perform the installation tasks on the client systems using the installation wizard?

a. Endpoint Migration Assistant deployment
b. ePO Cloud deployment
c. Self-managed System deployment
d. ePO On-premises deployment

A

Self-managed System deployment

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11
Q

What is the recommended version of McAfee Agent that should be installed on the endpoint systems prior to the installation of ENS 10.5?

a. MA 5.0.2.333
b. MA 4.8
c. MA 6.0.2
d. MA 5.0.4

A

MA 5.0.4

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12
Q

When performing a migration to ENS using the Endpoint Migration Assistant, which two options are available? (Choose 2)

a. Restore all setting to default before migration
b. Remove legacy products prior to migration
c. Select and configure settings and assignments manually
d. Migrate all setting and assignments automatically based on current settings

A

Select and configure settings and assignments manually

Migrate all setting and assignments automatically based on current settings

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13
Q

What type of migration is recommended for a large network with more than 250 managed systems and complex settings?

a. Automatic Migration
b. Hybrid Migration
c. Policy Migration
d. Manual Migration

A

Manual Migration

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14
Q

When setting Common Settings on the ENS client what options are available for the Client Interface mode? (Choose 3)

a. Full Access
b. Limited Access
c. Lock client interface
d. Standard Access

A

Full Access

Lock client interface

Standard Access

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15
Q

When configuring Common Tasks on the ENS client, which three McAfee-defined tasks are created by default? (Choose 3)

a. Default Client Update
b. Mirror
c. Full Scan
d. Quick Scan

A

Default Client Update

Full Scan

Quick Scan

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16
Q

When Configuring the Threat Prevention module on the ENS client, what type of scan would you configure to perform a thorough check of all areas of the system?

a. On-Access Scan
b. Script Scan
c. Full Scan
d. Quick Scan

A

Full Scan

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17
Q

When configuring the Threat Prevention module on the ENS client, what feature can be enabled to prevent unwanted changes to managed computers by restricting access to specified files, shares, and registry keys, registry values, processes, and services?

a. Access Protection
b. Exploit Prevention
c. On-Access Scan
d. On-Demand Scan

A

Access Protection

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18
Q

When configuring the Threat Prevention module on the ENS client, what feature can be enabled to stop exploited buffer overflows from executing arbitrary code?

a. Exploit Prevention
b. On-Access Scan
c. On-Demand Scan
d. Access Protection

A

Exploit Prevention

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19
Q

When configuring Firewall rules on the ENS client, what can be created to organize the rules for easier management?

a. Firewall tuning options
b. Stateful Firewall
c. Firewall protection options
d. Firewall rule groups

A

Firewall rule groups

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20
Q

When configuring Firewall rules on the ENS client, what two actions can a Firewall rule perform? (Choose 2)

a. Allow
b. Block
c. Report
d. Block and Report

A

Allow

Block

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21
Q

What options are available for a user when Web Control displays a Warning that notifies the user of potential dangers associated with the site? (Choose 2)

a. Cancel
b. Report
c. Rescan
d. Continue

A

Cancel

Continue

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22
Q

When configuring the Web Control module in the ENS client, when configuring the Rating Actions for sites, what options are available for Unrated web sites? (Choose 3)

a. Block and Report
b. Report
c. Allow
d. Warn
e. Block

A

Allow

Warn

Block

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23
Q

How is the ENS Adaptive Threat Protection module deployed in the customer’s network environment?

a. Adaptive Threat Protection is installed by default with the ENS software bundle
b. Adaptive Threat Protection must be selected when configuring the ENS installation
c. Adaptive Threat Protection is installed with the McAfee Threat Intelligence Exchange server
d. A separate Adaptive Threat Protection extension and package is added to the ePO server and deployed to the managed endpoints

A

A separate Adaptive Threat Protection extension and package is added to the ePO server and deployed to the managed endpoints

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24
Q

Which Adaptive Threat Protection component enables you to specify that applications with specific reputations run contained based on a configurable reputation threshold?

a. Exclusion Check
b. Real Protect Cloud Scan
c. Dynamic Application Containment
d. Reputation Scan
e. Real Protect Client Scan

A

Dynamic Application Containment

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25
Which of the following log files are generated for the ENS Client? a. EndpointSecurityPlatform_Errors.log b. PackageManager_Activity.log c. EndpointSecurityPlatform_Activity.log d. MFEConsole_Debug.log e. SelfProtection_Activity.log
MFEConsole_Debug.log
26
When troubleshooting an ENS installation problem on a managed system using McAfee ePO Cloud, where is the Installation log file located? a. C:\Users\username\AppData\Local\Temp\McAfeeLogs b. C:\Windows\AppData\Local\Temp\McAfeeLogs c. C:\Users\username\Temp\McAfeeLogs d. C:\Windows\TEMP\McAfeeLogs
C:\Windows\TEMP\McAfeeLogs
27
What are the three management platforms supported by ENS 10.5? (Choose 3) a. McAfee Threat Intelligence Exchange b. ePO On-Premises c. ENS Client User Interface (for self-managed systems) d. ePO Cloud e. McAfee Global Threat Intelligence
ePO On-Premises ENS Client User Interface (for self-managed systems) ePO Cloud
28
What Adaptive Threat Protection feature allows a suspicious application to run in a container with restrictions? a. Dynamic Application Containment b. Real Protect scanner c. Exploit Prevention d. Quarantine Manager
Dynamic Application Containment
29
What are the three types of On-Demand scans that can be configured on ENS? (Choose 3) a. Script Scan b. Right-click Scan c. Quick Scan d. Full Scan
Right-click Scan Quick Scan Full Scan
30
If an action violates an Access Protection rule, the item is placed into quarantine. What four actions can be taken on an item that is in quarantine? (Choose 4) a. Restored b. Archived c. Cleaned d. Rescanned e. Deleted
Restored Cleaned Rescanned Deleted
31
When planning a URL installation of ENS which of the following web browsers are supported on the endpoint system? (Choose 3) a. Mozilla Firefox (versions 3.0 and later) b. Microsoft Internet Explorer (versions 8, 9, 10, and 11) c. Google Chrome (versions 4.0 and later) d. Microsoft Edge (versions 2.0 and later)
Mozilla Firefox (versions 3.0 and later) Microsoft Internet Explorer (versions 8, 9, 10, and 11) Google Chrome (versions 4.0 and later)
32
When verifying the ENS installation on a self-managed system, which products should appear in the Control Panel Programs and Features list? (Choose 4) a. Threat Prevention b. Platform c. Real Protect d. Web Control e. Firewall
Threat Prevention Platform Web Control Firewall
33
When installing ENS on a self-managed system using the command line options, which of the following are installation options that can be selected. (Choose 3) a. ADDLOCAL=”fw,tp,wc” b. /export c. /unlock d. /qn or /quiet e. /plaintext
ADDLOCAL=”fw,tp,wc” /unlock /qn or /quiet
34
When migrating from McAfee Host Intrusion Prevention Firewall 8.0 to ENS 10.5, which of the following settings can be migrated? (Choose 3) a. General policy b. Client tasks c. Host IPS Catalog d. Firewall policy
General policy Host IPS Catalog Firewall policy
35
When migrating from McAfee SiteAdvisor Enterprise 3.5 to ENS 10.5, which of the following settings can be migrated? (Choose 2) a. Client tasks b. Policies c. IPS Exceptions d. Exclusions
Client tasks Policies
36
If you are performing an Automatic Migration with McAfee VSE policies, which type of policy must be selected first? a. Server policies must be migrated first b. Select Workstation or Server. Migrate one type now and then the other type later c. Workstation and Server policies can be migrated at the same time d. Workstation policies must be migrated first
Select Workstation or Server. Migrated one type now and then the other type later
37
What options are available when you click the Scan System button at the top of the ENS client user interface? (Choose 3) a. On-Access Scan / View Detections b. Full Scan / Scan Now c. Quick Scan / Scan Now d. Real Protect Scan / Scan Now
On-Access Scan / View Detections Full Scan / Scan Now Quick Scan / Scan Now
38
When viewing an item in the Quarantine on the ENS client, what happens when you click the “Learn more about this threat link”? a. A browser window opens with the McAfee Labs information about this threat b. An email message containing the McAfee Labs information about this threat is sent to the configured address c. Details about the threat are displayed in the lower panel of the Quarantine Manager window d. The McAfee Labs information about this threat is displayed in a pop-up window that open on the system desktop
A browser window opens with the McAfee Labs information about this threat
39
How are the online Help files accessed from the ENS client User interface? (Choose 2) a. Open the Action Menu and click Help b. Click on the question mark (?) icon on the ENS Policy page in ePO c. Type Help in the browser interface d. Click on the question mark (?) icon on the Settings page
Open the Action Menu and click Help Click on the question mark (?) icon on the Settings page
40
On the ENS client Status page, how many days are included in data on the Threat Summary section? a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. 90 days
30 days
41
When configuring the Threat Prevention module on the ENS client, what would you configure to prevent a false positive threat detection that occurs when behavior that is a normal part of a user’s work routine is interpreted as an attack? a. Configure an Access Protection rule for the process b. Configure an exclusion for the proces c. Configure an Exploit Prevention signature for the process d. Configure an On-Access Scan action for the process
Configure an exclusion for the process
42
How are Exploit Prevention signature updated in ENS? a. Signatures are updated when the Adaptive Threat Protection content file is updates b. Signatures are updated when the Exploit Prevention content file is updated c. Signatures are updated when the AMCore content file is updated d. Signatures are updates when the Threat Prevention content file is updated
Signatures are updated when the Exploit Prevention content file is updated
43
When configuring the Threat Prevention module in the ENS client, which feature allows you to specify files and software programs that are annoying or can alter the security state or the privacy policy of the system? a. Windows Data Execution Prevention b. Script Scan c. Potentially Unwanted Program Detections d. Proactive Data Analysis
Potentially Unwanted Program Detections
44
When configuring Firewall rules on the ENS client, which McAfee GTI reputation describes a source or destination that sends or hosts potentially malicious content/traffic that McAfee considers risky? a. Do not block b. Unverified c. Medium Risk d. High Risk
High Risk
45
When configuring Firewall rules on the ePO, where will you configure Firewall rules and rule groups? a. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Options b. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Rules c. ENS Firewall Catalog d. ENS Common: Firewall > Rules
ENS Firewall: Firewall > Rules
46
When configuring Firewall rules on the ePO, what feature simplifies the process of creating Firewall Rules and Groups by enabling you to reference existing rules, groups, network options, applications, executables, and locations? a. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Rules b. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Options c. ENS Firewall Catalog d. ENS Common: Firewall > Options
ENS Firewall Catalog
47
When configuring Firewall rules on the ENS client, which McAfee GTI reputation describes a source or destination that shows behavior that McAfee considers suspicious? a. Unverified b. High Risk c. Medium Risk d. Do not block
Medium Risk
48
When configuring Firewall rules on the ePO, where will you configure Firewall options such as Protection Options and tuning Options? a. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Options b. ENS Firewall: Firewall > Rules c. ENS Firewall Catalog d. ENS Common: Firewall > Options
ENS Firewall: Firewall > Options
49
When configuring Web Control policies in the ePO, which Web Control policy is used to configure rules for user access, based on the safety ratings assigned to different categories of web content? a. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Enforcement Messaging b. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Options c. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Block and Allow List d. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Browser Control e. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Content Actions
ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Content Actions
50
When configuring Web Control policies in the ePO, which Web Control policy is used to configure settings to prohibit specific supported and unsupported browsers? a. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Options b. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Block and Allow List c. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Browser Control d. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Enforcement Messaging e. ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Content Actions
ENS Web Control: Policy Category > Browser Control
51
When configuring Web Control policies in the ePO, which of the following Web Categories can be blocked when Enable web category blocking is enabled? (Choose 3) a. Jokes/Humor b. Potential Hacking/Computer Crime c. Malicious Downloads d. Spam/Unwanted Advertisement e. Pornography
Potential Hacking/Computer Crime Malicious Downloads Pornography
52
What information is included on an ENS Web Control Site Report? (Choose 3) a. Download Tests b. Upload Tests c. Web Spam Tests d. Online Affiliations e. Phishing Tests
Download Tests Web Spam Tests Online Affiliations
53
When configuring the Adaptive Threat Protection module on the ENS client, which reputation thresholds can be configured to trigger Dynamic Application Containment? a. Known Trusted; Might Be Trusted; Unknown; Might Be Malicious; Known Malicious b. Might Be Trusted; Unknown; Might Be Malicious; Most Likely Malicious; Known Malicious c. Most Likely Trusted; Might be Trusted; Might Be Malicious; Most Likely Malicious d. Known Trusted; Might Be Trusted; Might Be Malicious; Most Likely Malicious; Known Malicious
Might Be Trusted; Unknown; Might Be Malicious; Most Likely Malicious; Known Malicious
54
When configuring the Adaptive Threat Protection module on the ENS client, what Rule Assignment option should be selected for low change systems, such as servers? a. Open b. Balanced c. Security d. Productivity
Security
55
When configuring the Adaptive Threat Protection module on the ENS client, what Rule Assignment option should be selected for typical business systems with infrequent new software and changes? a. Productivity b. Balanced c. Open d. Security
Balanced
56
Which Adaptive Threat Protection component performs a pre-execution scan that detects malware by extraction and analyzing Static file features? a. Exclusion Check b. Real Protect Cloud Scan c. Dynamic Application Containment d. Real Protect Client Scan e. Reputation Scan
Real Protect Client Scan
57
Which Adaptive Threat Protection component performs a pre-execution scan that gives the file reputation based on Local cache, Global Threat Intelligence look up or Threat Intelligence Exchange server lookup? a. Exclusion Check b. Real Protect Cloud Scan c. JTI Scan d. Reputation Scan e. Real Protect Client Scan
Reputation Scan
58
When troubleshooting an ENS migration problem with the Threat Prevention module, which log file contains preserve and restore status of migrated legacy settings? a. McAfee_ESP_Migration_Plugin.log b. McAfee_Endpoint_Security_Migration_xxx.log c. McAfee_TP_Migration_Plugin.log d. McAfee_Endpoint_BootStrapper_XX.log
McAfee_TP_Migration_Plugin.log
59
When troubleshooting an ENS installation problem on a self-managed system, the system displays Error code: 17001 The installation wizard couldn’t import the specified policy. What action is indicated? a. Run the installation wizard again b. Check that you selected the proper data to import. Contact McAfee support if the issue persists c. Restart the system to continue with the installation d. Contact McAfee support
Check that you selected the proper data to import. Contact McAfee support if the issue persists
60
In which ENS log file would you look for error logging for the Threat Prevention module? a. ThreatPrevention_Debug.log b. AccessProtection_Debug.log c. EndpointSecurityPlatform_Errors.log d. ExploitPrevention_Debug.log
EndpointSecurityPlatform_Errors.log
61
In ENS Threat Prevention On Access Scan 10.5, you have disabled scanning when copying from network folders and removable driver. What circumstances may cause scanning to occur even with this option selected? (Choose 2) a. Subsequent copying of a file identified as high risk file after a malicious file is detected b. Explorer is used to copy files c. Subsequent copying of a file identified as low risk d. File copy is performed via Command Prompt
Subsequent copying of a file identified as high risk file after a malicious file is detected Explorer is used to copy files
62
You are configuring Web Control Interlock settings in ENS 10.5. Which option is selected if you want Web reputation to be handled by McAfee Client Proxy by redirecting web traffic to the cloud proxy configured in the MCP policy? a. Prevent user from uninstalling or disabling browser plug-in b. Disable if a web gateway appliance is detected c. Disable if McAfee Client Proxy is detected d. Enable Web Control
Disable if McAfee Client Proxy is detected
63
You are creating a Services subrule type in user-identified rules in ENS Access Protection 10.5. What wildcard can be used to match any number of characters including back-slashes? a. ? b. # c. * d. **
**
64
You are modifying McAfee-defined Application Protection Rules in ENS Exploit Protection 10.5. Which option can be selected to ignore a specific rule? a. Exclude b. Disabled c. Include d. Enabled
Disabled
65
In ENS Adaptive Threat Protection 10.5, which scan is a post-execution scan that scans and detects malware by behavioral and memory analysis? a. Real Protect Cloud Scan b. Reputation Scan c. JTI Scan d. Real Protect Client Scan
Real Protect Cloud Scan
66
Which two Dynamic Application Containment default policies have been introduced with ENS 10.5? (Choose 2) a. McAfee Default Policy b. McAfee Default Balanced c. McAfee Default Security d. McAfee Default Process
McAfee Default Balanced McAfee Default Security
67
Can ENS coexist with the legacy McAfee products SiteAdvisor Enterprise and VSE? a. No. The ENS installer will remove both SAE and VSE no matter which ENS module is selected to install b. Yes. The ENS installer will merge the legacy products inside the new ENS modules c. The ENS installer will return an error message and the installation will stop. You will need to manually remove the legacy products d. The ENS installer will remove only VSE no matter which ENS module is selected to install. You need to manually remove SAE
No. The ENS installer will remove both SAE and VSE no matter which ENS module is selected to install
68
Which of the following processes does ENS install? (Choose 2) a. MFEVTPS b. ENSVTPS c. ENSTP d. MFETP
MFEVTPS MFETP
69
Which of the following are features of Dynamic Application Containment (DAC)? (Choose 3) a. Allows access control rules for containment b. Blocks app from running like app control does c. Helps defeat “sandbox-aware” malware detection d. Works without Cloud connection
Allows access control rules for containment Helps defeat “sandbox-aware” malware detection Works without Cloud connection
70
Which key technology detects zero-day malware without signatures, and is the starting point for advanced detection intelligence? a. Dynamic Application Containment (DAC) b. McAfee Active Response (MAR) c. Real Protect (RP) d. Threat Intelligence Exchange (TIE)
Real Protect (RP)
71
This key technology provides a single view to see, investigate, and take action on threats, while allowing one click to stop threats and update protection on all endpoints: a. McAfee Active Response (MAR) b. Dynamic Application Containment (DAC) c. Real Protect (RP) d. Threat Intelligence Exchange (TIE)
McAfee Active Response (MAR)
72
What module in ENS replaces VSE? a. Threat Prevention b. Firewall c. Web Control d. Adaptive Threat Protection
Threat Prevention
73
What module in ENS replaces HIPS non IPS capabilities? a. Adaptive Threat Protection b. Web Control c. Firewall d. Threat Prevention
Firewall
74
What module in ENS replaces SAE? a. Firewall b. Web Control c. Threat Prevention d. Adaptive Threat Protection
Web Control
75
What is the optional module in ENS? a. Adaptive Threat Protection b. Web Control c. Firewall d. Threat Prevention
Adaptive Threat Protection
76
Full Access Client Interface Details.
Enables access to all features, including: • Enable and disable individual modules and features. • Access the Settings page to view or modify all settings for the Endpoint Security Client. (Default)
77
Standard Access Client Interface Details.
Displays protection status and allows access to most features: • Update the content files and software components on your computer (if enabled by the administrator). • Perform a thorough check of all areas of your system, recommended if you suspect your computer is infected. • Run a quick (2-minute) check of the areas of your system most susceptible to infection. • Access the Event Log. • Manage items in the Quarantine. From Standard access interface mode, you can log on as administrator to access all features, including all settings.
78
Lock Client Interface Details.
Requires a password to access the client. Once you unlock the client interface, you can access all features.
79
Accessing the ENS Client Interface in Standard Access or Lock Client Interface Mode
While in Standard Access or Lock Client Interface Mode, you must enter an administrator password, or generate a temporary time-based password for users to use. The time-based password can be generated in the ENS Common Options policy, and it has an expiration date and time.
80
Excluding processes in ENS Common Options Policy or ENS Common Options Client Settings.
Any processes that are excluded can access the ENS system resources, which are protected from malicious activity with self-protection. To add processes to exclude in self-protection click add, and then enter the exact resource name, such as scan32.exe. Double click on an item to edit it. Select an item and click delete to delete the item.
81
Client Log Location
%DEFLOGDIR% or C:\ProgramData\McAfee\Endpoint Security\Logs
82
Common Module Logs
Common: EndpointSecurityPlatform_Activity.log and EndpointSecurityPlatform_Debug.log Self-Protection: SelfProtection_Activity.log and SelfProtection_Debug.log Updates: PackageManager_Activity.log and PackageManager_Debug.log Errors: EndpointSecurityPlatform_Errors.log which contains error logs for all modules. Endpoint Security Client: MFEConsole_Debug.log
83
Update Now Button in ENS Common Options Policy or ENS Common Options Client Settings.
The Update Now Button can be enabled in the Default Client Update section in the policy or the Client settings. Enabling will display the button. Clicking the button will manually check for and download updates on the client system. It can be setup to update Security content, hotfixes, and patches, Security content, or Hotfixes and patches.
84
When is new content released?
AMCore is released daily by 7pm. Exploit Prevention content files are released as needed. DATs are released at 3pm daily. Two previous versions are stored in the Program Files\Common Files\McAfee\Engine\content folder. required, you can revert to a previous version.
85
How and why to roll back a DAT?
Click Roll Back AMCore Content from the action menu on the client. In ePO you can create an ENS Threat Prevention client task to Roll Back AMCore Content. You may want to roll back a DAT due to a problem with the DAT, or the DAT is not compatible with your environment. Exploit Prevention content updates cannot be rolled back.
86
Default Quarantine Location.
C:\Quarantine for Windows and /quarantine for Linux
87
Incoming connections have a default GTI reputation threshold of: a. Do not block b. High risk c. Unverified d. Medium risk
Do not block
88
ENS Adaptive Threat Protection Adaptive Mode is enabled by default. a. True b. False
False
89
You want to allow traffic with MAC addresses in the list of supported virtual machines. Which Options setting defines this feature? a. Tuning Options b. Defined Networks c. Protection Options
Protection Options
90
Which order are Firewall Rules processed to filter incoming packets? a. Top-to-bottom b. A combination of the most severe rules c. Bottom-to-top d. A combination of the least severe rules
Top-to-bottom
91
Which Firewall rule group option blocks connections except for those matching a selected network interface? a. Network quarantine b. Unbridged traffic c. Network seclusion d. Connection isolation
Connection isolation
92
Threat Prevention Logs
Threat Prevention: ThreatPrevention_Activity.log and ThreatPrevention_Debug.log -Enabling debug for any Threat Prevention technology enables debug logging for the Endpoint Security Client Access Protection: AccessProtection_Activity.log and AccessProtection_Debug.log Exploit Prevention: ExploitPrevention_Activity.log and ExploitPrevention_Debug.log On-Access Scan: OnAccessScan_Activity.log and OnAccessScan_Debug.log On-Demand Scan: OnDemandScan_Activity.log and OnDemandScan_Debug.log
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Threat Prevention Wildcards
? – Single character - The number of characters must match * - Multiple characters, except backslash (\) - *\ not valid for the beginning of file path use **\ ** - Zero or more characters, including backslash (\) -Root level use **\ for C:\
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Threat Prevention White list program that was detected as an unwanted program
ENS Threat Prevention Options policy > Exclusion by Detection Name > Program (test.exe)
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Threat Prevention How McAfee GTI Works
The scanner uses heuristics to check for suspicious files. The scanner submits fingerprints of samples, or hashes, to a central database server hosted by McAfee Labs to determine if they are malware. By submitting hashes, detection might be made available sooner than the next content file update, when McAfee Labs publishes the update. You can configure the sensitivity level that McAfee GTI uses when it determines if a detected sample is malware. The higher the sensitivity level, the higher the number of malware detections. But, allowing more detections can result in more false positive results. The McAfee GTI sensitivity level is set to Medium by default.
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Firewall Logs
Firewall: Firewall_Activity.log and Firewall_Debug.log Firewall: FirewallEventMonitor.log -Logs blocked and allowed traffic events, if configured
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Threat Prevention ScriptScan
Enables scanning JavaScript and VBScript in Internet Explorer to prevent unwanted scripts from executing
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Firewall Outgoing Traffic
In the Firewall options policy you can check allow only outgoing traffic until firewall services have started. - Allows outgoing traffic but no incoming traffic until the Firewall service starts - If this is disabled, Firewall allows all traffic before services are started, potentially leaving the system vulnerable
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Firewall Adaptive Mode
Creates client side rules automatically to allow traffic
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Firewall Location Awareness
Firewall enables you to make a group and its rules location-aware and to create connection isolation. Enabling connection isolation prevents undesirable traffic from accessing a designated network and blocks traffic on network adapters that don't match the group when an adapter is present that does match the group.
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Firewall Block and Allow Ports and Protocols
In the Firewall Rule policy or Firewall Catalog add a rule, select block or allow, choose the network protocol, choose the transport protocol, and/or add a port.
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Firewall Trusted Executables
Are executables that are safe in any environment and have no known vulnerabilities. These executables are allowed to perform all operations except operations that suggest that the executables have been compromised. Configuring a trusted executable creates a bi-directional Allow rule for that executable at the top of the Firewall rules list.
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Web Control Logs
Web Control: WebControl_Activity.log and WebControl_Debug.log
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Web Control Colors
Green Secure – site is tested daily and certified safe Green – site is safe Yellow – site might have some issues Red – site has some serious issues Grey – no rating available for this site Orange – communication error with McAfee GTI Blue – Internal site. McAfee GTI not queried Black – phishing site White – site allowed by policy or setting Grey faded – web control disabled by policy or setting
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Web Control Secure Search
Secure Search automatically filters the malicious sites in the search result based on their safety rating. Web Control uses Yahoo as the default search engine and supports Secure Search on Internet Explorer only.
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Web Control Default Rating Actions
Red – block Yellow – warn Unrated – allow
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Adaptive Threat Protection Logs
Adaptive Threat Protection: AdaptiveThreatProtection_Activity.log and AdaptiveThreatProtection_Debug.log Dynamic Application Containment: DynamicApplicationContainment_Activity.log and DynamicApplicationContainment_Debug.log
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Dynamic Application Containment (DAC)
Adaptive Threat Protection uses an application's reputation to determine whether to request that Dynamic Application Containment run the application with restrictions. Adaptive Threat Protection uses TIE server, if it is available, for the application reputation. If TIE server isn't available, Adaptive Threat Protection uses McAfee GTI for reputation information. If the reputation isn't known and the Real Protect cloud-based and client-based scanners are enabled, Adaptive Threat Protection queries Real Protect for the reputation. As applications trigger containment block rules, Dynamic Application Containment uses this information to contribute to the overall reputation of contained applications. Dynamically generates the reputation for the application based on DAC rule violations
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Real Protect Scanner
The Real Protect scanner inspects suspicious files and activities on an endpoint to detect malicious patterns using machine-learning techniques. Using this information, the scanner can detect zero-day malware.
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Real Protect Scanning in the Cloud
Post- execution scan. Cloud-based Real Protect collects and sends file attributes and behavioral information to the machine-learning system in the cloud for malware analysis. This option requires Internet connectivity to mitigate false positives using McAfee GTI reputation.
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Real Protect Scanning on the Client System
Pre-execution scan. Client-based Real Protect uses machine-learning on the client system to determine whether the file matches known malware. If the client system is connected to the Internet, Real Protect sends telemetry information to the cloud, but doesn't use the cloud for analysis. If the client system is using TIE for reputations, it doesn't require Internet connectivity to mitigate false positives.
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Adaptive Threat Protection Observe Mode
Run Adaptive Threat Protection in Observe mode to build file prevalence and see what Adaptive Threat Protection detects in your environment. Adaptive Threat Protection generates Would Block, Would Clean, and Would Contain events to show what actions it would take. File prevalence indicates how often a file is seen in your environment.
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Adaptive Threat Protection TIE Server
A server that stores information about file and certificate reputations, then passes that information to other systems. If TIE server and Data Exchange Layer are present, Adaptive Threat Protection and the server communicate file reputation information. The Data Exchange Layer framework immediately passes that information to managed endpoints. It also shares information with other McAfee products that access the Data Exchange Layer
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Adaptive Threat Protection Data Exchange Layer (DXL)
Clients and brokers that enable bidirectional communication between the Adaptive Threat Protection module on the managed system and the TIE server. Data Exchange Layer is optional, but it is required for communication with TIE server.
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McAfee Logo when a Module is Disabled
The logo is grey with a red exclamation point
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Adaptive Threat Protection Productivity Rule Assignment
Use this group for high-change systems with frequent installations and updates of trusted software. Examples of these systems are computers used in development environments. This group uses the least number of rules. Users experience minimum prompts and blocks when new files are detected. Contain at Most Likely Malicious Block at Known Malicious
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Adaptive Threat Protection Balanced Rule Assignment
Use this group for typical business systems with infrequent new software and changes. This group uses more rules — and users experience more prompts and blocks — than the Productivity group. Contain Might Be Malicious Block Most Likely Malicious Clean Known Malicious
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Adaptive Threat Protection Security Rule Assignment
Use this group for low-change systems, such as IT-managed systems and servers with tight control. Examples are systems that access critical or sensitive information in a financial or government environment. Users experience more prompts and blocks than with the Balanced group. Contain Unknown Block Might Be Malicious Clean Known Malicious
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What are the key features of ENS Threat Prevention?
Scans for and lets you take action on detected malware and unwanted programs. With exploit prevention signatures and exploit management (HIPS), exploit prevention capabilities and McAfee Global Threat Intelligence capabilities
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What are the key features of ENS Firewall?
Acts as a filter between computer and network or internet
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What are the key features of ENS Web Control?
Protection while browsing or searching websites (Site Advisor)
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What are some key features of ENS itself?
Anti-Malware Engine Core (AMCore) technology with built-in intelligence strategy to only scan items that really need to be scanned, instead of scanning all items equally. Migration tool to migrate policies and client tasks and remove McAfee products that are no longer needed
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What is ATP?
Optional ENS Adaptive Threat Protection module with Dynamic Application Containment and Real Protect, as well as optional integration with McAfee Data Exchange Layer(DXL) and McAfee Threat Intelligence Exchange(TIE) solutions. (DXL and TIE are acquired and deployed separately.)
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What is significant about the common module?
The common module gets deployed automatically, even if you only want to deploy just one of the four modules
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Threat Prevention Module Details.
On-Access Scan: Examines files as they are accessed for continuous and real-time detection. On-demand scan: Allows user-initiated scan at any time, including quick or full scan. Threat detection: Saves detections for further action such as Clean, Delete, or Remove Entry. Quarantine: Quarantines items for further actions, such as Delete, Restore, Rescan, or Learn more.
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Firewall Module Details.
Stateful firewall that acts as filter between computer and network or internet. Scans all incoming and outgoing traffic. Acts based on define rules (set of criteria), such as allow or block. Rule groups organize firewall rules for easy management. Location-aware firewall groups and firewall rules allow you to control specific processes.
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Web Control Details.
Links to McAfee Global Threat Intelligence and rate possible threats. Provides color coded safety rating, such as green (secure or safe), yellow (possible issues), red (serious issues), gray (no rating), black (phishing), and so on. Delivers site reports from McAfee GTI ratings server for threat detail. Supports customized protection, blocking based on web categories and logging. Integrates with Threat Prevention module for automatic scanning of downloaded files.
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Adaptive Threat Protection Details.
Allows Dynamic application containment, based on defined rules. Supports exclusion of safe applications, allow them to run normally. Optionally integrates with McAfee DXL and TIE for communication between systems and devices. (TIE and DXL acquired and deployed separately.)
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What are the three software installers for ENS?
Endpoint Suite Installer: Provides easy install of ePO and automated check in of ENS components (Endpoint security platform, threat prevention, web control, and firewall). To install, extract all files and run installer executable. Do not use if you plan to deploy extensions and packages individually. Endpoint Security Package Designer: Creates install package containing pre-configured custom policies. Deployed on unmanaged systems. Endpoint Security Standalone installer: Provides stand-alone install for local installs. Not deployable from ePO.
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Describe the Endpoint Migration Assistant.
Extension added to McAfee ePO Server. Facilitates migration of policy and settings from legacy products.
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Describe Endpoint Upgrade Assistant.
Extension added to McAfee ePO server. Helps you asses your environment’s deployment readiness and ensure product interoperability. It analyzes the environment to identify deployment readiness. Determines if required software is installed in appropriate branches or if updates are required. It does not alter ePO environment. Requires ePO 5.1.2 or later. Does not support third-party provisioning.
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What are the details for running an automatic and manual migration?
Automatic: Less than 250 managed systems. Little Customization. Plan to edit settings later. Supervision not required. Manual: More than 250 managed systems. Complex or multiple custom policy settings. Want to fine tune or customize settings during migration. Want to supervise and approve steps.
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Which version of ePO is recommended when deploying ENS 10.5?
5.3X
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What subtasks does the ENS install wizard perform?
It is not necessary to uninstall existing virus-detection and firewall before installing ENS. The wizard detects and resolves most conflicts automatically. If Windows firewall is enabled, the wizard disables the firewall automatically to prevent conflicts. If incompatible software is installed, the wizard attempts to uninstall it. If it cannot, you are prompted to cancel the installation, uninstall the incompatible software manually. The installation resumes where it left off.
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What is DXL?
The Language fabric that McAfee uses to speak to third party software
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Respond to a file-reputation prompt
First, (Optional) At the prompt, enter a message to send to the administrator. Second click allow or block. Then to instruct Adaptive Threat Protection not to prompt for the file again, select Remember this decision
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Enable, Disable, or View Firewall Timed Groups on the Client System
Right-click the McAfee system tray icon
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On-Demand Scan Detects a Threat
Windows 8 and 10 — If the scanner detects a threat in the path of an installed Windows Store app, the scanner marks it as tampered. Windows adds the tampered flag to the tile for the app. When you attempt to run it, Windows notifies you of the problem and directs you to the Windows Store to reinstall.