Engineering Management Flashcards
1
Q
Management is ___________.
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science
A
an art
Management combines both theoretical and practical approaches.
2
Q
Engineering is _________.
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science
A
a science
Effective career planning is crucial for engineers to advance in their careers.
3
Q
Engineers can become good managers only through _____________.
A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Training
A
Effective career planning
Planning is essential for effective management.
4
Q
What management function refers to anticipating problems and determining actions to achieve desired outcomes?
A
Organizing.
Organizing involves structuring resources effectively.
5
Q
What refers to establishing interrelationships between people and things to focus resources on achieving company goals?
A
Staffing.
Staffing is key to aligning human resources with organizational objectives.
6
Q
What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
A
Directing.
Directing ensures that personnel are guided towards achieving organizational goals.
7
Q
What management function involves orienting personnel effectively and channeling resources?
A
Leading.
Leading is critical for motivating teams and ensuring alignment with objectives.
8
Q
Actual performance is compared to the original plan in which management function?
A
Controlling.
Controlling involves monitoring and correcting performance to stay on track.
9
Q
What refers to the management function that encourages others to follow by example?
A
Motivating.
Motivating is essential for fostering commitment and enthusiasm in the workplace.
10
Q
What principal function of lower management instills commitment and enthusiasm for organizational goals?
A
Project Management.
Project management focuses on achieving specific objectives through coordinated efforts.
11
Q
What refers to the tools and techniques used to produce predefined outputs from a set of inputs?
A
Research and Development.
R&D is crucial for innovation and product development.
12
Q
Which is NOT an element of the project management process?
A
Leadership.
Leadership is a skill but not a formal element in project management processes.
13
Q
What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A
Life Cycle Model.
Understanding the project life cycle is critical for effective project management.
14
Q
What provides a simple means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage?
A
Research and Development.
R&D frameworks help track project progress and manage changes.
15
Q
In project management, what does ‘R & D’ stand for?
A
Research and Development.
This term is commonly used to refer to innovation processes.
16
Q
In project management, ‘O & M’ stands for:
A
Operation and Maintenance.
O&M is essential for ensuring the sustainability of projects post-implementation.
17
Q
Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
A
Quality Feature.
Quality features are integral to project success and stakeholder satisfaction.
18
Q
Project quality management involves all processes except:
A
Management Information System.
MIS is a tool used but not a direct process of quality management.
19
Q
What is defined as an organized method of providing information for decision making?
A
Intermediate Planning.
Intermediate planning helps bridge short-term actions with long-term goals.
20
Q
Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
A
Top Management Level.
Middle management translates strategic goals into operational plans.
21
Q
Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
A
Top Management Level.
Top management is responsible for setting the overall direction of the organization.
22
Q
What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
A
Little managerial control and high degree of risk.
This leadership style empowers employees but can lead to ambiguity.
23
Q
What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently?
A
Operations Management.
Operations management focuses on optimizing resources and processes.
24
Q
For a project manager to achieve goals through others, he must have good __________.
A
Interpersonal skills.
Interpersonal skills are critical for effective communication and team dynamics.
25
What type of conflict do managers encounter with disagreements on power or hidden agendas?
Departmentalization.
## Footnote
Conflicts often arise from differing departmental goals and objectives.
26
The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as __________.
Departmentalization.
## Footnote
Departmentalization enhances focus on specific functions or projects.
27
By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
All of the above.
## Footnote
Decentralization can lead to increased autonomy and responsiveness.
28
What type of committee is created for a short-term purpose only?
Ad hoc committee.
## Footnote
Ad hoc committees are formed to address specific issues or projects.
29
What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
Effectiveness.
## Footnote
Effectiveness measures how well goals are achieved.
30
An engineer is said to be __________ if he finishes a job within the required period.
Efficient.
## Footnote
Efficiency is about completing tasks in a timely manner with optimal resource use.
31
If an engineer provides less input yet achieves the same output, he is said to be more __________.
Efficient.
## Footnote
Efficiency is indicated by maximizing outputs while minimizing inputs.
32
To determine a qualified applicant, an engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that measures current knowledge. What is this test?
Performance test.
## Footnote
Performance tests evaluate the competency of applicants in specific areas.
33
What type of training combines on-the-job training with classroom instruction?
Apprenticeship program.
## Footnote
Apprenticeship programs are effective for hands-on learning.
34
What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower-level personnel?
Functional authority.
## Footnote
Functional authority allows specialists to direct work across different departments.
35
When a consultant gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
Staff authority.
## Footnote
Staff authority involves providing expertise and guidance.
36
When structuring an organization, determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job refers to __________.
Division of labor.
## Footnote
Division of labor enhances specialization and efficiency.
37
When structuring an organization, grouping related jobs into major subunits refers to:
Departmentation.
## Footnote
Departmentation helps organize tasks and improve workflow.
38
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternatives using qualitative evaluation?
Intuition and subjective judgment.
## Footnote
Qualitative evaluations often rely on personal insights and experience.
39
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternatives using quantitative evaluation?
Rational and analytical techniques.
## Footnote
Quantitative evaluations depend on data analysis and metrics.
40
What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists?
Corporate mission.
## Footnote
A corporate mission defines the organization's purpose and values.
41
What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work toward objectives?
Power.
## Footnote
Power dynamics play a crucial role in leadership effectiveness.
42
What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize customer waiting time?
Queuing theory.
## Footnote
Queuing theory is vital for optimizing service delivery.
43
What refers to the rational way to analyze and solve problems with limited information?
Decision theory.
## Footnote
Decision theory provides frameworks for making informed choices.
44
What is a quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined?
Sampling theory.
## Footnote
Sampling theory is widely used in research and quality control.
45
What refers to the needs of employees for food, drinks, and rest?
Physiological need.
## Footnote
Addressing physiological needs is foundational to employee well-being.
46
What refers to the learning provided to improve performance on the present job?
Training.
## Footnote
Training enhances employee skills and productivity.
47
What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of standard activities?
Benchmark job technique.
## Footnote
Benchmarking helps establish performance standards.
48
What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area?
Functional organization.
## Footnote
Functional organizations focus on expertise and efficiency.
49
What type of organization structure assigns each project to a single unit with various functions performed within the unit?
Product organization.
## Footnote
Product organizations streamline project management by centralizing functions.
50
What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
Matrix organization.
## Footnote
Matrix organizations enhance flexibility and resource allocation.
51
What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
Matrix organization
## Footnote
Matrix organizations facilitate flexible resource allocation and collaboration across different departments.
52
In which type of organization can the structure lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
Matrix organization
## Footnote
This phenomenon arises due to the dual reporting lines in a matrix structure.
53
Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
A. Rapid reaction organization
## Footnote
Matrix organizations allow for quicker responses to changing project needs.
54
Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
A. Dual accountability of personnel
## Footnote
This can create confusion and conflict between project and functional managers.
55
Which one is an advantage of a projectized organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
## Footnote
Projectized organizations focus resources on specific projects, enhancing efficiency.
56
Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
## Footnote
Employees may feel uncertain about their job stability after project completion.
57
Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
## Footnote
Functional organizations often provide clear career paths within departments.
58
Which one is a disadvantage of a functional organization?
A. Weak customer interface
## Footnote
Functional structures may lack focus on customer needs compared to projectized structures.
59
In what type of organization is a project manager held responsible for project completion and often assigned a budget?
Matrix organization
## Footnote
This structure allows project managers to manage resources effectively.
60
In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
C. Location
## Footnote
Organizational structure is typically determined by factors like finance, customers, and technology.
61
What is NOT a factor to be considered when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
C. Location of the project
## Footnote
While location can impact logistics, it doesn't dictate organizational structure.
62
If a project has multidimensional goals, the project manager often uses his __________ to reach a compromise solution.
Tradeoff analysis skill
## Footnote
This skill helps balance competing project demands.
63
Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance, and stakeholder satisfaction?
Project manager
## Footnote
The project manager oversees all aspects of project execution.
64
Who is responsible for running a department so that all customers are served efficiently and effectively?
Functional manager
## Footnote
Functional managers focus on departmental operations and customer service.
65
What is the major activity of the project support office?
Administrative support for projects
## Footnote
This includes providing resources and assistance to project teams.
66
What is the major activity of the project office?
Overall project management support
## Footnote
This role encompasses coordinating project activities and resources.
67
What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
Linear responsibility chart
## Footnote
This chart clarifies roles and responsibilities within a project.
68
What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element?
D. All of the above
## Footnote
Both linear responsibility charts and matrix responsibility charts serve to clarify stakeholder roles.
69
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
Critical path method
## Footnote
This method identifies the longest path of tasks in a project, determining the shortest possible project duration.
70
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control projects by employing three time estimates for each activity?
Program evaluation review technique
## Footnote
PERT accounts for uncertainty in project scheduling by using optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely time estimates.
71
What does CPM stand for?
Critical path method
## Footnote
CPM is essential for effective project scheduling and management.
72
The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
1957
## Footnote
This year marks a significant advancement in project management methodologies.
73
In what year was PERT developed?
1958
## Footnote
PERT was developed shortly after CPM to assist with complex project scheduling.
74
In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?
4
## Footnote
These stages typically include feasibility, design, implementation, and evaluation.
75
What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
Feasibility
## Footnote
This stage assesses whether the project is viable and worth pursuing.
76
Risk management is:
Controlling Risk
## Footnote
Effective risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.
77
What technique must a manager use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
## Footnote
This helps to accommodate unforeseen issues without impacting project outcomes.
78
Buying insurance is a form of:
Risk Sharing
## Footnote
Insurance helps distribute risk among multiple parties.
79
What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
Risk Management
## Footnote
This includes proactive measures to manage potential risks.
80
What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs, and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
Risk-benefit Analysis
## Footnote
This analysis aids in making informed project decisions.
81
What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager?
Authority
## Footnote
Authority levels dictate how much discretion a manager has in resource allocation.
82
What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?
Strategy
## Footnote
A well-defined strategy guides organizational decision-making.
83
When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge:
Has inadequate control
## Footnote
Effective control mechanisms are essential for maintaining service quality.
84
What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand?
Tolerance
## Footnote
Tolerance levels can significantly impact decision-making processes.
85
One of the mnemonic management tools used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stand for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
## Footnote
This framework aids in structured planning and execution.
86
In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which appropriate question will the manager ask?
What do we need to get it done?
## Footnote
This question ensures necessary resources are identified.
87
In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project?
Identify a need for a product or service
## Footnote
Understanding needs is crucial for project initiation.
88
In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
## Footnote
Clear goals guide project planning and execution.
89
What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
Monitor and control the project
## Footnote
This step ensures the project stays on track and meets its objectives.
90
To consider the consequence of uncertainty on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is 'A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than expected'.
Three
## Footnote
This adage emphasizes the importance of thorough planning.
91
In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.
General Manager
## Footnote
This reflects the organizational structure where the general manager oversees various departments.
92
What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?
Organization Chart
## Footnote
Organization charts visually represent the hierarchy and reporting structure.
93
What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
Decision-making
## Footnote
Effective decision-making is critical for successful project outcomes.
94
What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know-how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment, and all other resources including money?
Engineering Management
## Footnote
This discipline combines technical expertise with managerial skills.
95
Which of the following is NOT a function of an engineer? A. Testing B. Construction C. Sales D. Physical Education
D. Physical Education
96
What is the function of an engineer that involves learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories?
Research
97
What function involves turning a product concept into a finished physical term?
Design and Development
98
What function involves testing new products or parts for workability?
Testing
99
What function involves overseeing production personnel or assuming responsibility for the product?
Manufacturing
100
What function involves being in charge of construction personnel or ensuring the quality of the construction process?
Construction
101
What function assists customers in meeting their technical needs?
Sales
102
What function involves working as a consultant for individuals or organizations requiring engineering services?
Consulting
103
What function may involve employment in government for regulatory tasks?
Government
104
What function involves teaching engineering courses in a school?
Teaching
105
What function involves managing groups of people performing specific tasks?
Management
106
What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action?
Decision Making
107
What is the first step in the decision-making process?
Diagnose problem
108
What is the last step in the decision-making process?
Evaluate and adapt decision results
109
What refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment?
Qualitative evaluation
110
What refers to evaluation of alternatives using rational and analytical techniques?
Quantitative evaluation
111
What refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends?
Planning
112
What refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization?
Strategic planning
113
What type of planning is involved with contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources?
Intermediate Planning
114
What type of planning is responsible for determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished?
Operational Planning
115
What is a written document for implementing and controlling marketing activities?
Marketing Plan
116
What is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce?
Production Plan
117
What summarizes the current financial situation of a firm and recommends a direction for financial activities?
Financial Plan
118
What indicates the human resource needs of a company based on strategic plan requirements?
Human Resource Management Plan
119
Plans intended to cover a period of less than one year are called what?
Short-range plans
120
Plans covering a time span of more than one year are referred to as what?
Long-range plans
121
Plans that are used repeatedly and focus on recurring managerial situations are called what?
Standing Plans
122
What are broad guidelines to aid managers in decision making about recurring situations?
Policies
123
What describes the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation?
Procedures
124
What are statements that require or forbid a certain action?
Rules
125
What is specifically developed to implement unique courses of action that are unlikely to be repeated?
Single-Use Plans
126
What sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity?
Budget
127
What is designed to coordinate a large set of activities?
Program
128
What is usually more limited in scope than a program and supports a program?
Project
129
What refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives efficiently?
Organizing
130
What is the arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization?
Structure
131
What is a form of departmentalization where everyone engaged in one functional activity is grouped?
Functional Organization
132
What type of organization is effective in similar firms where key activities revolve around specialization?
Functional Organization
133
What refers to the organization by a division that brings together all involved with a certain type of product?
Product or Market Organization
134
What is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries?
Product or Market Organization
135
What is an organizational structure where each employee reports to both a functional and project manager?
Matrix Organization
136
What refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do?
Line authority
137
What is a staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior?
Staff authority
138
What is a specialist’s right to oversee lower-level personnel in that specialty?
Functional authority
139
What is a committee created for a short-term purpose?
Ad hoc committee
140
What is a permanent committee that deals with ongoing issues?
Standing committee
141
What is defined as the management function that determines human resource needs?
Staffing
142
What refers to an assessment of future human resource needs in relation to current capabilities?
Forecasting
143
What refers to the translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives?
Programming
144
What refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success?
Evaluation and Control
145
What refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions?
Recruitment
146
What refers to the process of selecting the best-suited candidates for the company?
Selection
147
What refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success?
Recruitment
## Footnote
Recruitment involves attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company.
148
What is the process of selecting individuals most likely to succeed on the job called?
Selection
## Footnote
Selection involves choosing from those available candidates who best fit the job requirements.
149
What staffing procedure provides new employees with necessary information about the company?
Induction and Orientation
## Footnote
This process introduces new hires to their immediate working environment and co-workers.
150
What refers to the learning provided to improve performance on the present job?
Training and Development
## Footnote
It focuses on enhancing the skills of employees for their current roles.
151
What is the term for a movement into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities?
Promotion
## Footnote
Promotions are often rewards for competence and ambition.
152
What is the term for the movement of a person to a different job at the same level of responsibility?
Transfer
## Footnote
Transfers often occur due to organizational needs or employee requests.
153
What describes the movement from one position to another with less pay or responsibility?
Demotion
## Footnote
Demotion can serve as a form of punishment or a temporary measure.
154
What refers to the voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee?
Separation
## Footnote
Separation can happen due to various reasons including resignation or layoffs.
155
What is the process of sharing information through symbols, including words and messages?
Communication
## Footnote
Communication is essential for effective collaboration within organizations.
156
What function of communication can be used for decision-making at various work levels?
Information Function
## Footnote
This function supports informed decision-making across different organizational levels.
157
What type of communication function is used to motivate employees to commit to organizational objectives?
Motivation Function
## Footnote
It plays a crucial role in aligning employee efforts with company goals.
158
What function of communication deals with feelings and can affect employee performance?
Emotive Function
## Footnote
This function addresses emotional aspects that influence workplace dynamics.
159
What form of communication is transmitted through hearing or sight?
Verbal
## Footnote
Verbal communication includes spoken and written forms.
160
What type of communication conveys messages through body language and other nonverbal cues?
Nonverbal
## Footnote
Nonverbal communication encompasses gestures, facial expressions, and physical presence.
161
What is defined as the process of activating behavior and directing it toward a goal?
Motivation
## Footnote
Motivation involves initiating and sustaining actions towards desired outcomes.
162
Fill in the blank: The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except: _______.
Gagarin’s Theory
## Footnote
Gagarin’s Theory is not recognized as a motivational factor.
163
Fill in the blank: The following are considered theories of Motivation except: _______.
Leading
## Footnote
Leading is a management function, not a theory of motivation.
164
What management function involves influencing others to engage in necessary work behaviors?
Leading
## Footnote
Leading is essential for achieving organizational goals.
165
What type of power is held by a person occupying a higher position over others?
Legitimate power
## Footnote
Legitimate power derives from the formal authority of a position.
166
What is the term for a person who can give rewards to followers?
Reward power
## Footnote
Reward power is based on the ability to provide benefits or incentives.
167
What type of power involves compelling compliance through threats or punishment?
Coercive power
## Footnote
Coercive power relies on fear to influence behavior.
168
What type of power allows a person to gain compliance because others want to be identified with them?
Referent power
## Footnote
Referent power is based on personal traits that inspire admiration.
169
Fill in the blank: Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader: _______.
Greedy
## Footnote
Greed is generally seen as a negative trait in leadership.
170
What process involves ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved?
Inspection
## Footnote
Inspection is key for evaluating performance against goals.
171
What type of control anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence?
Feed forward control
## Footnote
Feed forward control is proactive in nature.
172
What type of control is applied when operations are ongoing to detect variances?
Concurrent control
## Footnote
Concurrent control allows for real-time adjustments.
173
What type of control gathers information about completed activities for evaluation?
Feedback control
## Footnote
Feedback control helps in learning from past actions.
174
What refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change them in useful ways?
Operation
## Footnote
Operations can include manufacturing, services, and other processes.
175
What is the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives?
Operations management
## Footnote
Operations management focuses on efficiency and effectiveness.
176
What process involves creating a set of product specifications for a given situation?
Product Design
## Footnote
Product design aligns offerings with market demands.
177
What refers to forecasting future sales and arranging for production facilities?
Product planning
## Footnote
Product planning ensures that production meets market needs.
178
What phase of production control develops timetables for operations?
Scheduling
## Footnote
Scheduling is crucial for managing production timelines.
179
What refers to integrating all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities?
Purchasing and Materials Management
## Footnote
This approach seeks operational efficiency.
180
What is the process of establishing and maintaining reserve stocks of goods?
Inventory Control
## Footnote
Inventory control is vital for managing supply levels.
181
What process determines the physical arrangement of the production system?
Work-Flow Layout
## Footnote
Work-flow layout affects efficiency in operations.
182
What refers to measuring products or services against company standards?
Quality Control
## Footnote
Quality control ensures that offerings meet required specifications.
183
What group of activities is designed to facilitate the selling of goods and services?
Marketing
## Footnote
Marketing encompasses strategies to reach target customers.
184
Fill in the blank: The four P’s of marketing are the following except: _______.
Publicity
## Footnote
The four P's include Product, Price, Place, and Promotion.
185
What includes the tangible or intangible item and its capacity to satisfy a need?
Product
## Footnote
Products can be physical goods or services.
186
What refers to the money exchanged for the purchase of a product?
Price
## Footnote
Price is a critical factor in marketing and sales strategies.
187
What is an important factor for a company to locate in places where customers can easily reach them?
Place
## Footnote
Place relates to the distribution channels used to deliver products.
188
What is defined as communicating information between seller and buyer to influence behavior?
Promotion
## Footnote
Promotion aims to create awareness and encourage purchases.
189
What type of promotion involves a paid message in mass media?
Advertising
## Footnote
Advertising is intended to inform or persuade consumers.
190
What promotional tool publishes news or information about a product but is not paid for by the sponsor?
Publicity
## Footnote
Publicity can generate free media coverage for products.
191
What is a more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product?
Personal selling
## Footnote
Personal selling involves direct interaction with potential customers.
