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Enr 1.5 > Enr 1.5 > Flashcards

Enr 1.5 Flashcards

1
Q

For the MAP, airspace containment is based on the assumption that what % climb gradient can be achieved?

A

5%

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2
Q

For normal PBN operations, cross track deviation/error should be limited to?

A

+- half the navigation accuracy. Brief deviations from this during and immediately after procedure/route turns up to a maximum of 1 times the navigation accuracy are allowable

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3
Q

Cautionary notes on departure will be provided for obstacles up to a height of what?

A

60m (200ft)

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4
Q

If you can’t achieve one engine climb to leg MSA, what should you do?

A

Normally involve a return towards the departure aid until either MSA is reached or approval granted to re-join for approach and landing.
Note the terrain over which a reversal turn may be completed

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5
Q

Departure procedures may consist of what 6 things?

A

a) Published instrument departure
b) Climb on track above descent or VORSEC chart steps (crossed at the minimum of next step)
c) specified track, heading or radar SID or heading within evaluated climb sector
d) departure instructions with an initial climb restriction, expecting to lift once clear of traffic
e) visual departure by day only, with regard to prevailing met, to specified upper limit, set heading point or altitude
f) departure instructions containing a visual departure segment may be flown only during the day

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6
Q

How must the specified departure track be intercepted?

A

By the shortest practical means after completing turn after take-off
(Direction as instructed or as published)

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7
Q

Climb in evaluated climb sector specifications:

A

Maintain climb gradient for departure track

Climb on departure to MIN 400ft AGL before commencing a turn to intercept track or heading

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8
Q

If crossing two or more sectors on departure, which sector safe applies?

A

The highest

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9
Q

On departure, if you are climbing on a track or radial between two sectors, which NCG may be applied?

A

The lowest one for the sector, which may be the 3.3%

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10
Q

Prior to leaving the evaluated climb sector…the aircraft must be:

A

Established on evaluated route or
Established on climb above VORSEC or
Established under radar control at or above minimum radar terrain contour level or
At or above an approved area MSA

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11
Q

What must be made allowances for on the SID?

A

Wind

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12
Q

IAW PANS OPS II, what obstacle clearance does a SID provide?

A

16ft above the departure end of the runway

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13
Q

IAW PANS OPS II, what obstacle clearance does a SID provide?

A

16ft above the departure end of the runway

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14
Q

Unless otherwise specified, what are the SID performance requirements?

A

NCG of 3.3%

Climb on RWY HDG to 400ft AGL above the departure end of the RWY

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15
Q

Max IAS for turns during the SID?

A

Cat B 165kts

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16
Q

Aircraft flying published instrument departure procedures must do what?

A

FLY OVER terrestrial NAVAIDS unless otherwise instructed

Must code FMS if applicable

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17
Q

What must you do if you can’t meet conditions ‘cross at or above’?

A

Advise ATC

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18
Q

When does a SID terminate?

A

When the aircraft is on an established route

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19
Q

What is the takeoff minima?

A

As detailed on the plate or

Ceiling 300ft AGL, 1500m visibility

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20
Q

What is it and When can you use reduced takeoff minima?

A

0ft cloud ceiling
800m vis

Provided that:
A) RWY has Centreline marking/lighting
B) Takeoff Vis confirmed by pilot by observing the Centreline marking/Centreline lighting
C) Aerodrome plate must allow it
D) Any obstacles in the takeoff are taken into account
E) two-engine engine aircraft must have operative autofeather

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21
Q

What must an aerodrome have for 0-0 takeoff minima?

A

A serviceable secondary power supply, automatic switchover available

22
Q

Terrain clearance in the hold?

A

1000ft above obstacles

2000ft above mountainous

23
Q

Holding speeds

A

0-14k 170kt
14k to 20k 240kt
20k + 265kt

24
Q

Timing for the hold?

A

1 min below 14k
1min 30 above 14k

Begins from wings level or abeam, which ever is later

25
Q

Angle of turn in hold?

A

Made at a bank angle of 25° or rate 1

26
Q

What is the zone of flexibility for a hold?

A

5° either side of sector boundaries

27
Q

Parallel hold entry?

A

Overhead the fix, turn onto reciprocal for limiting time or distance
Then turn to holding side onto inbound
Then establish hold

28
Q

Offset hold entry?

A

Overhead the aid, turn to 30° off reciprocal off inbound track to holding side to limiting time or distance, then turn to intercept inbound

29
Q

Which entry procedures must be used for a hold on the dme arc?

A

Parallel or direct

30
Q

What speed defines the aircraft category?

A

V at threshold of 91<121kts CAT B

31
Q

What approach should be used at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

The designated approach for runway in use (unless reported met is suitable for standard visual join procedure & IFR/VFR traffic in the vicinity)

32
Q

A clearance for an approach allows aircraft to descend in accordance with?

A

STAR, RNAV ARRIVAL, ROUTE MSA INCL DIST STEPS, 25NM SECTOR ALT CHART, TAA, VORSEC CHART

33
Q

Except when under radar control or in accordance with a specific arrival procedure, what is the minimum approach alt limited to the highest of?

A

A) minimum procedure commencement altitude on chart
B) MSA for route sector….
Then take the lowest of below as they apply…

34
Q

On a general IAP, an aircraft may be issued a descent clearance with a restriction prior to reporting visual, provided that…

A

Reported or known cloud base is 1000ft above altitude specified in descent restriction

Vis is 8km or greater

Reason for restriction is passed to pilot

35
Q

Max speed for circling?

A

135k

36
Q

Max speed for MAP?

A

150k

37
Q

When joining the arc, what height must you join at?

A

Your leg safe or dme safe (whichever is higher)

38
Q

When may you descend on the arc?

A

Controlled (once established and cleared to descend)

Uncontrolled (once established)

39
Q

What terrain clearance does an arc provide?

A

1000ft terrain or obstacle clearance

2.5nm each side of the arc

40
Q

When can you descend below DA, DH OR MDA?

A
  1. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on intended runway with normal ROD and normal manoeuvres to allow touchdown in touch down zone
  2. On circling, to maintain circling area
  3. Flight Vis is not less than specified
  4. One of the following is identified:
    A. ALS
    B. THRESHOLD MARKINGS
    C. THRESHOLD LIGHTS
    D. REIL
    E. VASI
    F. TOUCHDOWN ZONE OR MARKINGS
    G. TOUCHDOWN ZONE LIGHTS
    H. RUNWAY OR RUNWAY MARKINGS
    I. RUNWAY LIGHTS
41
Q

When must you execute the MAP?

A

If not visual at DA/DH
If an identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during circling
At any time when directed by ATC

42
Q

Minimum bank angle in MAP?

A

15°

43
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance in missed approach? And climb gradient?

A

98ft and 2.5%

44
Q

Navaid fail on approach?

A

Change to another aid, provided met is suitable

Advise ATC

45
Q

When will ATC protect the missed approach (met)

A

Day: ceiling 1200ft & 5k Vis
Night: ceiling 2000ft & 8k vis

46
Q

Cat B circling radii

A

2.66nm

47
Q

When can you request visual approach?

A

When specifically requested
Maintain visual to terrain
Reported ceiling is not below initial approach altitude
Pilot can assure that prevailing met will ensure maintaining visual

48
Q

When will ATC advise that the met conditions?

A

By day only when Vis is 16km

Ceiling is 1000ft above radar altitude or inst app procedure commencement altitude

49
Q

How to calculate remote QNH?

A

(Distance -5)X 5 from source to required aerodrome

50
Q

Can you use remote QNH for rnav procedures?

A

NO

Enr 1.5 (1 decks)

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