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CAE Q 2 > Engines, APU > Flashcards

Engines, APU Flashcards

1
Q

Engine starter cut-out speed is approximately:

a) 46%N2.
b) 46%N1.
c) 56%N2.
d) 56%N1.

A

c) 56%N2.

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2
Q

The EEC drives all engine indications except:

a) Oil quantity and engine vibration.
b) Oil temperature and engine vibration.
c) Fuel flow and oil pressure.
d) Fuel flow and engine vibration.

A

a) Oil quantity and engine vibration.

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3
Q

The EEC monitors engine parameters to detect impending hot starts, engine stalls,
EGT start limit exceedances, and wet starts during:
a) Ground starts only.
b) lnflight starts only.
c) Ground starts and inflight starts.
d) Ground starts only when the APU is used as the bleed air source.

A

a) Ground starts only.

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4
Q

The EEC automatically turns off the ignition and shuts off the fuel to the engine if:

a) An impending hot start is detected during ground starts.
b) The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.
c) The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or inflight starts.
d) The fuel flow exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.

A

a) An impending hot start is detected during ground starts.

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5
Q

If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shut off
fuel to the engine:
a) 10 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts.
b) 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts.
c) 15 seconds after the start switch is moved to GRD during ground starts.
d) 30 seconds after the start switch is moved to GRD during ground starts.

A

b) 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts.

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6
Q 
lf a crossbleed start is required during inflight starting, a "X-BLD" indication will be
displayed:
a) On the ENG OUT page.
b) Above the N1 dial on the CDS.
c) Above the N2 dial on the CDS.
d) On the "SYS" page of the CDS.
A

c) Above the N2 dial on the CDS.

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7
Q

Which statement about the EEC is true?
a) The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
b) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline exceedance protection for N1, N2
and EGT.
c) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline protection for N1 and N2. The
EEC does not provide EGT redline exceedance protection,
d) None of the above.

A

a) The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.

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8
Q

The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for:
a) N2 only, in both the normal and alternate mode.
b) On ground only N2 in both normal and alternate mode, in flight N1 and N2 in both the
normal and alternate mode.
c) N1 and N2, only in the normal mode.
d) N1, N2 and EGT in both the normal and alternate mode.

A

d) N1, N2 and EGT in both the normal and alternate mode.

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9
Q

When are the secondary engine indication automatically displayed?

a) In flight when an engine start lever is moved to CUTOFF.
b) In flight when an engine N1 RPM is below idle.
c) In flight when CONT is selected with the engine start switch.
d) Both A and B are correct.

A

a) In flight when an engine start lever is moved to CUTOFF.

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10
Q

.The thrust reverser can be deployed when either radio altimeter senses less than

a) 7 feet altitude.
b) 10 feet altitude.
c) 12 feet altitude.
d) 18 feet altitude.

A

b) 10 feet altitude.

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11
Q

When is an auto-relight initiated?

a) When an uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs.
b) When an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs.
c) When N2 is below idle RPM.
d) Both B & C are correct.

A

d) Both B & C are correct.

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12
Q 
Statements:
1) Starter Duty Cycle: Each start attempt has to be limited to a maximum of two
minutes.
2) Starter Duty cycle: A minimum of 1 minute is required between two start
attempts.
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) No statement is correct.
A

a) Only statement 1 is correct.

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13
Q

When during an aborted engine start the engine has to be motored but there was
already a starter cut-out, the following procedure has to be followed: (QRH)
a) Re-engage engine start switch immediately.
b) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is below 56%.
c) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is below 20%.
d) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is indicating 0%.

A

c) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is below 20%.

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14
Q

.Engine oil pressure is in the amber band when take-off thrust is set. Which of the
following is true?
a) Acceptable, no action required.
b) Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature.
c) Permitted only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting.
d) DO NOT TAKE-OFF

A

d) DO NOT TAKE-OFF

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15
Q
  1. Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in:
    a) T/O position.
    b) Continuous thrust position.
    c) Idle thrust position.
    d) Any forward thrust position.
A

c) Idle thrust position.

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16
Q

What indicates engine starter disconnect?
a) The LOW OIL PRESSURE light extinguishes with N1 at 56% RPM.
b) The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at N2 56% RPM and the START VALVE
OPEN alert extinguishes.
c) The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at 36%
d) The start switch rotates to FLT, N1 17-20% with N2 stabilized.

A

The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at N2 56% RPM and the START VALVE
OPEN alert extinguishes.

17
Q

Which hydraulic system normally operates the thrust reversers?

a) System A.
b) System B.
c) System A for engine #1, System B for engine #2.
d) Standby system.

A

c) System A for engine #1, System B for engine #2.

18
Q

Prior to normal engine start:
a) Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start
switch to GND.
b) Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the
engine start switch to GND.
c) The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15%
N2.
d) Only digital readouts are visible for engine indications.

A

Only N1, N2, oil quantity and

19
Q

The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
a) The airplane descents below 15.000 ft MSL.
b) Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are in CONT or FLT.
c) Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for
either engine.
d) Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.

A

d) Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.

20
Q

What is the electrical power source for the APU starter motor?

a) Always the battery.
b) The battery or AC power from transfer bus 1.
c) Always AC power.
d) None of the above.

A

b) The battery or AC power from transfer bus 1.

21
Q

The APU can supply both transfer busses:

a) On the ground or in flight.
b) On the ground only.
c) In flight only.
d) Only on ground or in flight below 17.000 feet.

A

a) On the ground or in flight.

22
Q

Up to which altitude may the APU be operated?

a) 10.000 ft.
b) 17.000 ft
c) 37.000 ft.
d) 41.000 ft.

A

d) 41.000 ft.

23
Q

Condition: APU running.
When either the FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or the OVERSPEED light
illuminates, the APU will automatically shutdown.
The FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or OVERSPEED light will extinguish:
a) When the APU switch is positioned to OFF.
b) 5 minutes after the APU switch has been positioned to OFF.
c) When the air inlet door has closed completely
d) Immediately after the automatic shutdown.

A

b) 5 minutes after the APU switch has been positioned to OFF.

24
Q 
When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying
bleed air, the APU will shutdown after:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 90 seconds.
d) 120 seconds.
A

b) 60 seconds.

25
Q

The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:

a) 10 000 feet
b) 17 000 feet
c) 25 000 feet
d) 30 000 feet

A

a) 10 000 feet

26
Q

The APU start cycle may take up to…

a) 60 seconds
b) 120 seconds
c) 135 seconds
d) 3 minutes

A

b) 120 seconds

27
Q

The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate…
a) When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus
b) Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1
c) Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2
d) Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer
bus.

A

a) When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus

28
Q

The APU will shutdown on the ground if…

a) The battery switch is placed to OFF.
b) A low oil pressure has been detected.
c) An APU fire is detected.
d) All of the above are correct.

A

d) All of the above are correct.

29
Q 
9.Which of the 4 lights located on the APU control panel illuminating, will not cause
an automatic shutdown of the APU?
a) LOW OIL PRESSURE.
b) MAINT.
c) FAULT.
d) OVERSPEED.
A

b) MAINT.

30
Q

The APU will shutdown in flight when:

a) The battery switch is selected to OFF.
b) The MAINT light illuminates.
c) The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the right main tank illuminate.
d) Immediately after moving the APU switch to OFF.

A

a) The battery switch is selected to OFF.

31
Q

.The APU can operate and supply electrical power up to:

a) 17.000 ft.
b) 35.000 ft.
c) 37.000 ft.
d) 41.000 ft.

A

d) 41.000 ft.

32
Q

The APU supplies bleed air for both air conditioning packs:

a) On the ground only.
b) In the air only.
c) On the ground and in the air.
d) Never.

A

a) On the ground only.

33
Q

.APU cooling air:

a) Enters through the air inlet door.
b) Enters through the ram air system.
c) Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet.
d) Is supplied by the air conditioning packs.

A

c) Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet.

34
Q
  1. If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
    a) The FAULT light illuminates.
    b) The MAINT light illuminates.
    c) The APU failed a self-test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate.
    d) There is no light associated with this malfunction
A

a) The FAULT light illuminates.

35
Q

5.The APU electronic unit (ECU) provides:
a) Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil
temperature.
b) Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT
exceedance.
c) Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit.
d) All of the above are correct.

A

d) All of the above are correct.

36
Q

If the APU is the only source of electrical power:

a) In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed.
b) In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load
c) In the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
d) In the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.

A

a) In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed.

CAE Q 2 (15 decks)

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