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ENR Flashcards

1
Q

Visual Approach by DAY authorised by ATC

A

Within 30nm
Continuous sight of ground or water
Visibility 5000m or the aerodrome is in sight

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2
Q

Visual Approach by NIGHT authorised by ATC

A
  • continuous visual reference to the ground or water; and
  • visibility along the flight path is not less than 5,000M; and
  • within 30NM of the aerodrome; or

– if being vectored, assigned the MVA and given heading or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position the aircraft within the circling area of the aerodrome.

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3
Q

First contact with Approach Control, identified- report:

A

Assigned level;
Flight conditions, if appropriate;
Receipt of ATIS

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4
Q

First contact with Approach Control, not identified- report:

A

DME or GNSS distance, VOR radial, GNSS track or compass quadrant or the STAR designator;
Assigned level;
Flight conditions, if appropriate;
Receipt of ATIS

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5
Q

PDC Readback

A

The SID, including runway and/or transition (if issued);

Transponder code;

Additional requirements specified in the PDC; and

Current parking position/bay

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6
Q

Airborne Report in an ATS environment

A

Heading- Assigned heading and direction of turn

Altitude Passing

Assigned level

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7
Q

Departure Report Class D Aerodrome

A

Report on TWR Frequency:

Tracking information

Last Assigned Altitude

Or Contact Approach/Centre and provide:

An Airborne Report

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8
Q

Established on Track by?

A

Within 5nm of the aerodrome unless following a SID

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9
Q

When contacting Area Control provide:

A

Last assigned Level

And if not maintaining that level, the last level vacated unless in a radar environment and identified

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10
Q

Reports enroute

A

Give ATS notice of a report:

“MEL CTR, (callsign) POSITION REPORT”

Position
Time
Level
Next position and time

No need for assigned level if advised “Identified”

Any frequency change advise last assigned level

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11
Q

Advise ATC if speed varies by?

A

+/- 10kts or +/- M0.02

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12
Q

Tracking requirements for a Visual Approach

A

Except when on a STAR maintain track/heading
DAY:
Within 5nm
NIGHT:
Aerodrome in sight and within the circling area for an IFR flight

Then join the circuit

If following a STAR continue on the lateral profile

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13
Q

Minimum Altitude requirements for a Visual Approach

A

DAY:
Remain not less than 500ft above lower limit of the CTA
Not below lowest permissible altitude for VFR

NIGHT:
Remain not below LSALT/MSA or appropriate step of a DME/GNSS arrival procedure or,
500 ft above lower limit of the CTA
If being radar vectored not below last assigned altitude

UNTIL:
Within circling altitude and Aerodrome in sight
Within 5nm established on slope
Within 10nm not below a glideslope

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14
Q

Maximum speed in the circuit

A

200kts

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15
Q

Standard circuit height for jets

A

1,500ft

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16
Q

When departing a runway OCTA how many miles before turning contrary to circuit direction

A

3nm

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17
Q

An IFR flight must establish on track within …….nm?

A

5

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18
Q

Departure Report OCTA

A

Time
Outbound TRK
Cruising Level
ETA for first enroute reporting point

Or

Position
Level
Intended cruising level
ETA for first enroute reporting point

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19
Q

When TAFs include a FM or a BECMG, causing an operational requirement to either become effective or be removed, the timing for the change in operational requirement is as follows:

A

a. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to create an operational requirement, that operational requirement will become effective 30 minutes before the start of the FM time, or 30 minutes before the start of the BECMG period.
b. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to remove an operational requirement, that operational requirement will remain effective until 30 minutes after the FM time or 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG period

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20
Q

The fuel required when an INTER or TEMPO is forecast has what buffer associated with it?

A

ETA of the aircraft at its destination or alternate falls within the period 30 minutes before the forecast commencement time to 30 minutes after the expected time of cessation of these deteriorations.

If the holding time required by paras 10.7.2.4 or 10.7.2.5 extends past 30 minutes after the forecast cessation of these deteriorations, the aircraft need only carry sufficient fuel to hold until 30 minutes after the forecast cessation time.

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21
Q

What is a TAF3 forecast?

A

Routinely issued every 3 hours

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22
Q

When using a TAF3, what considerations are there?

A

Only during the first 3 hours of the TAF validity, the following do not apply:

30 minute buffers required by paras 10.7.2.7 and 10.7.2.8 (FM and BECMG)

b. the alternate or holding fuel required by:
(i) para 10.7.2.1 (c) for reduction in visibility, or
(ii) para 10.7.2.5 for any PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or associated severe turbulence

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23
Q

For IFR flights, the alternate minima are as follows

A

For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima published on the chart

If the forecast is n/a or Provisional, an alternate will be planned

For aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM

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24
Q

When a position report estimate changes by …..mins, pilots must advise ATC

A

2 mins

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25
Q

Straight-in Approach

A

Pilots may choose a straight in approach when it does not disrupt or conflict with the flow of circuit traffic.

Give way to any other aircraft established and flying in the circuit pattern

Determine the wind direction and speed and the runway in use

Established on final at not less than 3NM from the landing runway’s threshold and manoeuvring must be conducted outside a 3NM radius

An aircraft established on base leg or final approach for any runway has priority over an aircraft carrying out a straight-in approach.

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26
Q

Joining on Base

A

determine the wind direction and speed

determine the runway in use

give way to other circuit traffic

broadcast their intentions

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27
Q

Alternate Aerodromes General

A

suitable as a destination for that flight

not an aerodrome for which that flight would require to provide for an alternate aerodrome

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28
Q

What weather conditions at your destination will require planning for an alternate aerodrome?

A

When arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions:

Cloud - more than SCT below the alternate minimum

Cloud below the alternate minima are cumulative:
FEW plus FEW is equivalent to SCT,
FEW plus SCT is equivalent to BKN,
SCT plus SCT is equivalent to BKN or OVC

visibility - less than the alternate minimum

Visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with a percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum

Wind - a crosswind or tailwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft.
Wind gusts must be considered

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29
Q

When can you choose not to provide for an alternate?

A

When weather conditions are expected to improve at a specific time, provision for an alternate aerodrome need not be made if sufficient fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold until that specified time plus 30 minutes.

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30
Q

With intermittent or temporary deteriorations below the alternate minimum, what are your requirements?

A

Provision of an alternate need not be made if sufficient fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold for:

a. 30 minutes for intermittent deterioration (INTER); and
b. 60 minutes for temporary deterioration (TEMPO)

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31
Q

What are your fuel considerations when the destination has TS forecast?

A

sufficient fuel must be carried to permit the aircraft to proceed to a suitable alternate or to hold for:

a. 30 minutes when the forecast is endorsed INTER; or
b. 60 minutes when the forecast is endorsed TEMPO

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32
Q

When a forecast has multiple INTER or TEMPO deteriorations and holding fuel will be carried, what are your considerations?

A

When a forecast has multiple INTER or TEMPO deteriorations and holding fuel will be carried, fuel must be carried to hold for only the most limiting requirement. INTER and TEMPO holding fuel requirements are not cumulative

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33
Q

An alternate aerodrome must be planned unless with respect to Radio AIDS:

A

Aerodrome is equipped with a radio aid and the aircraft is equipped with two independent receivers capable of using the aid or,
Aerodrome is equipped with two separate nav aids and the aircraft has independent and separate systems capable of using the aid or,
If no nav aids at the destination:
not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT plus 500FT and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less than 8KM

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34
Q

Alternate requirements for portable lighting

A

Alternate planned unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance

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35
Q

An alternate must be planned when no standby power is available for electric lighting

A

unless portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance

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36
Q

An aerodrome with PAL and standby power must have an alternate with runway lighting unless

A

unless a responsible person is in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.

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37
Q

An alternate aerodrome for a PAL equipped runway must have

A

served by a lighting system which is not pilot activated or,

served by PAL and there is a responsible person in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.

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38
Q

Alternate fuel for runway lighting need not be carried if

A

the aircraft carries holding fuel for first light plus 10 minutes at the destination.

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39
Q

An alternate aerodrome planned for when runway lighting is the reason need not have standby power or portable lighting

A

True

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40
Q

For an aerodrome to be suitable for operations at night under RPT the following lighting must be available

A

runway edge lighting,

threshold lighting

illuminated wind direction indicator

obstacle lighting

taxiway lighting and apron floodlighting, all lighting to be electric

Note: In the event that an illuminated wind direction indicator is not available, aircraft may continue to operate if wind velocity information can be obtained from an approved observer or an Automatic Weather Station (AWS).

41
Q

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used lighting must be available:

A

Departure: least 10 minutes before departure to at least 30 minutes after take-off;

Arrival: least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.

The above shall apply to runway, obstacle and taxiway lighting.

42
Q

Airspace Speed Limitations in Class D Airspace

A

200KT IAS at or below 2,500FT AAL within 4NM of the primary Class D aerodrome

250KT IAS - in the remaining Class D airspace

43
Q

Airspace Speed Limitation Class E and G Airspace

A

250KIAS below 10,000ft

44
Q

ATC applies the following TIME based wake turbulence separation minima between the relevant categories of aircraft:

A

Medium behind Super- 3 mins/4 mins for Intermediate Departure

Medium behind Heavy- 2 mins/3 mins for Intermediate Departure

45
Q

ATC applies the following DISTANCE wake turbulence separation minima between the relevant categories of aircraft:

A

Medium following a Super- 7nm

Medium following a Heavy- 5nm

46
Q

For Wake Turbulence,
Where the required separation can be determined by distance using an aircraft report or ATS Surveillance System, ATC need not apply the time standard to an affected:

A

a. arriving aircraft

b. departing aircraft, unless it is departing from an intermediate point

47
Q

Pilot Waivers for Wake Turbulence only apply when:

A

VMC by day only

Waiving of these separation standards is not permitted when the aircraft concerned will follow a Heavy or Super aircraft

48
Q

Aircraft Performance Category based upon Vat determine landing minima for aircraft. What is the speed range for CAT C aircraft?

A

From 121KT to 140KT IAS.

49
Q

Except when complying with the requirements for a visual approach, when conforming to a published DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or when identified and assigned an altitude by ATC, an aircraft cannot descend below….

A

below the LSALT or the MSA for the route segment being flown (see para 2.3) until it has arrived over the IAF or facility.

50
Q

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot:

A

Maintains the aircraft within the circling area

Maintains a visibility, not less than the minimum specified

Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway);

Can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold

51
Q

The minimum obstacle clearance requirements for Circling are:

A

Categories C and D - 400FT

4.20NM = 7,778M

52
Q

For the purpose of manoeuvring to final approach, ‘visual reference’ refers to….

A

means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure

53
Q

Descent Below the Straight-in MDA:

A

Visual reference can be maintained;

All elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category; and

The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.

54
Q

Missed Approach must be executed if:

A

not maintained with in the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use

performance of the radio aid is suspect or fails

visual reference is not established

landing cannot be effected from a runway approach

visual reference is lost while circling

For the purpose of this paragraph “visual reference” means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot,

55
Q

In IAL procedures, the missed approach is designed to provide what obstacle clearance?

A

Designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100FT to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (152FT/NM) from the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences.

56
Q

Whilst circling, a missed approach flight path will follow:

A

When a missed approach is required from visual circling, the expectation is that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome where the pilot will establish the aircraft climbing on the missed approach track.

57
Q

During an approach using GNSS, what is required if a RAIM warning or loss of RAIM occurs….

A

a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix, the pilot must immediately carry out a missed approach in accordance with published procedures

58
Q

Visual Approaches by DAY requirements:

A

Within 30NM
Not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment
Appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA
And the aircraft is established

clear of cloud;
in sight of ground or water;
5,000M Vis;

And can maintain these until within the circling area

59
Q

Visual Approaches by NIGHT requirements:

A

Altitude not below the LSALT/MSA
Appropriate step of the DME or GNSS
Appropriate MDA

Clear of cloud;
In sight of ground or water;
Vis 5,000M

within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS) of that aerodrome aligned with the runway centreline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI

within 10NM and established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection.

60
Q

Handling Speeds for CAT C Aircraft

A

Vat 121-140

Range of Speeds for Initial and Intermediate Approach 160-240

Range of Final Approach Speeds 115-160

Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) 180

Max Speeds for Missed Approach 240

61
Q

Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OCA) is defined as:

A

a. precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
b. in a non-precision runway approach procedure, the lowest altitude below which the aircraft can not descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
c. in a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation in accordance with obstacle clearance criteria.

62
Q

Aircraft may commence a segment in excess of the specified commencement altitude provided…

A

Any upper altitude limitation is observed. However, rate of descent after the FAF should not normally exceed 1,000FT per minute

63
Q

Established…..

A

….means being within half full scale deflection for the ILS, VOR and GNSS, within ±5° of the required bearing for the NDB, or within ±2NM of the DME arc.

64
Q

Can you descend below the 10nm MSA outside of 10nm?

A

where the 25NM MSA has been divided into sectors, and the appropriate 25NM Sector MSA is lower than the 10NM MSA, then the 25NM Sector MSA may be used for tracking to the nominated significant point

65
Q

What is the main difference between a 2D and 3D approach

A

An NPA procedure flown using the charted altitude/distance scale to determine the aircraft’s rate of descent is considered a 2D instrument approach operation.

Where the advisory vertical guidance is calculated and provided by on-board navigation equipment, the approach can be flown as a 3D instrument approach operation. Advisory vertical guidance is generated by aircraft navigation systems

66
Q

Reversal Procedures consist of…

A

Procedure Turn: 45/180°- consisting of a specified outbound track and timing from the facility or fix followed by a 45° turn, commence timing (1:15secs from start of turn) and then a 180° opposite turn back to intercept inbound track.

Procedure Turn: Consisting of a specified outbound track and timing from the facility or fix, an 80° turn away from the outbound track, followed by a turn of 260° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track

Base Turn: Consisting of a specified outbound track and timing or DME distance from a facility, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track

67
Q

Holding procedures are subject to the following limitations:

A

Speed: up to and including FL140 – 230KT,
above FL140 up to and including FL200-240KT and above FL200- 265KT

Timing: Up to and including FL 140 – 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart;
Above FL 140 – 1.5 minutes or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.

All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25° or Rate One, whichever requires the lesser bank.

Exiting: For ATC traffic management, jet aircraft in CTA must leave an en route holding pattern at 250KT IAS,

68
Q

The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane are:

A

ceiling of zero feet
visibility of 550M – but only if the following conditions are complied with:
– the runway must have illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60M, and
centreline lighting or centreline markings; and
– the aerodrome has secondary power supply for runway lighting
- if the aerodrome is an non-controlled aerodrome, or a controlled aerodrome without ATC in operation the take-off must be conducted by day only, and the aerodrome must be one at which carriage of radio is mandatory
OR….800M

69
Q

It is a condition of the use of the take-off minima (550m or 800m) that the pilot in command of the aeroplane must ensure that…

A

if a return to land at the departure aerodrome will be necessary in the event of an engine failure - the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodrome or such as to allow a visual approach.

terrain clearance is assured until reaching either en route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA

If a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible, proceed to a suitable aerodrome, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

70
Q

Landing Minima requirements

A

Aerodromes without approved instrument approach procedures:
IFR Day - visual approach requirements.
IFR Night - VMC from LSALT within 3NM

Aerodromes with approved non-precision approach procedures:
IFR Day and Night - minima specified in the relevant IAC. However if the installed HIAL on a runway is not available, the minima for a Localiser (LOC) approach must be increased by 900M

Aerodromes with approved precision approach CAT I procedures:
Published precision approach CAT I DA and visibility minima may be used, except that:
a. minimum visibility 1.5KM is required when precision approach CAT I lighting system (also known as HIAL) is not available
b. minimum visibility 1.2KM is required unless:
(1) the aircraft is manually flown at least to the CAT I DA using a flight director or the aircraft is flown to the CAT I DA with an autopilot coupled (LOC and GP or GLS); and
(2) the aircraft is equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; and
(3) high intensity runway edge lighting is available

Minimum visibility 0.8KM is required if instrumented RVR information in the threshold zone is not available

71
Q

QNH Sources

Prior to passing the IAF, pilots are required to set either:

A

a. the actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source, or
b. the Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH, or
c. the forecast area QNH

72
Q

What does a shaded background to the minima’s mean?

A

Where instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. Approved sources of actual QNH are ATC and ATIS except when the aerodrome forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and CASA approved meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

Note: METAR QNH does not meet this requirement

73
Q

Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by…

A

50FT

74
Q

Describe Special Alternate Weather Minima…

A

For aircraft equipped with dual ILS/VOR approach capability; i.e. with duplicated LOC, G/P, marker and VOR receivers.

double asterisk adjacent to the ALTERNATE title denotes that the minima is available for use.

Not available when METAR/SPECI forecasting services N/A or when an airport control service is not provided

75
Q

These special alternate minima will not be available (minima will revert to the standard alternate minima) during periods when:

A

Local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available or an aerodrome control service is not provided.

76
Q

The climb gradient shown on a radar SID chart provides obstacle clearance up to the…

A

MSA/LSALT.

77
Q

The climb gradient requirements of a radar SID cease when the aircraft reaches the…

A

MSA/LSALT as applicable

78
Q

During the conduct of an SID, the pilot must follow….

A

Unless explicitly cancelled or amended by ATC, the pilot must follow the vertical and lateral profile of the SID and comply with any published speed restrictions.

79
Q

When ATC cancel speed restrictions on a SID, what does this actually mean?

A

Cancellation of ‘published speed restrictions’ cancels all speeds published on the SID chart. Cancellation of ‘ATC-issued speed control instructions’ cancels any speed control instructions issued by ATC. Airspace speed limitations must be compiled with unless specifically cancelled

80
Q

What are the speed requirements during climb out in an ATS environment?

A

For ATC traffic management: unless varied by ATC, DAP or ERSA, at or before 3,000FT AGL or at the completion of a noise abatement procedure, jet aircraft departing Class C aerodromes must:

a. commence acceleration to 250KT IAS; and
b. maintain 250KT until leaving 10,000FT AMSL

81
Q

ATC cancels certain speed restrictions on STARS. What are some considerations?

A

Cancellation of ‘published speed restrictions’ cancels all speeds published on the STAR chart. Cancellation of ‘ATC-issued speed control instruction’ cancels any speed control instructions issued by ATC. Airspace speed limitation must be complied with unless specifically cancelled.

Speed and level restrictions associated with the bypassed waypoints are cancelled

The pilot must comply with any published STAR speed and level restrictions, at and after the waypoint where the STAR is rejoined.

82
Q

DME OR GNSS ARRIVAL PROCEDURES requirements

A

Provides descent guidance along a specified track or sector, to the visual circling area of an aerodrome

Descent is not permitted until the aircraft is established within the appropriate sector or on the specified inbound track

Manoeuvring within a sector after passing the final approach fix is prohibited.

GNSS integrity (e.g. RAIM) must be available before descending below the LSALT/MSA.

When cleared for a DME or GNSS Arrival in controlled airspace an aircraft must not orbit, enter a holding pattern, or use holding pattern entry procedures. ATC will not issue a clearance for a DME or GNSS Arrival that involves the use of a holding pattern entry procedure.

Where the track being flown is not aligned with the landing runway, a clearance for a DME or GNSS Arrival includes a clearance to manoeuvre within the circling area to position the aircraft on final for landing.

within controlled airspace and provide 500FT separation from the CTA lower limit.

83
Q

When is speed control terminated?

A

Except for a STAR, a DME arrival, or unless otherwise specified, a clearance for final approach or a clearance for a visual approach terminates speed control.

84
Q

What are the specific Transponder Squawk Codes in use?

A

7700- Emergency
7600- Radio Failure
7500- Unlawful Interference
3000- Civil flights in classes A, C and D airspace, or IFR flights in Class E airspace
2000- Civil IFR flights in Class G airspace

85
Q

PRE-FLIGHT ALTIMETER CHECK should read…

A

Should read the nominated elevation to within 60FT

An error in excess of ± 75FT, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable.

When two altimeters are required for the category of operation, one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60FT.

86
Q

For all operations at or below the Transition Altitude (in the Altimeter Setting region), the altimeter reference setting will be:

A

The current Local QNH of a station along the route within 100NM of the aircraft; or

The current Area QNH forecast if the current Local QNH is not known.

87
Q

The position to change between QNH and 1013.2HPA shall always be in the Standard Pressure Region and occurs….

A

On climb after passing 10,000FT and prior to levelling off, or on descent to a level in the Altimeter Setting Region prior to entering the Transition Layer

88
Q

What is the validity of Area QNH?

A

Area QNH is a forecast value which is valid for a period of 3 hours

Area QNH must not differ from an adjoining Area QNH by more than 5HPA.

89
Q

What is the Flight Level lower limit when Area QNH falls below 1013

A

FL110 must not be used for cruising when the Area QNH is less than 1013HPA, so FL115 becomes the lowest.

90
Q

How soon must you vacate a change of level assigned by ATC?

A

The pilot in command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than one (1) minute after receiving that instruction from ATC

91
Q

Are you required to readback an expected clearance?

A

An expectation of a level restriction is not required to be read back.

92
Q

When must you advise ATC of a level change?

A

When the aircraft has left a level at which level flight has been conducted in the course of climb, cruise or descent.

93
Q

What is Standard Rate in relation to altitude change?

A

Climb or descent of not less than 500FT per minute, except that the last 1,000FT to an assigned level must be made at 500FT per minute

94
Q

What is the validity period of an aerodrome forecast for destination and alternates.

A

Must be valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA

95
Q

If a flight is delayed is there a requirement to update a preflight briefing?

A

When preflight briefing is obtained more than one hour prior to EOBT, pilots should obtain an update before each departure

96
Q

Can an IFR flight be planned by night to a destination not served by a navigation aid?

A

No

An aeroplane with a MTOW greater than 5,700KG operating under IFR by night may only be planned to a destination which has an approved instrument approach procedure for which the aircraft is appropriately equipped and the pilot is qualified

97
Q

A flight may be planned under IFR at night when the Navigation aid(s) required have failed provided:

A

Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to an alternate aerodrome

Navigation requirements of ENR 1.1 Sub-section 4.1 are fulfilled.

Descent below the LSALT/MSA must be in accordance with the requirements for visual approaches by night specified in ENR 1.5 section 1.15.

98
Q

What are the reporting requirements for Immediately Reportable Matters (IRM) or Routine Reportable Matters (RRM)?

A

IRM must be reported as soon as reasonably practicable by telephone on 1800 011 034, and then a follow-up written report must be made within 72 hours.

RRM require only a written report within 72 hours.

99
Q

Visual Met Conditions in Class G airspace are…

A

At or above 10,000FT AMSL- 8KM 1,000FT vertical 1,500M horizontal from cloud

Below 10,000FT AMSL- 5KM 1,000FT vertical 1,500M horizontal from cloud

At or below -whichever is the higher - of: (a) 3,000FT AMSL; (b) 1,000FT AGL- 5,000M Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water

AIP (2 decks)

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