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ENGR202 Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four main human activities that accelerate environmental change?

A
  1. Land Use
  2. Food Supply
  3. Energy Supply
  4. Waste and Emissions
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2
Q

What is the most widespread human cause for accelerating environmental change?

A

Land use

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3
Q

Changes in the environment can be classified into two categories. What are they?

A
  1. Changes resulting from land usage (including depletion of natural resources)
  2. Changes brought by emissions or byproduct residues of industrial operations and products.
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4
Q

What is the triple bottom line?

A

Environment, Economy, Equity
or
People, Planet Profit

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5
Q

Define Sustainable Development

A

Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

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6
Q

What must Sustainable Development encompass?

A
  • Reusing and circulating waste
  • Minimize materials used to fulfil a purpose
  • Prevent and reduce the release of hazardous substances
  • Minimize energy consumption and waste heat discharge
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7
Q

Describe the difference between Sustainability and Resilience

A

Sustainability: A systems ability to maintain or support a process overtime

Resilience: A systems ability to deal and adapt to change

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8
Q

What is carrying capacity?

A

The number of individuals that can be supported by a system. In excess of this is an “overshoot”

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9
Q

What is an ecological footprint?

A

Stress placed on the ecosystem by an individual or group

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10
Q

What is the tipping point?

A

A critical point, beyond which an irreversible change and establishes a new ‘normal’

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11
Q

What are the three Environmental Legislations in Canada? And what do they do?

A
  1. Canadian Environmental Protection act (1999)
    - Pollution prevention
    - Protection of human health and environment
  2. Fisheries Act (1985)
    - Protection of water and waterways
  3. Impact Assessment Act (2019)
    - When and how to conduct an impact assessment
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12
Q

What does LCA stand for?

A

Life Cycle Assessment

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13
Q

What is LCA?

A

A decision support tool to identify and analyze the environmental impacts and burdens or something.

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14
Q

What are three sources of pollution?

A

-Natural (volcanic eruptions)
- Organic (Sewage)
- Synthetic (Fossil Fuels, human activities)

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15
Q

Name the seven types of toxins

A
  1. Allergens (activate immune system)
  2. Depressants (Suppress immune system)
  3. Mutagens (damage genetic material)
  4. Carcinogens (increase risk of cancer)
  5. Teratogens (causes abnormalities in embryos)
  6. Neurotoxins (attacks nerve cells)
  7. Endocrine Disruptors (interfere with normal hormone function)
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16
Q

What are the environmental impacts on human health?

A
  1. Acute
  2. Chronic
  3. Carcinogenic
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17
Q

What are the two environmental impacts on humans?

A
  1. Human Health
  2. Human Welfare
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18
Q

Name the six major pollutants (criteria air pollutants)

A
  1. Particulate Matter (PM)
  2. Sulfure Dioxide
  3. Carbon Monoxide
  4. Nitrogen Dioxide
  5. Lead
  6. Ground Level Ozone
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19
Q

What are the two categories of air pollutants?

A
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
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20
Q

What is a primary pollutant?

A

They are emitted directly from a source

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21
Q

What is a secondary pollutant?

A

Not directly emitted. Forms when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere.

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22
Q

What are some PM sources?

A
  • Incomplete fuel combustion
  • industrial processes
  • dust from unpaved roads
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23
Q

What are some PM impacts?

A

Health:
- respiratory/cardio diseases
- damage to lung tissue
- carcinogenesis
- Premature death

Other:
- reduce visibility
- damage to materials
- dust

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24
Q

What does sulfur dioxide smell like?

A

Fireworks

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25
Q

What are two components of acid rain?

A

Sulphuric acid and nitric acid

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26
Q

What are sources of SOx

A
  • Combustion of fossil fuels
  • oil refineries, cement
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27
Q

What are some impacts of SOx?

A
  • Respiratory illnesses
  • Sulfur Trioxide
  • Acid rain
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28
Q

What causes CO?

A
  • Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
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29
Q

What are some impacts of CO?

A
  • Absorbed by hemoglobin
  • Chokes off blood’s oxygen delivery system
    -Long term heart damage
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30
Q

How is NOx produced?

A
  • Burning of fossil fuels
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31
Q

What are some impacts of NOx?

A
  • Acid rain
  • Irritates lungs
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32
Q

When was lead in gasoline banned?

A

1980s

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33
Q

Why was lead added to gasoline?

A

It improved the efficiency/performance of the engine.

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34
Q

What are the conditions of smog formation?

A
  1. high intensity solar radiation with a high UV
  2. Reactive nitrogen oxides
  3. Reactive VOCs
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35
Q

What are VOCs

A

Volatile Organic Compounds

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36
Q

What are some impacts of Ozone

A

-Damage to construction materials
- Makes animals and plants more vulnerable to disease

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37
Q

How many substances has the EPA deemed hazardous?

A

187

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38
Q

What does the EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

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39
Q

What are some consequences of acidification?

A
  • Fish Death
  • Forest Degradation
  • Depletion of Soils
  • Plant Death
  • Contamination of Groundwater
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40
Q

What are some consequences of ozone depletion?

A
  • Increased risk of cancer and blindness
  • More UV-B
  • Reduces immune function
  • Harms algae/ phytoplankton
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41
Q

What % of water is available?

A

2.5% of water is freshwater. 69% of that is is locked in glaciers. Only 1% is available in surface/other freshwater sources

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42
Q

What is water stress?

A

The ratio of water consumption to its supply

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43
Q

What areas in Canada are enduring water stress?

A

Ontario

The Prairie Region

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44
Q

What are the three categories of water pollutants?

A
  1. Conventional Pollutants
  2. Priority Pollutants
  3. Non-conventional Pollutants
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45
Q

What are Conventional water pollutants?

A
  • Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
  • Total suspended solids
  • Fecal Coliform Bacteria
  • pH
  • Oil and grease
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46
Q

What is BOD?

A

Biochemical oxygen demand represents the amount of oxygen consumed by micro-organisms to break down organic matter

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47
Q

What is the formula for BOD measurement?

A

BOD 5 = [(D1-D2)-(B1-B2) F] /P

f = (V2-V1)/V2 P= V1/V2

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48
Q

What are Total Suspended Solids?

A

The concentration of small particles suspended in water.

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49
Q

What are some consequences of TSS?

A
  • Less light can reach the water
  • Raises water temperature which reduces dissolved oxygen
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50
Q

What is Fecal Coliform Bacteria used to do?

A

They are employed as markers for other bacteria. If fecal coliform are found, it is considered that other bacteria are also present

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51
Q

How does pH negatively impact the environment?

A

It hurts organisms and makes contaminants more mobile and easier for plants and animals to absorb

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52
Q

What are the two major oil spill incidents?

A

Exxon Valdez (1989)
- Near Alaska
- 11 million gallons of oil
- Wildlife casualties

BP Deepwater Horizon Platform (2010)
- Human and wildlife casualties
- 134 millions gallons
- clean-up still ongoing

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53
Q

How many priority pollutants has the EPA published?

A

126

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54
Q

What do priority pollutants include?

A
  • Heavy Metals
  • Volatile Hydrocarbons
  • Pesticides
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55
Q

What are some non-conventional pollutants?

A
  • Colour: Dyes
  • Salt: Snow melting
  • Thermal Pollution
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56
Q

What is Eutrophication?

A

When there is an excess in nutrients for algae. Increase in BOD but less oxygen is available.

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57
Q

What % of CO2 emissions are absorbed by the ocean?

A

26%

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58
Q

What are the two categories of land waste materials?

A
  • Hazardous wastes
  • Non-hazardous wastes
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59
Q

What are the characteristics of hazardous wastes?

A
  • Ignitability (quickly burn or produce fire)
  • Corrosivity (Erode metals)
  • Reactivity (Capacity to react violently or to explode)
  • Toxicity ( Endanger water sources and human health)
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60
Q

What are the main sources of municipal solid waste?

A

Municipal Solid Wastes (MSW)
- paper
- plastics
- food/yard wastes

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61
Q

Where did Canada send their waste until 2018?

A

China

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62
Q

What are the two levels of soil pollution?

A
  • Threshold value
  • Action value
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63
Q

What is the Threshold value?

A

The concentration of the pollutant that below which the soil is considered to be safe

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64
Q

What is the Action Value?

A

The concentration at which the risks of hazards become too high and the site must be considered as contaminated

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65
Q

What process do we use for Nuclear Energy?

A

Nuclear Fission

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66
Q

What element do we primarily use for Nuclear Energy?

A

Uranium, because it is relatively easy to split apart.

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67
Q

What two isotopes is natural uranium ore made of?

A
  1. 0.7% U235
  2. 99.3% U238
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68
Q

What is the Mass Defect?

A

The difference between the actual atomic mass and the predicted mass (calculated by adding the mass of protons, electrons and neutrons)

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69
Q

What is the Binding Energy?

A

The energy consumed when the protons and neutrons come together to overcome the force of repulsion.

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70
Q

What is the formula for the correlation between the binding energy and mass defect?

A

🔼M = (mp + mn + me) -Ma

E=MC^2

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71
Q

What classifies a radioactive element as unstable?

A

If the binding energy is insufficient to keep the nuclear together. The protons and neutrons are attempting to become stable.

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72
Q

What is the half life formula?

A

N(t) = No(1/2) ^ (t/t1/2)

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73
Q

How do you dispose of radioactive wastes?

A

There is no way other than burying it somewhere where it will not be disturbed for hundreds of thousands of years

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74
Q

What are the four parts of radioactive wastes?

A
  • High Level Wastes (spent fuels from nuclear reactors)
  • Transuranic Wastes (nuclear weapon production)
  • Low Level Wastes ( clothing worn in a power plant, protective gloves, test tubes etc)
  • Uranium Mine/Mill Tailings
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75
Q

What are the two categories of natural resources? Please describe each one

A
  1. Renewable: Renewable in short periods of time ( a human lifetime) like solar, wind or hydro .
  2. Non-renewable: Limited amounts. metals, oil, minerals, natural gas, coal, uranium etc
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76
Q

What is the difference between climate and weather?

A

Weather is the short-term variation in temperature, precipitation and wind that occurs day to day

Climate is the long term trends in these atmospheric conditions measured over decades, centuries or more.

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77
Q

What does IPCC stand for?

A

Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

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78
Q

What does the IPCC do?

A

Reviews the scientific data about climate change.

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79
Q

Which temperatures are increasing quicker? Land or oceans?

A

Land is increasing more than twice as quickly as in oceans.

80
Q

How much faster is the arctic increasing?

A

4x faster

81
Q

What are some global warming impacts?

A
  • heat waves are longer and more frequent
  • sea levels are rising
  • oceans are more acidic
  • Differences between day and night temps are decreasing
82
Q

What happens to solar radiation once it reaches the earths surface?

A

It re-radiates the energy as infrared

83
Q

Which gases are insensitive to infrared radiation?

A

Oxygen and nitrogen

84
Q

Name some greenhouse gasses that absorb infrared energy?

A

Carbon dioxide and methane

85
Q

How to greenhouse gases affect the temperature of earths surface and oceans?

A

They get warmer

86
Q

What role do GHGs play in trapping infrared radiation?

A

They keep them from escaping

87
Q

What is the relative concentration of methane compared to carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A

Methane is much lower

88
Q

How does the greenhouse effect of methane compare to that of carbon dioxide?

A

It is 28x more powerful

89
Q

List some human activities that cause GHG emissions

A
  • Combustion of fossil fuels
  • Agriculture
  • Landfilling, waste deposits
  • Industrial processes
90
Q

What units are used to express the impact of greenhouse gases relative to carbon dioxide?

A

Greenhouse gases are expressed in units of carbon dioxide equivalents (CO2e) to compare their impact relative to carbon dioxide.

91
Q

What are the differences between Fossil and Biogenic carbon?

A

Fossil Carbon:
Slow/Long cycles (> 10,000 yrs)

Biogenic Carbon:
Fast/short cycles
- 1-100 yrs (vegetation)
- 10-500 yrs (soil carbon)

92
Q

What is the formula for Mass Balance?

A

Total mass flowrate in = Total mass flowrate out + Rate of mass storage

93
Q

What is the size of one mol?

A

6.022 x10^23

94
Q

List the four Power Generation Pathways

A
  • Fossil Fuels (coal, natural gas, oil)
  • Nuclear Power
  • Renewable Energy (Solar, wind, hydro, etc)
  • Other (geothermal, tidal, waves)
95
Q

What is the temperature range to which the gases are raised in the combustion chamber?

A

Up to 1500 degrees C

96
Q

What proportion of the power produced by the turbine is typically required to drive the compressor?

A

Around two-thirds.

97
Q

What are the standard frame sizes for Gas turbines?

A

Ranging from 250 kW to 250 MW.

98
Q

What is the size range of Gas micro-turbines?

A

25 kW to 500 kW.

99
Q

What is the typical range of electrical efficiency for Gas turbines?

A

20% to 40%.

100
Q

What are the exhaust temperature ranges for the turbine?

A

450°C to 600°C

101
Q

What are the requirements for fuels used in Gas turbines?

A

Fuels must be at a high pressure and free of particulates and sulfur.

102
Q

How does the pressure ratio affect the power output of the turbine?

A

The higher the pressure ratio, the higher the power output

103
Q

How does the turbine inlet temperature (TIT) influence the power output?

A

The higher the turbine inlet temperature (TIT), the higher the power output, although special materials and extensive cooling may be required for the turbine blades.

104
Q

What is Combined Heat and Power (CHP) also known as?

A

Answer: CHP is also known as Cogeneration.

105
Q

What is the conventional energy system’s approach to generating electricity and heat?

A

Answer: The conventional energy system involves the separate generation of electricity and heat at power plants and boilers.

106
Q

What is the primary characteristic of CHP energy systems?

A

Answer: CHP systems simultaneously generate usable heat and electricity.

107
Q

What is the efficiency % of large-scale power generation plants based on natural gas turbines?

A

Answer: The efficiency is less than 40%, meaning more than 60% of the thermal energy is rejected to the atmosphere.

108
Q

How does the design of CHP systems differ from conventional power generation in terms of energy capture?

A

Answer: CHP designs aim to capture most of the thermal energy that would otherwise be rejected to the atmosphere.

109
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages to Coal Power generation?

A
110
Q

What is the conventional process based on in terms of fuel and energy production?

A

Answer: The conventional process is based on the combustion of coal to produce steam, which drives a turbine connected to a generator.

111
Q

What is the typical efficiency range of the conventional process?

A

Answer: The efficiency of the conventional process is between 30% to 40%.

112
Q

What is Petcoke?

A

Pretoleum coke is a carbon rich sold by-product obtained from the refining of crude oil

113
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of solar energy for steam generation?

A
114
Q

What are the four Solar Heating Types?

A
  1. Parabolic Solar Collector
  2. Solar Tower
  3. Parabolic dish with sterling engines
  4. Solar Chimney
115
Q

What is a parabolic Solar Collector?

A

It makes use of concave mirrors to reflect sun photons onto a tube that heats and boils fluids

116
Q

What is a Solar Tower?

A

An array of mirrors located on the surface around a boiler mounted on a tower are used to generate high-pressure steam for electricity generation

117
Q

What is a parabolic dish with Stirling Engine?

A

A parabolic dish with Stirling Engine is a type of solar power technology that consists of a large parabolic dish-shaped mirror to focus sunlight onto a receiver, where a Stirling engine converts the concentrated solar energy into mechanical power, which is then used to generate electricity.

118
Q

What is a solar chimney Power plant?

A

A solar chimney power plant is a type of renewable energy facility that generates electricity using a combination of solar heat and convection currents. It typically consists of a tall chimney surrounded by a large transparent greenhouse structure. Sunlight heats the air under the greenhouse, causing it to rise and create a pressure difference that drives air flow through the chimney. This airflow turns turbines at the base of the chimney, generating electricity.

119
Q

Describe a flat-plate collector

A

Rectangular boxes both a glass top window and darkened interior bottom surfaces. It has tubes running down the inter that contain a liquid of gas that conduct heat

120
Q

What are Evacuated-Tube collectors?

A

Evacuated glass tubes that incorporate darkened concentric tubes for liquid circulation. The vacuum helps to keep heat loss from the tubes to the surrounding air to a minimum.

121
Q

Which Canadian regions are currently noted as having the most water stress:

a. British Colombia
b. Québec
c. The Prairies
d. The Atlantic Provinces
e. Alaska
f. Ontario
g. Northern Canada

A

The Prairies and Ontario

122
Q

Land subsidence describes:

a. Land surface caving in

b. Land that has surpassed its carrying capacity

c. Soil improvement

d. Land that cannot provide food for nearby inhabitants

e. Payments from the government to make productive use of land

A

a. Land Surface Caving in

123
Q

BOD describes

a. Benthic organic disease, an infection in deep-water ocean species

b. Oxygen required for organisms to break down organic matter in water

c. Oxygen used by fish and aquatic plants

d. Oxygen dissolved in water

e. Carbon dioxide released from water and contributing to climate change

A

b. Oxygen required for organisms to break down organic matter in water

124
Q

True or False:
We have been fortunate to avoid any major oil spills until now

A

False

125
Q

True or False:
The increase of nutrients from agricultural fertilizer application (on land) is helpful for marine ecosystems by providing necessary food.

A

False

126
Q

Heavy metals are classified as a priority pollutant by the EPA

A

True

127
Q

Hazardous waste can have these properties:

a. Strong odour
b. Ignitability
c. Plasticity
d. Viscosity
e. Thixotropicity
f. Toxicity
g. Reactivity
h. Corrosivity
i. Breathability

A

Ignitability, Corrosivity, Reactivity, Toxicity

128
Q

True or False:

There are natural processes that pollute land

A

True

129
Q

How is sunlight converted into electricity in photovoltaics?

A

Sunlight is directly converted to electricity.

130
Q

What is the primary material used in the construction of photovoltaic devices?

A

The majority of photovoltaic devices are composed of silicon with trace amounts of phosphorous and boron.

131
Q

What role do semiconductors play in photovoltaic devices?

A

Semiconductors in photovoltaic devices allow electrons to flow in one direction but prevent them from flowing in the opposite direction.

132
Q

What is the typical efficiency of photovoltaic devices in converting solar energy into electricity?

A

Photovoltaic devices can convert approximately 15% of incident solar energy into electrical energy.

133
Q

True or False:
Generating new soil for agriculture is fast and easy

A

False

134
Q

A person living in North America is expected to produce this amount of waster per day in 2050 (on average)

A

2.5

135
Q

True or False:
The Love Canal is a pleasant place for a vacation

A

False

136
Q

True or False:
Increasing ocean acidity affects communication between some ocean animals

A

True

137
Q

A visual sign of eutrophication occurring is:

a.Foam

b.A metallic taste

c.Air bubbles

d.Gloss on the surface of water

e.Cows grazing nearby

f.Algae growth

g.Blue water

h.White powder on the surface of water

A

f. algae growth

138
Q

The best way to treat municipal solid waste is:

a. It is impossible to generalize, these decisions are nuanced

b. Landfill

c. Non-thermal techniques

d. Collecting landfill gas

e. Incineration

f. Using bacteria

g. Transforming it into useful chemicals

A

a. it is impossible to generalize

139
Q

Heat from an industrial process would be considered as:

a. Priority Pollution

b. Acidification

c. Air pollution

d. Criteria pollution

e. Nonconventional pollution

A

c. Air pollutant

140
Q

How much energy (in MJ) is released when there is 1 kg of mass defect? You can simplify the speed of light to be 300000000 m/s. Always check your units!

A

9x10^10 MJ

141
Q

What kinds of shifting do we try to avoid by doing LCA?

a. Shifting impacts to more costly options

b. Shifting impacts to other geographical areas

c. Shifting impacts to other people

d. Shifting impacts to other stages of the life cycle

e. Shifting impacts to other planets

f. Shifting impacts to other socio-economic groups

g. Shifting impacts to other environmental problems

A

b. Shifting impacts to other geographical areas

d. Shifting impacts to other stages of the life cycle

g. Shifting impacts to other environmental problems

142
Q

In terms of climate change impact, what is the most impactful aspect of owning a pair of Levis jeans?

a. Producing the cotton

b. Disposing of the jeans at the end of their life

c. Transportation

d. Making the jeans at the factory

e. Packaging

f. Consumer care

A

f. consumer care

143
Q

What areas does the conceptual model of LCA divide all activities on the planet into?

a. Stratosphere

b. Technosphere

c. Anthrosphere

d. Troposphere

e. Atmosphere

f. Biosphere

g. Geosphere

h. Ecosphere

A

b. technosphere
h. ecosphere

144
Q

Elementary flows include:
Question 4 Answer

a. Monetary exchanges

b. Products sent for repair

c. Emissions

d. Resources

e. Intermediate products

A

c. emissions
d. ressources

145
Q

True or False:
Most LCA studies would include thousand of unit processes

A

True

146
Q

What are unit processes?

A

Unit processes refer to individual chemical or physical operations that are part of a larger chemical engineering or industrial process.

147
Q

Intermediate flows are those that

a. are responsible for environmental impacts

b. Are produced and consumed within the technosphere

c. create emissions

d. provide resources from the environment for production

A

b. are produced and consumed within the technosphere

148
Q

The inventory phase of LCA involves

a. assessing the impacts on the environment from processes

b. defining units of measure for an LCA study

c. defining what will be covered within the study

d. quantifying all inputs and outputs from unit processes and the product system

e. assessing the impacts on humans from processes

A

d. quantifying all inputs and outputs from unit processes and the product system

149
Q

The total impact of a product on humans and the environment is quantified in which phase of the LCA, according to the ISO 14040 standard?

a. Impact Assessment

b. Interpretation

c. Goal and Scope

d. Inventory

A

a. Impact Assessment

150
Q

True or False:
Comparing two products or technologies is a good reason to carry out an LCA study

A

True

151
Q

Which of the following could be reference flows for an LCA for a flour company (that purchases grain from a farmer)?

a. Milling equipment

b. Electricity for manufacturing the machinery

c. Grain

d. Fertilizer for growing the grains

e. Electricity used by the milling equipment

f. The farm silo

g. The building where the company operates

h. The delivery truck for the machinery

A

a. milling equipment
c. grain
e. electricity used by the milling equipment
g. the building where the company operates

152
Q

Elements that can often appear when defining the functional unit are:

a. What the function of the product or service is

b. the social groups that might be impacted by the product/service

c. the product that the CEO would like to pursue

d. where the product will be used

e. whether a product is made from renewable resources

f. qualities that must be fulfilled

g. performance characteristics

h. cost of the product or service

i. how much of a product/service is being studied

j. where the product is produced

A

a. what the function of the product or service is

f. qualities that must be fulfilled

g. performance characteristics

i. how much of a product/ service is being studied

j. where the product is produced

153
Q

True or False:
The scope defines the system that is being assessed

A

True

154
Q

True or False:
The functional unit can change for different products in a comparative LCA

A

False

155
Q

True or False:
The reference flows for two products that we are comparing should be the same

A

False

156
Q

True or False:
According to the ISO standard, a comparative assertion showing benefits of one product over another must follow strict documentation requirements and have an external critical review

A

True

157
Q

What are the three questions addressed in the ‘goal’ of an LCA study?

a. Where will we carry out the study?

b. For whom is the study intended?

c. For what purpose will the results be used?

d. how will we carry out the study?

e. Why are we doing the study?

A

b. for whom is the study intended

c. for what purpose will the results be used?

e. why are we doing the study

158
Q

Which are the elementary flows?

a. CO2 canisters for sparkling water

b. Natural forest

c. Steel sheets for vehicle manufacturing

d. Cement

e. Iron ore in the ground

f. Dust from a construction site

g. direct sewage disposal to a lake

h. Wooden broom-handles

A

b. natural forest

e. iron ore in the ground

f. dust from a construction site

g. direct sewage disposal to a lake

159
Q

What is one option for meeting peak demand and storing excess electricity during off-peak periods?

A

Electricity storage

160
Q

What is the BETZ limit?

A

The BETZ limit is a theoretical maximum efficiency of a wind turbine, stating that no turbine can capture more than 59% of the kinetic energy in the wind

161
Q

How much of the global electricity is produced by Hydro?

A

16%

162
Q

Name the three classifications of Hydro Turbines

A
  • Pelton
  • Francis
  • Kaplan
163
Q

Describe a Pelton turbine

A
  • A nozzle adjusts the water direction and controls the power
  • A horizontal axis of rotation
164
Q

Describe the Francis turbine

A

 Stay vanes guide the water to the runner blades.
 Guide vanes can adjust their angle to increase the velocity
of water and control the flowrate.
 Francis turbines are vertical axis of rotation.
 Slightly higher efficiency.

165
Q

Describe the Kaplan turbine

A

 Runner blades are adjustable.
 Stay vanes and guide vanes are also used to guide the inlet water and control the flowrate
(similar to Francis turbines).
 4-6 blades are typically used.

166
Q

What are the two main factors contributing to the generation of wind?

A

Wind arises as a result of the sun’s uneven heating of the Earth and the rotation of the Earth, its surface characteristics, and gravity.

167
Q

Name three factors contributing to inconsistent heating, affecting wind patterns.

A

Factors contributing to inconsistent heating include cloud cover, surface characteristics (such as water, forest, desert), and distance from the equator.

168
Q

What happens in warmer locations due to heated air rising?

A

In warmer locations, heated air rises and is replaced by air streaming in from colder places.

169
Q

Approximately what percentage of the planet’s energy is contained in winds, relative to solar energy?

A

2%

170
Q

What happens to the energy contained in winds if not utilized?

A

If not utilized, the energy contained in winds is converted to heat.

171
Q

What is the potential power of Wind energy proportional to?

A

The cross area of the turbine blades and the cube of the wind speed.

172
Q

True or False:
Elevation above the surface results in a decrease in wind speed

A

False. It results in an increase

173
Q

What is the maximum efficiency of wind turbines?

A

Less than 60%

174
Q

What does the Life Cycle approach do?

A

It makes it possible to anticipate a potential impact shift

175
Q

What is the biggest strength go the LCA?

A

Holistic Approach

176
Q

What is the LCAs Holistic Approach?

A
  • It takes into account all economic activities associated to a product or decision.
  • Takes into account many types of environmental impacts
177
Q

What is the Technosphere?

A

All human activities (productions, consumption, processing etc…)

178
Q

What is the ecosphere?

A

The natural environment, including living organisms (biosphere), air, water, soil, and their natural resources (renewable or not)

179
Q

What is an elementary flow?

A

Elementary flows represent the basic inputs and outputs of a product or process, such as energy consumption, emissions, and resource use

180
Q

Define a Product System

A
  • Set of elementary processed comprising of flows, fulfilling one or more defined functions, which serve as a model for the life cycle of the product
  • It is an integral part of the technosphere. It mobilizes part of the activities of the technosphere. It exchanges elementary flows with the ecosphere
181
Q

Draw the conceptual model of an LCA

A
182
Q

What are the four steps of the LCA Framework?

A
  1. Goal and Scope definition of the study
  2. Life Cycle Inventory
  3. Life Cycle Impact Assessment (LCIA)
  4. Interpretation of results.
183
Q

Explain the “Goal and Scope definition of the study”

A
  • A product system is made up of a series of ‘elementary processes’
  • Intermediate Flows: Products and services. Links with other elementary processes or function under study
  • Elementary Flows: Emissions/resources exchanged directly with the environment
184
Q

What is the Life Cycle Inventory phase in the LCA Framework

A

The compilation and quantifications of inputs and outputs, for a given product system during its cycle.

185
Q

Describe the Life Cycle Impact Assessment Phase

A

Intends to understand and assess the magnitude and significance of the potential impacts of a product system

186
Q

Describe the Interpretation of results phase

A

Results of the LCA are discusses and assessed to draw conclusions, recommendations and lead to good decision making

187
Q

What are the three questions asked in the Goal of an LCA study?

A
  • Why?: The reasons for doing the study
  • For Whom?: The intended audience
    -For What Purpose?: The indented application
188
Q

List some reasons for why you would carry out an LCA study

A
  • Compare two products of technologies
  • Improve the design of a product
  • Assess the consequences of a policy on environmental impacts
  • Prove the environmental superiority of a material compared to another
189
Q

What are the three possible intended audiences for an LCA study?

A
  • Internal: Limited to certain people.
  • External (restricted) : Sent to specific audiences
  • Public: Anyone has access to it wanted
190
Q

Define the scope of an LCA study?

A

“What are we analyzing and how will we analyze it?”

191
Q

What is the function of a scope?

A
  • What is the product useful for?
  • How is it actually used by
    consumers?
  • What is the service provided?
  • Must be consistent with the goals of the study
  • Mandatory properties vs. Optional properties
192
Q

Define the functional unit

A
  • Quantified performance of a product system for use as a reference unit in a LCA
  • Also includes performance characteristics and a place and time to describe the context of the study
193
Q

What are “Final Demand Flows”

A

Intermediary flow that provides the functional unit

194
Q

What are “Reference Flows”?

A

Product flows necessary to provide the final demand flow. Expressed in Quantity of Product/Functional Unit

195
Q

What are “Key Parameters”?

A

Data used to calculate the reference flows.
Examples:
- Lifespan
- Number of re-uses possible
- Quantity of Material/Energy used
- Efficiency

196
Q

Define a “Product System”

A
  • Model of the life Cycle of a product
  • Encompass all unit processes involved of the life cycle
197
Q
A

ENGR202 (1 decks)

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