Enrolled Agent Part 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What does the phrase “record of the clients” mean?

A

Record of the clients are electronic financial materials created by the client before the engagement.

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2
Q

If using a practitioner pin, what form must the taxpayer sign?

A

The taxpayer must sign form 8879 (IRS e-file signature authorization), if using a practitioner pin.

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3
Q

When resubmitting a rejected tax return, the taxpayer’s Total tax, Federal Income tax, or amount owed cannot differ by more than what amount?

A

When resubmitting a rejected return, the taxpayer’s total tax, federal income tax or amount owed cannot be different by more than $14 dollars if I want to resubmit it without obtaining a new signature.

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4
Q

Is a cash receipt proof of payment?

A

Yes, a cash receipt is proof of payment.

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5
Q

Is e-file available for income tax returns for years before two prior tax years?

A

No, e-file is not available for years before two prior tax years.

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6
Q

Is e-file available for income tax returns with a fiscal tax year?

A

No, e-file is not available for income tax returns with a fiscal tax year.

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7
Q

Is e-file available for amended tax returns for tax years prior to 2019?

A

No, e-file is not available for tax years prior to 2019, (but it is expected to be available soon)

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8
Q

Is e-file available for returns containing forms or schedules that cannot be processed by IRS e-file other than those forms and schedules that are required to be submitted with Form 8453?

A

No, e-file is not available for returns containing forms or schedules that cannot be processed by IRS e-file other than those forms and schedules that are required to be submitted with Form 8453.

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9
Q

What is the criminal penalty a preparer may face under section 7216?

A

The criminal penalty that preparer may face under section 7216 is not more than $1,000 fine or up to 1 year in prison or both.

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10
Q

What section of the IRC prohibits preparers of tax returns from knowingly or recklessly disclosing or using tax return information?

A

Section 7216 prohibits preparers of tax returns from knowingly or recklessly disclosing or using tax return information.

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11
Q

Will an e-file provider receive a preparer penalty for making a non-substantive change due to transposition error, misplaced entry, spelling error, or arithmetic error?

A

No, an e-file provider will not receive a preparer penalty for making a non-substantive change due to transposition error, misplaced entry, spelling error, or arithmetic error.

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12
Q

Form 8453 Individual Income tax Transmittal for an IRS e-file return must be file by mail by the ERO, what must sent with the form?

A

The ERO must send all supporting paper documents that are required to complete the filing of particular e-file returns.

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13
Q

If no period is specified, the consent to use or disclose taxpayer information remains valid for how long?

A

If no period is specified, the consent to use or disclose taxpayer information remains valid for 1 year following the signature of the consent.

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14
Q

The period of limitations for assessment of tax is extended to 6 years if the taxpayer does not report income that should have been reported, and it’s more than how much of the gross income shown on the return?

A

The period of limitations for assessment of tax is extended to 6 years if the taxpayer does not report income that should have been reported, and it’s more than 25% of the gross income shown on the return.

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15
Q

How long must form 8867 (paid preparers due diligence checklist) and the EIC worksheet (or equivalents) be kept from the due date of the return (not including extensions)?

A

The preparer must keep form 8867 and EIC worksheet for 3 years from the due date of the return.

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16
Q

A tax return preparer must keep a copy of the tax return, or retain, on a list, the name, taxpayer identification number of the taxpayer for whom the return was prepared, type of return, and tax year for each return prepared. How long must the records be kept?

A

When tax return preparer keeps a copy of the tax return, or retain, on a list, the name, taxpayer identification number of the taxpayer for whom the return was prepared, type of return, and tax year for each return prepared, the records must be kept for inspection for the 3 year-period following the close of the return period.

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17
Q

A tax shelter is a partnership or other entity, plan, or arrangement, with a significant purpose to avoid or evade federal income tax, what confidence level must the preparer have for the position to not be unreasonable?

A

Tax shelters, such as a partnership or other entity, plan, or arrangement, with a significant purpose to avoid or evade federal income tax, must have a confidence level of at least more likely than not, (which is greater than 50% likelihood), for the position to not be unreasonable.
Additionally,
more likely than not is higher authority than substantial authority.

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18
Q

Does using taxpayer information to compile list to solicit tax return business require prior consent (ex: statistical info concerning tax return prep)?

A

No, using taxpayer information to compile list to solicit tax return business does not require prior consent from the taxpayer.

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19
Q

Is an ERO representative permitted to sign an 8879 by using a rubber stamp?

A

Yes, an ERO representative permitted to sign an 8879 by using a rubber stamp.

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20
Q

Is providing advice on a position that has a one in three or greater likelihood of being sustained on its merit an acceptable standard?

A

Yes, providing advice on a position that has a one in three or greater likelihood of being sustained on its merit an acceptable standard.

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21
Q

A penalty of $5,000 or 75% of the preparer fee, whichever is greater, is a penalty for what type of conduct?

A

A penalty of $5,000 or 75% of the preparer fee is a penalty for willful or reckless misconduct. This is a deliberate attempt to understate tax liability.

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22
Q

How long must an ERO retain Form 8879, IRS-e-file signature authorization?

A

an ERO retain Form 8879, IRS-e-file signature authorization for 3 years from the return due date or the date the IRS received the return, whichever is later.

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23
Q

The penalty for not retaining a copy of a tax return prepared is 60 per occurrence under section 6695, what is the maximum penalty that can be fined?

A

The maximum penalty that can be fined for not retaining a copy of a tax return prepared is $30,000 under section 6695. (60 dollars per occurrence)

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24
Q

What is the preparer penalty for unauthorized disclosure of or use of taxpayer’s information under section 6713?

A

The preparer penalty for unauthorized disclosure of or use of a taxpayer’s information is $250 for each disclosure, up to an annual maximum of $10,000 under section 6713.

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25
Q

What is the penalty for endorsing or negotiating a client’s tax return check under section 6695?

A

The penalty for endorsing or negotiation a client’s tax return check under section 6695 is $600 per check with no maximum penalty.

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26
Q

Substantial authority is an objective standard involving analysis of the law and application of the law to relevant facts, but it is less stringent than what? but more stringent than what?

A

The substantial authority standard is an objective standard involving an analysis of the law and application of the law to relevant facts,
and
it is less stringent than the more likely than not standard (the standard that is met when there is a greater than 50-percent likelihood of the position being upheld) but more stringent than the reasonable basis standard.

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27
Q

A reasonable basis is a relatively high standard of tax reporting, that is, significantly higher than what?

A

Reasonable basis is a relatively high standard of tax reporting, that is, significantly higher than not frivolous or not patently improper.

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28
Q

When will a return position satisfy the reasonable basis standard?

A

If a return position is reasonably based on one or more of the authorities set forth in § 1.6662-4(d)(3)(iii),(taking into account the relevance and persuasiveness of the authorities, and subsequent developments), the return position will generally satisfy the reasonable basis standard even though it may not satisfy the substantial authority standard defined in § 1.6662-4(d)(2).

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29
Q

What percentage is at least a reasonable basis if a position is disclosed?

A

If a position is disclosed, it should at least have reasonable basis, which is 33%.

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30
Q

When using a tax shelter, what basis must the taxpayer have in the position?

A

When using a tax shelter, a taxpayer must have a more likely than not position which a 51% or more likelihood.

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31
Q

When a taxpayer e-files his 1040, and the ERO enters the taxpayer PIN, what documents must the ERO sign?

A

When a taxpayer e-files his 1040, and the ERO enters the taxpayer PIN, the ERO only has to sign form 8879.

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32
Q

What is the tax return preparer penalty for a preparer who fails to comply with due diligence requirements in regard to EIC allowable?

A

The tax return preparer penalty for a preparer who fails to comply with due diligence requirements in regard to EIC is $600 per occurrence.

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33
Q

If errors on an income does not result in an understatement of tax liability, will the tax return preparer be penalized for the understatement?

A

No,
if the errors did not result in an understatement of tax liability, then the understatement penalty under section 6694 will not be applied.

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34
Q

If a preparer penalty is likely to be assessed pursuant to title 26 USC sec 6694 (understatement of taxpayer’s liability by tax return preparer), what can the taxpayer do to try and avoid the penalty?

A

The taxpayer can appeal the penalty before it tis imposed. A return preparer may appeal the imposition of these penalties by timely responding to the 30 -day Letter 1125, Transmittal of Examination Report. If there is no timely response to the letter, the penalty is assessed.

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35
Q

When will the IRS not impose a penalty for understating tax liability?

A

The IRS will not impose a penalty for understating tax liability if the preparer demonstrates that he acted with reasonable cause.

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36
Q

Theft of information, loss of information,
Natural disaster such as flood, earthquake, or fire that destroys unrecoverable information and
Computer system/network attacks such as malicious code, or denial of service are all what type of incidents?

A

These are all information security incidents which may require reporting to the IRS or other authorities.

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37
Q

The 12-month period beginning July 1st of each year is called what?

A

The 12-month period beginning July 1st or each year is called the end of the return period, used when a taxpayer is retaining copies of client returns or a list of returns for a three-year period.

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38
Q

How long must form 8879 be available to the IRS?

A

Form 8879 must be available for 3 years from the due date of the return or the IRS received date, whichever is later.

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39
Q

Who is the owner of an EFIN?

A

The firm is the owner of an EFIN.

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40
Q

How long does a taxpayer have to amend a return to claim a refund?

A

A taxpayer has 3 years from the date the return was filed (or the due date of the return for timely filed return) or 2 years from the date the tax was paid, whichever is later.

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41
Q

When amending a return, 3 years from the filing date, what payments are eligible for a refund?

A

When amending a return, 3 years from the filing date, only payments made within that 3- year period are eligible for refund.

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42
Q

Can tax returns using a foreign or overseas address be filed electronically?

A

Yes, tax returns using a foreign or overseas address can be filed electronically.

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43
Q

What is the maximum penalty for filing EIC return without using due diligence and preparing form 8867?

A

There is no limit to the maximum penalty.

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44
Q

What is the maximum penalty for failure to furnish a copy of a tax return to a tax payer?

A

The maximum penalty is $30,000 under section 6695(a), failure to furnish a copy of the return to the taxpayer. ($60, per failure).

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45
Q

If a preparer does not keep a copy of a client’s return, what must they keep?

A

If a preparer does not keep a copy of the return on file, they must retain a record of the taxpayers names, SSN’s, the taxable years, and the type of returns/claims for refund prepared.

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46
Q

If you are an ERO and you must mail form 8453 to IRS how long do you have to mail it after receiving acknowledgment from the IRS that the return has been accepted?

A

If you are an ERO, you must mail Form 8453 to the IRS within 3 business days after receiving acknowledgement that the IRS has accepted the electronically filed tax return.

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47
Q

What is form 1098-C?

A

Form 1098-C is used for contribution of motor vehicles, boats, and airplanes.

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48
Q

If a taxpayer is using his own pin to file a tax return and the ERO is not using the practitioner pin method, does a form 8879 have to be filed?

A

No,
If a taxpayer is using his own pin to file a tax return and the ERO is not using the practitioner pin method, then a form 8879 does not need to be filed.

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49
Q

How long does a taxpayer have to claim a loss for worthless securities?

A

A taxpayer can file a claim to report a loss for worthless securities for the seven years that follow the date the return was due.

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50
Q

Each person who employs (or engages) one or more income tax return preparers must retain a record of the name, taxpayer identification number, and place of work of each income tax return preparer employed (or engaged) by him. How long must the employer retain the record for inspection?

A

The record must be retained and made available for inspection for a 3-year period following the close of the return period to which it relates. The term “return period” means the 12-month period beginning on July 1st of each year.

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51
Q

The FTC financial privacy rule requires financial institutions, including tax return preparers, to give their customers what?

A

The FTC financial privacy rule requires financial institutions, including tax return preparers, to give their customer privacy notices.

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52
Q

Is the standard of authority required to avoid penalties with respect to a disclosed position vs an undisclosed position higher, lower or the same?

A

The standard of authority required to avoid penalties with respect to a disclosed position relative to an undisclosed position is lower.

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53
Q

A return where the election has been made to exclude transactions from the electronic short-term capital gain (loss) or long-term capital gain (loss) records requires what form to be filed by an ERO?

A

A return where the election has been made to exclude transactions from the electronic short-term capital gain (loss) or long-term capital gain (loss) records is a return that requires Form 8453 (US ind. Tax Transmittal for an IRS e-file return).

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54
Q

A list of returns that require form 8453 (US individual Tax Transmittal for an IRS e-file return) can be found under what publication.

A

A comprehensive list of the particular returns that require Form 8453 can be found in Pub 1345, under Submission of Paper Documents to the IRS.

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55
Q

A practitioner who encounters a questionable form W-2 should take what action?

A

A practitioner who encounters a questionable form W-2 (appears forged or altered) should contact the IRS.

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56
Q

A tax preparer retains copies of client returns or a list of returns prepared. For how long must the preparer retain this documentation?

A

When a tax preparer properly retains copies of client returns or a list of returns prepared, the tax preparer must keep a copy for three years following the end of the return period.

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57
Q

Both an electronic return originator and an intermediate service provider who processes information and returns it to the ERO are considered what?

A

Both an electronic return originator and an intermediate service provider who processes information and returns it to the ERO are considered to be e-file providers.

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58
Q

Under penalties of perjury, a tax preparer who submits a return without amending falsified information that they are aware of could face what type of penalty?

A

The tax return preparer could be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof: Imprisoned not more than 3 years: fined not more than $250,000 for individuals ($500,000 for Corporations); or both, together with the cost of prosecution.

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59
Q

Which authority may censure or suspend or impose monetary penalties upon a practitioner?

A

The Secretary of Treasury may censure or suspend or impose monetary penalties upon a practitioner.

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60
Q

Will a pattern of conduct be taken into account in determining whether a practitioner acted willfully, recklessly, or through gross incompetence?

A

Yes, A pattern of conduct is a factor that will be taken into account in determining whether a practitioner acted willfully, recklessly, or through gross incompetence.

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61
Q

A practitioner who willfully did not sign a tax return will be sanctioned under what IRS sanction?

A

The IRS will sanction the tax preparer under Incompetence and disreputable conduct.

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62
Q

A practitioner generally may rely in good faith without verification of a document provided by a client. But if a document appears to be counterfeit or otherwise fraudulent, what must a tax practitioner do?

A

A practitioner generally may rely in good faith without verification of a document provided by a client. But if a document appears to be counterfeit or otherwise fraudulent, a practitioner cannot rely upon it without making further inquiries.

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63
Q

Can a tax practitioner ignore the implications of information furnished that may be fraudulent?

A

The practitioner may not ignore the implications of information furnished to, or actually known by, the practitioner.
and,
must make reasonable inquiries if the information as furnished appears to be incorrect, inconsistent with an important fact or another factual assumption, or incomplete.

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64
Q

Reasonably relying on the work of others is considered what by a tax practitioner?

A

A practitioner will be presumed to have exercised due diligence when relying on the work product of another person.

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65
Q

Before the Office of Professional Responsibility commences a proceeding for censure, suspension, or disbarment of a practitioner, will the practitioner be given an opportunity to dispute the facts that will form the basis for the proceeding?

A

Yes, will be given an opportunity to dispute the facts in all but unusual circumstances.

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66
Q

What is the definition of enrollment cycle per Treasury Circular 230?

A

The definition of enrollment cycle per Treasury Circular 230 is the three successive enrollment years preceding the effective date of renewal.

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67
Q

What is a contingent fee?

A

A contingent fee is a fee that depends on whether the presentation avoids challenge by the IRS.

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68
Q

Can tax practitioner charge a contingent fee?

A

In most situations, tax practitioners may not charge a contingent fee, which is a fee that depends on whether the presentation avoids challenge by the IRS.

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69
Q

What are two officials that have the authority to censure, suspend, or disbar a practitioner from the IRS practice?

A

The Secretary of Treasury and an Administrative law Judge has the authority to censure, suspend or disbar a practitioner from IRS practice.

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70
Q

The secretary of treasury, or delegate has what type of authority?

A

After notice and an opportunity for a proceeding, the Secretary of the Treasury, or delegate, has the authority to censure, suspend, or disbar a practitioner and/or impose a monetary penalty.

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71
Q

The Director of the Office of professional Responsibility has what type of authority?

A

The Director of the Office of Professional Responsibility has prosecutorial authority and can initiate complaints against practitioners and can also accept settlements in lieu of proceedings.

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72
Q

The Director of the Office of Professional Responsibility can reprimand a practitioner but what can’t they do?

A

The Director of the Office of Professional Responsibility can reprimand a practitioner but cannot impose a harsher penalty on his own.

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73
Q

An Administrative Law Judge hears the cases brought by the Office of Professional Responsibility, what type of authority do they have?

A

An Administrative Law Judge hears the cases brought by the Office of Professional Responsibility and has the authority to enter orders of censure, suspension, disbarment, imposition of a monetary penalty, and dismissal.

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74
Q

A practitioner may charge no more than the rates published in a schedule of fees, how long must the practitioner honor the rates?

A

A practitioner may charge no more than the rates published in a schedule of fees for at least 30 calendar days following the last date of publication.

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75
Q

An unenrolled preparer can only appear as a taxpayer’s representative, whose return they prepared, before what three people?

A

An unenrolled preparer can only appear as a taxpayer’s representative only before IRS customer service representatives, revenue agents, and examination officers, regarding the return he or she prepared.

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76
Q

Are unpaid preparers who participate in VITA considered tax preparers?

A

No, Unpaid preparers, such as volunteers who assist low-income individuals, are not considered to be preparers for purposes of preparer penalties.

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77
Q

Does an employee who prepares the return of his employer meet the definition of an income tax preparer?

A

No,
An employee who prepares the return of his/her employer does not meet the definition of an income tax preparer.

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78
Q

Is the preparation of a substantial portion of a return for compensation treated as the preparation of that return?

A

Yes, the preparation of a substantial portion of a return for compensation is treated as the preparation of that return.

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79
Q

Circular 230, §10.21 provide that a practitioner must advise a client of the consequences of non-compliance, error, or omission only when what?

A

Circular 230, §10.21 provides that a practitioner must advise a client of the consequences of non-compliance, error, or omission only when the practitioner knows that the client has not complied with the revenue laws.

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80
Q

T/F, A practitioner must exercise due diligence in determining the correctness of oral or written representations made by the practitioner to clients with reference to any matter administered by the Internal Revenue Service.

A

True, A practitioner must exercise due diligence in determining the correctness of oral or written representations made by the practitioner to clients with reference to any matter administered by the Internal Revenue Service.

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81
Q

Is being indicted for a criminal offense considered disreputable conduct?

A

No, A mere indictment (accusation) relating to a criminal offense or felony is not disreputable, however, a conviction could be.

82
Q

A practitioner who is aware the client has not complied with the rules and regulations of the IRS, or knows of any error or omission, must do what?

A

A practitioner who is aware the client has not complied with the rules and regulations of the IRS, or knows of any error or omission, must promptly advise the client concerning the existence of the error or omission and of the consequences of allowing them to remain uncorrected. If not corrected, the practitioner cannot sign the return.

83
Q

Agreeing to attempt to influence an officer of the IRS by threat or coercion would result in what?

A

Agreeing to attempt to influence an officer of the IRS by threat or coercion would result in incompetence and disreputable conduct in practice before the IRS.

84
Q

When is the effective date of renewal for an Enrolled Agents enrollment?

A

The effective date of renewal is the 1 days of the fourth month following the closing period.

85
Q

The action of the IRS prohibiting a practitioner from practice before the IRS until the IRS reauthorizes him to do so is what type of sanction.

A

The action of the IRS prohibiting a practitioner from practice before the IRS until the IRS reauthorizes him to do so is disbarment.

86
Q

Does an IRS enrolled agent designation permit an EA to practice law before the tax court?

A

No, The IRS enrolled agent designation does not permit the EA to practice law before the tax court, The enrolled agent may only appear as a witness.

87
Q

When does an Enrolled Agents enrollment expire?

A

Expiration of practitioner enrollment occurs on March 31, and a practitioner must renew every three years.

88
Q

An individual who receives his initial enrollment to practice during an enrollment cycle must complete how many hours of qualified continuing education per month?

A

An individual who receives his initial enrollment to practice during an enrollment cycle must complete two hours of qualified continuing education for each month he is enrolled during that enrollment year.

89
Q

Does (AFTR) course count as an IRS approved continuing education requirement for Enrolled Agents or AFSP?

A

No,
It has no impact for AFSP or his EA continuing education requirements.

90
Q

What is the limit of the monetary penalty issued for incompetence or disreputable conduct?

A

The limit of a monetary penalty issued for incompetence or disreputable conduct is the full amount of the income derived or expected from the action resulting in the penalty.

91
Q

Are contingent fees allowed for preparation of tax returns?

A

No, contingent fees are prohibited for preparation of tax returns, under §10.27(b), Circular 230.

92
Q

What are two examples of when contingent fees are permitted under §10.27(b), Circular 230?

A

§10.27(b), Circular 230, provides that a practitioner can charge a contingent fee for representing a client whose return has been challenged by the IRS or who is claiming a refund or credit for penalties or interest.

93
Q

T/F, A tax preparer that always use reasonable care in evaluating another preparer upon whose work product the first agent will rely is complying with due diligence?

A

True,
A tax preparer that always use reasonable care in evaluating another preparer upon whose work product the first agent will rely is complying with due diligence.

94
Q

Are taxpayers who rely on software to justify errors on self-prepared returns liable for section 6662 accuracy-related penalties?

A

Yes,
Taxpayers who rely on software to justify errors on self-prepared returns are liable for section 6662 accuracy-related penalties.

95
Q

What percentage of the underpayment of tax is the accuracy related penalty imposed under §6662?

A

The penalty is 20% of any portion of an underpayment of tax required to be shown on a return.

96
Q

The accuracy related penalty imposed under IRC section 6662 is when?

A

The accuracy-related penalty imposed under IRC §6662 applies when there is negligence or disregard of rules or regulations or any substantial understatement of income tax.

97
Q

T/F If authorized by the taxpayer a tax return preparer may affix the taxpayer’s name to a refund check for the purpose of depositing the check into an account in the name of the taxpayer.

A

True, If authorized by the taxpayer a tax return preparer may affix the taxpayer’s name to a refund check for the purpose of depositing the check into an account in the name of the taxpayer.

98
Q

What effect does a taxpayer’s bankruptcy proceeding have on unresolved tax debt?

A

If a taxpayer files for bankruptcy and has outstanding unresolved tax debt, the IRS collection activity is temporarily stayed.

99
Q

Does the central authorization file reflect third party deignee’s?

A

No, the central authorization files do not reflect third party designees.

100
Q

What does the issuance of a CAF number mean?

A

The recipient has been granted authority to receive a taxpayer’s confidential tax information.

101
Q

When is a CAF number assigned to a tax practitioner?

A

A CAF number is assigned to a tax practitioner when a Form 2848 or Form 8821 is filed.

102
Q

If a taxpayer disagree with an appeals determination what can he do next?

A

The taxpayer can file a lawsuit with the appropriate federal court within 30 days.

103
Q

What form should a spouse who reasonably did not know about income her spouse did not report?

A

The taxpayer should file form 8857 (request for innocent spouse relief) as soon as the taxpayer is aware of a tax liability for which the taxpayer believes only her spouse or former spouse should be held liable for.

104
Q

The IRS must accept a request for an installment plan if the amount owed is what?

A

The IRS must accept a request for an installment plan if the amount owed is $10,000 or less.

105
Q

The IRS must accept a request for an installment plan if the amount owed is $10,000 or less, and what else?

A

The IRS must accept a request for an installment plan if the amount owed is $10,000 or less, and
prompt filing and payment for five years (without an installment plan), the confirmed inability to pay the amount owed in full by the dues date, and the agreement to pay the amount in full within three years and abide by tax law during the agreement.

106
Q

Discharge of property from a federal tax lien may be granted if the lien is on more than one piece of property and the value of all the properties taken together exceeds what?

A

Discharge of property from a federal tax lien may be granted if the lien is on more than one piece of property and the value of all the properties taken together exceeds twice the amount of the lien.

107
Q

If the time period for collecting the tax has ended what will the IRS do to lien on property?

A

If the time period for collecting the tax has ended the IRS will issue a release of the lien.

108
Q

If property is sold for more than the value of the IRS lien and some of the proceeds are paid to the IRS, what may the IRS do?

A

If the property is sold for more than the value of the IRS lien and some of the proceeds are paid to the IRS, the IRS may issue a discharge, which will release a particular property from the lien.

109
Q

What form must a taxpayer submit in advance of a scheduled sale of property in order to apply for a certificate of discharge of a federal tax lien?

A

The taxpayer must submit Form 14135, Application for Certificate of Discharge of Federal Tax Lien, which is found in Publication 783, in advance of a scheduled sale of property.

110
Q

How many months do installment agreements generally provide to pay tax?

A

Installment agreements generally provide up to 72 months to pay tax.

111
Q

Before applying for any payment agreement, what must a taxpayer do with all their returns?

A

Before applying for any payment agreement, a taxpayer must file all required tax returns.

112
Q

When is an installment agreement valid?

A

An installment agreement is only valid when accepted by the IRS.

113
Q

If a tax balance due is not more than $50,000, can the taxpayer apply online for a payment agreement?

A

Yes, if the balance due is not more than $50,000 the taxpayer can apply online for a payment agreement instead of filing form 9465 (Installment agreement request).

114
Q

What process must a taxpayer utilize if they receive a notice of termination of an installment agreement?

A

A taxpayer who receives a notice of termination of an installment agreement must utilize the collection appeal process. (CAP)

115
Q

What must a taxpayer do when receiving a CP 2000 and they do not agree with the proposed changes?

A

The taxpayer should disagree, partially agree, or agree with the proposed changes.

116
Q

If a levy creates an economic hardship for a taxpayer can the IRS release it?

A

Yes, the IRS may release a levy if it creates an economic hardship for a taxpayer.

117
Q

If the FMV of the property seized in a levy exceeds the liability for which the levy was made, can the IRS release the levy?

A

Yes, the IRS may release a levy if the FMV of the property seized exceeds the liability for which the levy was made.

118
Q

If the taxpayer timely agrees to extend the ten-year tax collection period can the IRS release a levy?

A

Yes, the IRS may release the levy if the taxpayer agrees to extend the ten-year collection period.

119
Q

What consequences does a taxpayer face if he agrees with changes made during an audit and signs an agreement but fails to promptly pay the taxes due?

A

He will be charged interest on the additional taxes from the due date of the return until the payment date.

120
Q

If a taxpayer agrees with changes proposed at an examination, but does not pay, what is the IRS required to do by law?

A

The IRS is required by law to charge interest on unpaid tax from the date the tax return was due to the date the tax is paid in full.

121
Q

If a taxpayer solely wants to disclose information to an associate, what form must he file?

A

If a taxpayer solely wants to disclose information to an associate and grant no other authority, the taxpayer should file form 8821 (Tax information Authorization).

122
Q

Can a taxpayer challenge a third-party summons?

A

Yes, a taxpayer can challenge a third-party summons, but only if the taxpayer is entitled to notice of the issuance of the summons.

123
Q

If a taxpayer’s assessed balance owed is $50,000 or less, they may qualify for what type of installment agreement?

A

If a taxpayer’s assessed balance owed is $50,000 or less, they may qualify for a streamlined installment agreement.

124
Q

What two tiers are streamlined installment agreements divided into?

A

The streamlined installment agreement criteria are divided into two tiers, a balance due of $25,000 or less and a balance due of $25,001 to $50,000.

125
Q

A taxpayer does not have to complete a financial statement when utilizing a streamlined installment agreement if the balance due is what amount?

A

If the total amount the taxpayer owes (tax liability, including penalties and interest) is $25,000 or less, the taxpayer does not have to complete a financial statement.

126
Q

If the total amount the taxpayer owes (tax liability, including penalties and interest) is greater than $25,000 but not more than $50,000, what must the taxpayer agree to in regard to a streamlined installment agreement?

A

the taxpayer must agree to make automatic monthly payments or must complete a financial statement (Form 433-F, Collection Information Statement).

127
Q

When automatic monthly payments for an installment plan is required, how must those payments be set up?

A

The automatic monthly payments must be set up as a Direct Debit Installment Agreement (DDIA) or a Payroll Deduction Installment Agreement (PDIA).

128
Q

What forms do Direct Debit Installment agreements (DDIA) require?

A

DDIAs require Form 433-D, Installment Agreement.

129
Q

What forms do Payroll Deduction installment agreement (PDIAs) require?

A

PDIAs require form 2159 (payroll deduction Agreement)

130
Q

After the issuance of a Statutory Notice of Deficiency, failure to timely file a petition with Tax Court will result in what happening?

A

After the issuance of a Statutory Notice of Deficiency, failure to timely file a petition with Tax Court will result in the IRS assessing the tax it says the taxpayer owes.

131
Q

Can a taxpayer withdraw an appeal if it is deemed frivolous?

A

Yes, If the appeal is deemed frivolous the taxpayer will be given 30 days to withdraw or amend the CDP appeal.

132
Q

What is the penalty for filing a frivolous return?

A

The penalty for filing a frivolous return is $5,000, and it applies to anyone (including the preparer) who submits a purported tax return.

133
Q

In what two instances will the IRS issue a summons?

A

The IRS will issue a summons either to the taxpayer or to a third party in order to compel testimony or the production of records.

134
Q

Whenever the IRS records a Notice of a federal tax lien what will they do next?

A

Whenever the IRS records a Notice of Federal Tax Lien, they will provide the taxpayer with notification by certified mail.

135
Q

When a taxpayer receives a notice of federal tax lien by certified mail, what can he do next?

A

When the taxpayer receives the notification, he may request a Collections Due Process (CDP) hearing with the IRS Office of Appeals by sending a request for a hearing to the address shown on the notice.

136
Q

When must a taxpayer file his request for with the IRS office of appeals after receiving a notice of federal tax lien?

A

The taxpayer must file his request by the date listed on the notice.

137
Q

What letter will a taxpayer receive after the closing conference with the examiner and/or supervisor?

A

Within a few weeks after the closing conference with the examiner and/or supervisor, the taxpayer will receive a package with a letter (known as a thirty-day letter) notifying him of his right to appeal the proposed changes within thirty days.

138
Q

What does the thirty-day letter show?

A

The thirty day letter show the proposed changes the IRS has requested.

139
Q

How long does the taxpayer have to tell the IRS whether he will accept the Proposed changes on the thirty-day letter?

A

The taxpayer will have thirty-days from the date of the thirty-day letter to tell the IRS whether he will accept or appeal the proposed changes. additionally the letter will explain what steps he should take.

140
Q

What are the two methods to designate someone to receive confidential information only?

A

By filing form 8821 (tax information authorization) or Oral Tax Information Authorization (verbal equivalent of Form 8821).

141
Q

T/F, Any real property used as a residence by the taxpayer may not be seized to satisfy a levy of $5,000 or less.

A

True, Any real property used as a residence by the taxpayer may not be seized to satisfy a levy of $5,000 or less.

142
Q

T/F, The taxpayer’s principal residence may not be seized without the written approval of a U.S. district court judge or magistrate.

A

True, The taxpayer’s principal residence may not be seized without the written approval of a U.S. district court judge or magistrate.

143
Q

T/F, Before the sale of property, the IRS will compute a minimum bid price. If the minimum is not offered at the sale, the IRS may buy the property.

A

True, Before the sale of property, the IRS will compute a minimum bid price. If the minimum is not offered at the sale, the IRS may buy the property.

144
Q

If the proceeds of a sale by the IRS are less than the total tax bill, will taxpayer be required to pay the remaining balance?

A

Yes, If the proceeds of a sale by the IRS are less than the total of the tax bill the taxpayer must pay any remaining balance.

145
Q

Will a pending request for innocent spouse relief cause the ten-year tax collection period to be suspended?

A

Yes, the tax collection period is suspended while a request for innocent spouse relief is pending.

146
Q

Can the IRS levy against property if over 30 days have passed after rejecting a request for an agreement?

A

Yes, the IRS levy against property if over 30 days have passed after rejecting a request for an agreement

147
Q

Can the IRS levy against property while an installment agreement is in effect?

A

No, the IRS cannot levy against property while an installment agreement is in place.

148
Q

Can the IRS levy against property while a request for an installment agreement is being considered?

A

No, the IRs cannot levy against property while a request for an installment agreement is being considered.

149
Q

Can the IRs levy against property before 30 days have passed after a request for an agreement has been rejected?

A

No, the IRS cannot levy against property before 30 days have passed after a request for an agreement has been rejected.

150
Q

Can the IRs levy against property before 30 days have passed after the termination of an installment agreement (due to taxpayer default) ?

A

No, the IRS cannot levy against property before 30 days have passed after the termination of an installment agreement (due to taxpayer default).

151
Q

Can the IRS levy against property while the IRS office of appeals is evaluating an appeal of the rejection or termination?

A

No, the IRS cannot levy against property
while the IRS office of appeals is evaluating an appeal of the rejection or termination.

152
Q

Is injured spouse relief, relief from joint tax liability?

A

No, Injured spouse relief is not relief from a joint tax liability.

153
Q

When are you considered an injured spouse?

A

You are an injured spouse if you file a joint return and all or part of your share of the refund was, or will be, applied to your spouses past due tax and non-tax debt obligations.

154
Q

What are the three types of relief available for to married persons who filed joint returns, and are jointly liable for the tax?

A

The three types of relief are
1. Innocent spouse relief
2. Separation of liability relief and
3. Equitable relief

155
Q

A taxpayer must specifically grant the authority to disclose returns when appointing a representative, what other powers require specific authorization on form 2848?

A

Other powers that require specific authorization include signing the taxpayer’s return, and substituting or adding representatives.

156
Q

n order for the IRS to grant a guaranteed installment agreement, a taxpayer must have not failed to file any income tax returns or pay any tax shown on such returns during any of the preceding?

A

In order for the IRS to grant a guaranteed installment agreement, a taxpayer must have not failed to file any income tax returns or pay any tax shown on such returns during any of the preceding 5 years.

157
Q

If the IRS levies property and sells it at a sale, where will they apply the proceeds from the sale prior to the tax liability?

A

If the IRS levies property and sells it at a sale the IRS will apply the proceeds from the sale to the cost of the levy and sale first before applying it to the tax liability.

158
Q

By law, how long does the IRS have to collect outstanding Federal taxes?

A

By law, the IRS has the authority to collect outstanding Federal taxes for 10 years from the date of ASSESSMENT.

159
Q

How is Form 2848 Power of Attorney and Declaration of Representative different from Form 8821 Tax Information Authorization?

A

Form 2848 includes all the tax information authorizations of Form 8821 and includes additional representation authorization

160
Q

How many years in the future can an authorization on a Form 2848 be recorded to the Centralized Authentication File (CAF)?

A

An authorization on a form 2848 can be recorder in the Current year + 3 years into the future.

161
Q

How long does a taxpayer have to petition the Tax Court after the IRS sends a Notice of Deficiency?

A

Ninety days from the day the IRS sends the Notice.

162
Q

Does a notice of Federal tax lien attached to property acquired after the lien filing date?

A

Yes, A Notice of Federal Tax Lien attaches to property acquired after the lien filing date. (this includes property inherited)

163
Q

When may the IRS require a represented taxpayer to provide evidence under oath?

A

The IRS may require a represented taxpayer to provide evidence under oath when the taxpayer’s enrolled agent is unwilling to declare his/her own knowledge that the facts are true and correct.

164
Q

If an audit results in additional tax liability, can a taxpayer avoid the accrual of interest on that liability if he acquiesces to changes proposed and signs an agreement at the conclusion of an audit?

A

Generally, no.

165
Q

A representative who signs a Form 2848, Power of Attorney, declares under penalty of perjury that he or she is aware of what?

A

A representative who signs a Form 2848, Power of Attorney, declares under penalty of perjury that he or she is aware of the regulations in treasury department circular No. 230.

166
Q

What court carries the same authority as the internal revenue code?

A

The supreme court carries the same authority as the internal revenue code.

167
Q

If a taxpayer’s case is determined pursuant to the small tax case procedure in Tax Court and the taxpayer is unhappy with the outcome, can he appeal the decision?

A

No, If a taxpayer’s case is determined pursuant to the small tax case procedure in Tax Court and the taxpayer is unhappy with the outcome he cannot appeal the decision.

168
Q

What amount constitutes a small tax case procedure?

A

A dispute of $50,000 or less for any one year.

169
Q

Who has the burdens of proof and production with respect to a taxpayer penalty if the taxpayer provides reasonable cooperation, adequately substantiates items, and maintains required records?

A

The IRS has the burden of proof and the initial burden of production.

170
Q

Who writes Treasury Regulations (26 CFR)?

A

Internal Revenue Service writes Treasury Regulations (26 CFR).

171
Q

Mary Ellen Leahy received a Notice of Deficiency. In order to stop interest from accruing she paid the tax assessed while she prepared her petition for Tax Court. Is this permissible?

A

Yes, although it is not required

172
Q

When a taxpayer disagrees with the result of an Appeals conference, can he appeal the result?

A

Yes, he can appeal to Federal District Court or to Federal Claims Court or to Tax Court.

173
Q

Where should a taxpayer file a complaint regarding identity theft?

A

A taxpayer should file a complaint regarding identity theft to the Federal trade commission (FTC).

174
Q

The IRS has the burden of proof of initially producing evidence in court proceedings against an individual taxpayer in cases that involve what three things?

A
  1. Any penalties
  2. An additional tax
  3. An additional amount imposed by tax laws.
175
Q

How can a taxpayer terminate a filed tax information authorization?

A

By a filing a new form 8821 (Tax information authorization form)

176
Q

After how many years does a federal lien expire?

A

A federal lien automatically expires after ten years.

177
Q

Can an unenrolled preparer practice before the IRS on behalf of a taxpayer?

A

No, an unenrolled preparer cannot practice before the IRS on behalf of a taxpayer.

178
Q

What does the form CP2000 reflect?

A

The form CP2000 reflects any corrections the IRS made to an original return, and considers those changes in recalculation of the tax due.

179
Q

What can a respondent not do, when responding to a complaint by the OPR?

A
  1. Cannot deny a material allegation in the complaint that he knows to be true
  2. may not state that he is without sufficient information to form a belief, when he possesses the required information.
180
Q

What is proof of an expense?

A

A cancelled check is proof of an expense.

181
Q

How can a preparer contest a penalty imposed by IRC sec 6694, a substantial income tax deficiency with a underpayment due to an unreasonable position?

A

The preparer must contest the validity in the district court but has to pay at least 15% of the penalty beforehand and claim a refund.

182
Q

After form 8879 is completed, what should be done with it?

A

The preparer keeps the form for records for 3 years from the return due date or the date the IRS received the return, whichever is later.

183
Q

A taxpayer is generally prohibited from submitting electronic returns to the IRS prior to receipt of what type of common form?

A

Form W-2.

184
Q

What is the first step in the collection process?

A

The IRS will send a notice of tax due and demand payment.

185
Q

How is form 8453 (US Individual Income tax Transmittal for an IRS e-file Return) filed?

A

Form 8453 is filed by mail.

186
Q

What publication sets forth the procedural rules for the conduct of proceedings on complaints filed by the Office of Professional responsibility?

A

Circular 230

187
Q

When is the normal 3 year statute of limitation for assessment of additional tax extended to 6 years?

A

The statute of limitations is extended to six years when taxpayer omits income that is 25% or more of the reported amount of gross income.

188
Q

How long must a pre-recorded broadcast advertisement be kept?

A

A pre-recorded broadcast must be kept until the end of the calendar year following the last transmission or use.

189
Q

In, general for what period of time is a written consent to disclose taxpayer information effective?

A

One year from the date the taxpayer signs the consent.

190
Q

Knowingly or recklessly disclosing or using any tax return information other than to prepare or assist in preparing a tax return can lead to the assessment of what type of penalty?

A

It can lead to the assessment of a monetary penalty.

191
Q

What form should a preparer with a SSN that has been compromised file?

A

The form that a preparer with SSN that has been compromised should file is form 14039, and it should be faxed or mailed to the IRS.

192
Q

Due to the convenience of electronically filing tax returns, there is information a tax preparer can leave off on a return compared to a return on paper, T/F

A

False,
IRS e-file returns must contain all of the same information as returns filed completely on paper.

193
Q

What is the monetary penalty for failure to file informational returns under section 6695(e)?

A

The penalty for failure to file informational returns under section 6695(e) is $60 per return and 60$ per item in return.

194
Q

The IRS will release a Notice of Federal tax lien within how many days from payment of the outstanding tax liability?

A

The IRS will release a Notice of Federal Tax Lien within thirty (30) days from payment of the outstanding tax liability.

195
Q

Can an individual representing a member of his/her immediate family represent them before the IRS?

A

Yes, an individual representing a member of his/her immediate family represent them before the IRS.

196
Q

Can a regular full-time employee of an individual employer represent the employer before the IRS?

A

Yes, a regular full-time employee of an individual employer can represent the employer before the IRS.

197
Q

Can an officer or full-time employee of a corporation represent the corporation before the IRS?

A

Yes. an office or full-time employee of a corporation can represent the corporation before the IRS.

198
Q

In order for the IRS to grant a guaranteed installment agreement, a taxpayer must have not failed to file any income tax returns or pay any tax shown on such returns during any of the preceding

A

5 Years

199
Q

What is the limit of a monetary penalty issued for incompetence or disreputable conduct?

A

The full amount of the income derived or expected from the action resulting in the penalty.

200
Q
A