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Engineer study > Engineer study > Flashcards

Engineer study Flashcards

1
Q

Never over-drive the engine when…

A

Going downhill

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2
Q

Never go down a hill in a higher gear than it takes to…

A

go up it.

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3
Q

Lights and sirens are mandatory when…

A

taking oncoming traffic

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4
Q

A true Emergency:

A

A situation where there is ahigh probability of death or serious injury to an individual, or significant property loss, and action by an emergency vehicle operator may reduce the seriousness of the situation.

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5
Q

Things to do once all attack and supply lines are in place:

A

Set up RIC bag, spare bottles, tools, decon line, ladders, vent kit, medical kit, scene lights

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6
Q

Turn off ________ when conditions are slippery or icy

A

Jake brake

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7
Q

Wheels need to be _______ to retain control over steering

A

spinning

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8
Q

It can take ____________ times more distance to stop in rainy wet conditions

A

3-15

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9
Q

Do not exceed __________ with chains on

A

35 mph

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10
Q

Hook of Chain goes on ____________ of tire while the locking hasp goes on the _____________ of the tire.

A

inside, outside

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11
Q

A pumpers’ primary function on the fireground is to

A

provide water directly for fire streams, to support other pumpers, and/or to support aerial apparatus.

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12
Q

When positioning for Fire Attack, stay to

A

One side of the street, hydrant side if possible

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13
Q

Pulling past the objective allows

A

a 3-sided view, leaves room for truck in front, and rear hose lays are easily deployed

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14
Q

Consider the apparatus itself as an

A

exposure (collapse zone, falling debris, radiant heat, etc. )

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15
Q

At Large structures:

A

park near access points, consider multiple access points, and
Do NOT place gated-wyes inside structures

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16
Q

Collapse zone is __________ times the height of the building

A

1 1/2 (corners are ideal, especially for ladder trucks)

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17
Q

Park inside of pumper if __________ stories or less. Park outside of pumper if more than ____ stories

A

5

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18
Q

Establish water supply _______ supplying the FDC

A

before

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19
Q

Standpipes are within ___ feet of structure to reduce friction loss

A

100 (connect to all ports when possible)

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20
Q

Dual Pumping

A

Pumper intake to pumper intake, one strong hydrant used to supply two or more pumpers, pumpers in close proximity

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21
Q

Tandem Pumping

A

Form of relay pumping, used when pressures higher than a single engine is capable of supplying are required (high rise).

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22
Q

Approach Hazmat incidents from _______ and ___________

A

Upwind and uphill

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23
Q

Park on ____________ of rail road tracks to avoid crossing tracks, hoselines, equipment, etc.

A

same side

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24
Q

Level 1 Staging

A

Position one lock away from scene, in the direction of travel, on a water source ( do not pass last hydrant), await instructions from IC, multiple units can be level 1 staged in different locations

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25
Q

Level 2 staging

A

specific staging area designated by IC/Dispatch, First CO becomes staging area manager, could be several blocks away

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26
Q

Lane Terminology

A

Lane 1= onramp lane/slow lane (outside lane)
Lane 2= one lane to the left of lane 1
Lane 3= one lane to the left of lane 2 (inside lane)

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27
Q

Downstream

A

traffic moving AWAY from incident

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28
Q

Upstream

A

Traffic coming TOWARD incident

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29
Q

Blocking

A

If possible, park at a 45 degree angle away from incident with wheels turned away from accident

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30
Q

Buffer Zone

A

Use a “Lane Plus One” concept for blocking traffic. The plus one is your buffer zone as well as the area in front of the apparatus.

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31
Q

Do not shift _____

A

Going downhill. INsteadh, shift prior to the hill.

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32
Q

Freeman’s Formula

A

GPM=29.7 x d^2 x square root of NP

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33
Q

Standard PDP for sprinkler systems

A

150 psi

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34
Q

For every 1 foot increase in elevation, how much PSI is gained?

A

.434 PSI

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35
Q

Maximum lift (lift water at draft)

A

2/3 of theoretical lift, or between 22 and 25 feet

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36
Q

Maximum dependable flow

A

75% of the total capacity of an engine.

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37
Q

NFF (Needed fire flow)

A

amount of water needed to control the fire within 1 minute

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38
Q

PDP=

A

PDP= NP + FL +-EP +AFL

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39
Q

Reasonable Efficiency, percentage of water that is actually converted to steam when applied to fire. What is acceptable percentage?

A

80

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40
Q

Relay Pumping

A

Using two or more pumpers to move water over a long distance by operating them in series.

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41
Q

Dual Pumping

A

Operation where a strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers by connecting the pumpers intake to intake.

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42
Q

Static pressure

A

the stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters while water is at rest.

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43
Q

Tandem pumping

A

short relay operation in which the pumper connected to the water source pumps into the intake of the second pumper. Second pumper then boosts the pressure of the water even higher.

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44
Q

Theoretical lift at sea level is

A

33.9 feet

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45
Q

Volute

A

consists of the casing that receives the fluid being pumped by the impeller. It is a curved funnel, within a centrifugal pump, that increases in area as it approaches the discharge port.

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46
Q

Doubling the water velocity through the hose will…

A

quadruple the friction loss

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47
Q

One gallon of water weighs

A

8.34

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48
Q

atmospheric pressure of water at sea level is

A

14.7 PSI

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49
Q

Parallel hose lines reduce friction loss by

A

0.75

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50
Q

1 gallon will expand to

A

227 ft. of steam

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51
Q

Principle 1 of water pressure

A

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts

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52
Q

Principle 2 of water pressure

A

When a fluid is at rest, fluid pressure is the same in all directions

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53
Q

Principle 3 of water pressure

A

When there is an increase in pressure at any point in a confined fluid there is equal increase at every other point in the container. (Known as Pascal’s Law)

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54
Q

Principle 4 of water pressure

A

the downward pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth

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55
Q

Principle 5 of water pressure

A

the downward pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid

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56
Q

Principle 6 of water pressure

A

The downward pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is not affected by the shape of the container.

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57
Q

7 types of pressure

A

Hear-fnos: head, elevation, atmospheric, residual, flow, normal operating, static

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58
Q

Max theoretical lift of water (perfect vacuum in a pump at sea level with an atmospheric pressure of 14.7 PSI)

A

33.9 feet

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59
Q

Pumpers in good condition can lift water ________, but dependable lift is generally considered ____________

A

22-25 feet; 14.7 feet

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60
Q

Head pressure

A

Refers to height of a water supply above the discharge opening. To convert head in feet to head pressure, you must divide the number of feet by 2.304

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61
Q

Formula for volume of a given length of hose

A

Volume = .7854 x D2 x L x 12

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62
Q

Number of gallons in a cubic foot

A

7.48

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63
Q

To translate volume from cubic feet into gallons you

A

multiply volume by 7.48 (number of gallons in a cubic foot

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64
Q

Formula for finding gallon capacity in a hoseline

A

Gallon capacity = V (Volume) / 231 (number of cubic inches in a gallon)

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65
Q

Weight of 1 cubic foot of water

A

62.4 lbs

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66
Q

PDP =

A

NP + FL +- EP + AFL or NP + TPL (total pressure loss: FL +- EP + AFL

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67
Q

Maximum amount of water that is considered safe to flow through a handline?

A

350 GPM

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68
Q

Solid bore nozzle pressures for handline and master stream

A

50 PSI and 80 PSI

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69
Q

Freeman’s formula

A

GPM = 29.7 x D2 x square root of NP (nozzle pressure)

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70
Q

Square root of 50 PSI (handline smoothbore)

A

7

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71
Q

Square root of 80 PSI (master stream smooth bore)

A

9

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72
Q

Automatic nozzle is also known as

A

pressure regulating or a constant pressure nozzle, keeps PSI at nozzle the same regardless of volume from pump

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73
Q

constant flow fog nozzle

A

flow a specific volume of water in all fog patterns at a specific discharge pressure

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74
Q

adjustable gallonage fog nozzles

A

allow the firefighter operating the handline to select the flow rate to suit the operating conditions

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75
Q

Master stream nozzles (fog)

A

rated at 100 PSI with a rated flow of 1000 GPM and are constant flow nozzles

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76
Q

greatest horizontal reach is at what degree

A

32 degrees

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77
Q

Friction Loss Principles (4)

A

-Double the length of the hose = Double the friction loss
-As a rule: double the velocity = quadruple the friction loss ( 2 squared)
- At a given GPM, the smaller the diameter the hose = greater friction loss, the larger the diameter of hose = less fiction loss
- friction loss is caused by the speed of the water – not the pressure

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78
Q

FL in 100’ if 2 1/2 hose with 1 1/8 smooth bore tip @ 265 GPM

A

14 PSI

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79
Q

FL in 100’ of 1 3/4 with 75 PSI fog nozzle @ 150 GPM

A

22.5

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80
Q

FL in 100’ of 2 1/2 hose with 75 PSI fog nozzle at 300 GPM

A

18

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81
Q

For flow under 350 GPM, how much AFL do we add?

A

10 PSI FL for standpipe
50 PSI FL for foam eductor

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82
Q

For flow over 350 GPM, how much AFL do we add?

A

10 PSI FL for appliances (wyes, siamese, and manifolds)
25 PSI FL for master streams (ladder pipes, deck guns, and ground monitors)
25 PSI FL for standpipe systems

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83
Q

3 Types of standpipes

A

Class 1: 2 1/2 outlets for firefighting
Class 2: 1 1/2 inch hose outlets for occupant use
Class 3: combination standpipe, integrates class 1 and 2 into one system

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84
Q

NFF (needed fire flow)

A

L x W x % of area involved / 3

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85
Q

Dependable lift

A

a standard of minimum lift that every fire pump in good repair should attain. This is generally considered to be at least 14.7 feet.

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86
Q

Foam % for initial attack

A

0.5

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87
Q

Foam % for overhaul

A

0.2

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88
Q

Foam % for defensive coatings for exposure protection

A

1

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89
Q

Foam % for wildland

A

0.1-0.2

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90
Q

NFPA11 standard time of application for low expansion foam?

A

15 minutes

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91
Q

hydrocarbons

A

flammable liquids that float on and will not mix with water

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92
Q

Polar solvents

A

flammable liquids that are water miscible or will mix with water

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93
Q

2 types of flammable liquids

A

Hydrocarbons and polar solvents

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94
Q

Novacool is known as the

A

Universal extinguishing agent (can be used on class A, B, D, K, and 3D fires

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95
Q

Novacool % on fire attack

A

0.4

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96
Q

Novacool % on overhaul and brush fire

A

0.1

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97
Q

TTCZ

A

Temporary Traffic Control Zone (Includes taper and advanced warning area, the work area and the termination zone)

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98
Q

LAR

A

Limited access roadways (interstates, freeways, highways etc.)

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99
Q

PSRFA Engineer Competencies

A

1) Arithmetic
2) Mathematics and Hydraulics
3) Acquiring and Interpreting Information
4) Applies and Maintains apparatus, tools, technology and equipment
5) Decision Making/Reasoning
6) Effective Communication
7) Integrity, honesty and ethics
8) Problem Solving
9) Responsibility and Commitment
10) Safety
11) Self-management
12) Teamwork (participation)

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100
Q

Automative apparatus operational rules

A

WAC 296-305-04505

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101
Q

Authorized Emergency Vehicles

A

RCW 46.61.035

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102
Q

Nonfunctioning Signal Lights

A

RCW 46.61.183

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103
Q

Approaching railroad grade crossings

A

RCW 46.61.340

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104
Q

Whenever any person driving a vehicle approaches a railroad grade crossing under any of the circumstances stated in this section, the driver of such vehicle shall stop within ____________ feet but not less than _________________ feet from nearest rail of such railroad.

A

50; 15

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105
Q

Policy #407

A

Response to Alarm

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106
Q

When do you give strong consideration to reverse hose evolutions?

A

On commercial structure fires to increase fire flow capabilities and to avoid potential exposure problems.

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107
Q

When do you request strike team or task force response?

A

Beyond fourth alarm

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108
Q

What 3 things to consider when parking apparatus for a interior natural gas leak

A

potential blast zone, crew/public safety, and hydrant location

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109
Q

8- Step process to manage Natural Gas emergencies

A

1) Site Management: evacuate to a safe distance (small leak = 300’; large leak = 1/2 mile)
2) Identify the problem and materials involved: location of leak, occupancy type, senses
3) Identify hazards and risks: 4,000 ppm smell (flammable range: LEL 4%, UEL 10%)
4) Select protective clothing and equipment: bunker gear and SCBA and CGI (Combustible gas indicator) meter
5) Develop a plan of operation (strategy): offensive, defensive, or non-intervention
6) Implement response objectives (tactics): always expect ignition in an uncontrolled leak. Stay upwind, evacuate public 300 feat initially, determine source of leak. Determine which tactic (damage/ no leak, damage/ leak/ no fire etc.)
7) Handle decontamination and clean-up
8) Implement Termination Activities

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110
Q

4 possible tactical actions for hazmat gas leak

A

1) damage/no leak
2) damage/leak/no fire
3) damage/leak/explosion
4)damage/leak/fire

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111
Q

How far do you keep engine parked from a car fire?

A

75-100 ft.

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112
Q

When do we request PD at aid call scenes?

A

MVA, suicides, overdoses, physical abuse, industrial accidents resulting in death (or that may result in death), unattended deaths, or suspicious circumstances.

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113
Q

When do we, PSRFA, transport?

A

Fire department personnel, city employees, and school children

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114
Q

What do we transmit to Valley Com when transporting a patient?

A

Unit’s odometer reading both at the beginning of the transport and upon the arrival at the transport destination.

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115
Q

What to do at scene of bomb threat

A

Park at least one block away, use other buildings os a shield, observe and take notes of suspicious persons and vehicles

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116
Q

What will be the LZ frequency if ailrift is not reached on the tactical talk group?

A

STATE OPS 1

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117
Q

3 things to be prepared to provide when asking for airlift

A

1) Select the closest LZ to incident from pre-planned sites (can use impromptu site such as field or roadway)
3) provide approximate weight of the patient
2) Identify a unit as ground contact or request additional unit to set up LZ

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118
Q

How far away must you keep civilians from LZ?

A

> 200 ft.

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119
Q

When do fire crews need to don SCBAs at CO call?

A

When CO concentration is greater than 35 ppm

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120
Q

What constitutes as a short term exposure according to the NFPA?

A

When CO is detected between 9 ppm - 35 ppm in under 8 hour exposure.

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121
Q

What constitutes a CO hazard?

A

Levels greater than 35 ppm and occupants should stay out of structure

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122
Q

Policy #401

A

Abandonment/Withdrawal from Structure of Area

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123
Q

Policy #403

A

Emergency incident accountability system (PASSPORT)

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124
Q

Need for abandonment is what kind of radio traffic?

A

Emergency

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125
Q

When shall abandonment signals be used?

A

building collapse or partial collapse is imminent, immediate explosion hazard, water supply is lost to interior operations, or any other reason deemed necessary by IC or Incident Safety Officer.

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126
Q

How long will Valley Com transmit there abandom structure, HI/LO, tone?

A

3-5 seconds

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127
Q

How long do you blow your air horn when advising to abandon structure?

A

for 5 seconds, followed by a 5 second pause, then repeat two more times

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128
Q

Abandon

A

Only take necessary tools with you, leave structure as fast as safety permits

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129
Q

When would a withdraw be used?

A

When a need arises to account for all personnel and/or there is a change in tactics, such as offensive to defensive.

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130
Q

How often is emergency vehicle operations training required?

A

Annually

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131
Q

What weight of vehicle requires you to have CDL (or EVIP)?

A

Gross weight of over 26,001 lbs or towing a trailer over 10,000 lbs

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132
Q

What 2 things allows emergency personnel to drive emergency vehicles without a CDL?

A

The firefighter has successfully complete a driver training course approved by the director and the firefighter carries a certificate attesting to the successfully completion of the approved training course

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133
Q

Does the CDL exemption apply in every state?

A

No, only in WA state

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134
Q

EVIP training also meets which requirements for training for the driving of smaller Emergency Vehicles if the AHJ approves it as such?

A

WAC 296-305-04505

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135
Q

Instructor certification for EVIP is required how often?

A

Every 5 years

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136
Q

to receive certification EVOs must:

A

1) classroom coverage of EVIP material
2) pass a 25-50 question written test with at least an 80%
3) complete visual and operational checklist
4) perform EVIP rodeo
5) Perform EVIP road test
6) carry an AHJ issued certificate of successful EVIP completion

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137
Q

To re-certify, EVO must:

A

1) review 2 EVIP Modules
2) perform the EVIP road test on largest class of vehicle driven
3) carry and AHJ certificate

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138
Q

True Emergency

A

A situation in which there is a high probability of death or serious injury to an individual or significant property loss and actions by the emergency vehicle driver may reduce the seriousness of the situations.

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139
Q

Emergency Mode

A

utilizes warning lights and sirens, if necessary, during a response to a true emergency

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140
Q

Due Regard

A

A reasonably careful person performing similar duties and under similar circumstances would act in the same manner

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141
Q

Due regard must be used when…

A

specific exemption is taken while responding to a true emergency in the emergency mode.

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142
Q

Emergency Exemption Principals

A

1) You are asking permission to be exempt from some traffic laws, it is not guaranteed
2) Laws will trump the exemption if you are in an accident
3) You must balance your sense of urgency with public safety
4) If you never arrive, you cant be part of the solution.

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143
Q

Does the specific exemption provide any protection against the law?

A

Provides almost no protection to the EVO from legal, civil, or criminal action if there were to be an accident.

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144
Q

NFPA 1500

A

Firefighter occupational and safety standard

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145
Q

NFPA 1002

A

Fire department vehicle driver/operator professional qualifications

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146
Q

NFPA 1451

A

Fire service vehicle operations training programs

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147
Q

What is negligence?

A

The legal standard to which departments or operators are held to for civil and criminal charges. It is the legal deficiency or wrong which results whenever a person fails to exercise that degree of care which a prudent person would exercise under similar circumstances. Negligence may be slight, ordinary, or gross.

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148
Q

4 steps must be proven to prove negligence:

A

1) Duty
2) Breach of Duty
3) Injury or Death
4) Breach of the duty caused injury or death

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149
Q

RCW 46.37.185

A

Green Lights.
Green lights do not entitle the responder to the exemptions afforded emergency vehicles.
(green lights on firefighters’ private cars when on emergency duty only)

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150
Q

Motor vehicle collisions accounted for _______ percent of all LODD

A

0.25

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151
Q

Defensive driving strategies

A

Scan, identify, anticipate, decide, execute

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152
Q

what are some causes of increased injuries and fatalities in collisions?

A

inconsistent seat belt use, open cabs contribute to ejections, vehicles with high center of gravity

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153
Q

Operator challenges:

A

operator error, operator skill level, distracted driving, road conditions, weather, other motorists, vehicles entering roadway, entering highway, backing of apparatus, intersections, emergency vehicles approaching intersection, railroad crossings, u-turns, wheel leaving roadway, blown tire, speed, equipment failures

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154
Q

What % of other drivers are DWI?

A

0.2

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155
Q

What % of new drivers have an accident in the first year of licensing?

A

0.7

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156
Q

DICE

A

Decision, Intent, Check, Execute

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157
Q

Physical forces that impact vehicle operations

A

Speed (acceleration), force/momentum, friction, centripetal Force

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158
Q

How do you calculate Force?

A

Force = mass x acceleration (speed)

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159
Q

What is friction?

A

Friction is the resistance to slipping, friction occurs whenever two surfaces rub together

160
Q

Friction coefficient measures how slippery a road is, the lower the value, the longer it takes to come to a complete stop. What is the friction coefficient for dry asphalt vs wet/icy roads?

A

0.8 to 0.9……….. 0.2 to 0.3

161
Q

Braking distance

A

how far the vehicle travels form the brakes starting to slow the vehicle and the vehicle coming to a complete stop

162
Q

perception distance

A

how far the vehicle travels when the need to brake occurs and the driver recognizes that need

163
Q

reaction distance

A

how far the vehicle travels as the driver reacts and applies the brake

164
Q

brake lag distance

A

how far the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied and vehicle begins to slow down

165
Q

In most vehicles, air pressure must build up to >_______ psi in a tank to ‘release’ the brakes and allow travel.

A

60

166
Q

When does the governor shut the compressor off (on most systems) for air brakes?

A

120 psi

167
Q

Air brakes: air compressor

A

pumps air into the storage tanks. Driven by gears or most common a V-belt

168
Q

Air brakes: governor

A

controls the pressure going to the storage tanks

169
Q

air brakes: storage tanks

A

will hold enough air to allow the brakes to be used in the event the compressor stops working

170
Q

air brakes: safety relief valve

A

installed in the first air tank which protects the braking system from over pressuring. Usually pops off at 150 psi

171
Q

air brakes: tank drain valve

A

when opened, will allow any moisture or water to bee drained from the air tank at its lowest point. should be opened once a week for 2-3 seconds and then closed.

172
Q

air brakes: air chamber

A

holds the parking brake spring and applies pressure to a piston that will push on the s-cam.

173
Q

air brakes: brake drums

A

located at the end of each axle and the wheels are bolted to the drums

174
Q

air brakes: brake shoes

A

located inside the drums and push against the inside of the drum to provide friction needed for stopping

175
Q

air brakes: air supply pressure gauge

A

allows the driver to see the pressure in the system at all times. Also used to check for air leaks when the system is off

176
Q

air breaks: low pressure warning buzzer

A

gives driver an audible warning in the event the system air pressure falls to the danger zone. Most fire trucks this alarma will sound at 60 < psi. If this goes off while driving find a safe place to pull over to check system for damage.

177
Q

How often should we check air brake system?

A

At least once a week, but should be at the start of every shift

178
Q

How long to keep air brake inspection documentation?

A

At least 5 years

179
Q

Air brake system should be checked by ASE certified mechanic once a year or?

A

every 3000 miles

180
Q

How fast is terminal velocity?

A

238 mph

181
Q

Do you apply light, constant pressure while going downhill?

A

No, use SNUB braking method.

182
Q

What is the SNUB braking method?

A

allow vehicle to speed up to the desired or posted safe speed then apply the brakes and slow down to 5-10 mph below posted speed. Then allow speed to pick back up and repeat. This allows brakes to cool and reduces chance of brake fade.

183
Q

Brake fade

A

a superheating of the brake system which will lead to brake failure or a significant decrease in the vehicle’s ability to stop.

184
Q

Consider these auxiliary braking systems to reduce chance of brake fade:

A

engine brake, transmission retarder, electromagnetic driveline brake

185
Q

When do you not use jake breaks?

A

Icy conditions

186
Q

Four second rule

A

keep a separation of at least four seconds between the EV and the vehicle being followed.
-2 seconds might be adeqaute for smaller trucks and speeds under 40 mph
-3 seconds should be used if traveling over 40 mph
-4 seconds should be used for emergency vehicles

187
Q

Negotiating turns without tipping over is related to:

A

centripetal force and center of gravity

188
Q

Centripetal force

A

a force that makes a body follow a curved path. Its direction is always orthogonal to the motion of the body and towards the fixed point of the instantaneous center of curvature of the path.

189
Q

Critical Speed

A

the speed at which the vehicle will lose control rounding a curve

190
Q

what does first arriving engine do at high rise fire?

A

Goes straight to the hydrant closest to the FDC connection and establishes a water supply.

191
Q

How do you decide whether or not you need to tandem pump at a high rise fire?

A

Decision will be based, in part, off of incoming pressure from hydrant. < 100 PSI hydrant pressure = Tandem Pump

192
Q

Where do you park at a high rise fire?

A

Try and park at the corner of the building to avoid falling debris and potentially collapse.

193
Q

At high rise fires, multi stage pumps should operate in _____________

A

parallel (volume mode)

194
Q

When making a hydrant at a high rise fire, ensure you __________ the hydrant.

A

Maximize (use all available ports). Gate valves on both 2 1/2 discharges.

195
Q

If the first arriving Engineer has determined the need for tandem pumping, what does the second in Engine do?

A

position and prepare to supply the FDC

196
Q

Whose responsibility is it to notify second incoming engine on whether or not tandem pumping is needed?

A

First in Engineer, should decide this quickly and notify 2nd in engine company

197
Q

Should you use adapters (increasers) on FDC connections?

A

No, use the same size hose as the FDC fittings. 2 1/2 hose not rated to support the weight of LDH.

198
Q

When connecting to a FDC, ensure all ports ___________

A

are clear of debris.

199
Q

When connecting to FDCs, connect ALL ports prior to flowing water because _______________

A

Not all FDC’s are clappered.

200
Q

PDP for high rise pump pressures

A

-FL for hose to FDC
-FL for FDC connection
-EP (total number of floors x 5)
-FL for handline operating from standpipe
-Nozzle Pressure

201
Q

If you are supplying a high rise with a fire pump, does it matter if it is a wet or dry system?

A

No, supply regardless

202
Q

What is the PDP when supplying a high rise with a fire pump?

A

10 PSI below the rating of the pump. (referred to as building pressure/pressure marked on the placard)

203
Q

No need to supply fire pump with full “building pressure”, but be prepared to throttle up to that “building pressure” in case _________

A

the building fire pump fails or is unable to keep up with the volume demand.

204
Q

If fire pump goes out and you start supplying the high rise via your engine, what do you need to do?

A

Notify command immediately.

205
Q

When supplying a building with a fire pump, what must you be cautious of if the fire pump is doing all the work?

A

Your engine over heating since you won’t be moving any water. Ensure you are taking steps to keep engine cool.

206
Q

In tandem operation, pumpers should attempt to _____________ workload on each pump.

A

equalize

207
Q

Attempt to keep net pump discharge pressure (NPDP) at pump rated capacities or lower whenever possible. What is this capacity?

A

150 PSI

208
Q

Things to do throughout a high rise operation

A

-Stay in a safe area under compartment doors
-Light up the scene
-protect hose from falling debris, vehicles, and other hazards
-position spare SCBA bottles and other equipment so they are accessible to shuttle to crews.

209
Q

Velocity General Info:

A

Weight: 46,500 lbs
Height: 11 ft 3 in.
Pierce PUC 1500 gpm Pump
500 Gallon water tank
20 gallon foam tank
65 Gallon Fuel Tank
4.5 Gallon DEF Tank

210
Q

Enforcer General Info:

A

Weight: 44,000 lbs
Height: 9 ft. 11 in.
Cummins 450 hp Engine
Waterous 1500 gpm pump
600 gallon water tank
30 gallon foam tank
4.5 gallon DEF tank

211
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Requires all equipment in cab, except for what is needed to be used on an emergency response, be secured in a cabinet or bracket.

212
Q

Apparatus accidents #2 killer of firefighters, ______ % involve a rollover.

A

60

213
Q

SRP

A

Side Roll Protection

214
Q

What occurs (in both velocity and enforcer) when a frontal or oblique accident occurs?

A

-Retract and tighten the seatbelts
-Pull the air ride seats to their lowest position
-Deploy side curtain air bags from the seatback headrest area
-Deploy the airbag in the steering wheel
-Deploy the airbag n front of the officer’s knees

215
Q

How many inches of clearance are needed around the officer’s knee air bag?

A

4 inches

216
Q

Airbag systems only work if _______________

A

seatbelts are worn

217
Q

What color of smoke will be visible after air bags deploy in the engine?

A

harmless blue smoke

218
Q

Allow the apparatus to complete its self test prior to…..

A

starting. (if this is not done, it may cause intermittent alarms to occur).

219
Q

DEF consumption is _______________ % of fuel consumption, so will need to be refilled about every other fuel fill.

A

2-3 %

220
Q

The Engine Exhaust After Treatment System does what?

A

In charge of self-cleaning known as “regeneration or regen”

221
Q

Regen will usually occur automatically, either _____________ or ______________, without any action required by the operator.

A

passive, active

222
Q

Passive regen

A

can occur during normal engine operations, driving or pumping. No action needed by the driver.

223
Q

Active regen

A

The apparatus may active regen without any action by the driver. However, when needed, driver can assist in activating the regen by changing the ‘duty cycle’ of the engine, i.e. switch to highway driving or pumping conditions, or initiating a Parked Regen.

224
Q

What vehicle conditions must be met in order for an active regen to occur?

A

-sufficient accumulation of soot in the filter
-sufficient exhaust flow and temperature conditions (typically pumping or driving)
-speedometer showing 5 mph or higher vehicle speed.
*There is no need to inhibit regeneration during pumping operations.

225
Q

Exhaust temperatures during a normal regeneration event can get up to…

A

1500 degrees F

226
Q

Before initiating stationary regeneration (using the regeneration switch), the following conditions must be met:

A

-Park brake must be set, transmission must be in neutral, accelerator, and foot brake pedals must not be pressed, apparatus and pump governor at idle.
-with engine parked and running at idle, press and hold ‘DPF REGEN’ switch for 5 seconds (DPF light must be illuminated to initiate parked regen)

227
Q

HEST

A

High Exhaust System Temperature (light illuminates when exhaust is over 977 degrees F)

228
Q

How long does parked Regen take?

A

20-40 minutes

229
Q

How do you cancel a parked regen?

A

-press the ‘regen inhibit’ switch
-step on throttle
-releasing parking brake
-putting the transmission in gear
-or turning the ignition off

230
Q

Which indicator light indicates a major engine fault, serious damage may result.

A

Stop Engine

231
Q

MIL

A

Malfunction Indicator Light

232
Q

DPF

A

Diesel Particulate Filter

233
Q

If DPF light is on Solid (not flashing) then:

A

vehicle requires regen in reasonable amount of time. Initiate an active regen by driving or pumping or perform parked regen.

234
Q

If DPF light is flashing then:

A

vehicle requires regen as soon as possible. Active regen by driving or pumping or perform a parked regen ASAP

235
Q

DPF light with Check engine light means you must:

A

perform a parked Regen.

236
Q

DPF light with Stop Engine light means:

A

shut down immediately and taken out of service. Contact maintenance.

237
Q

HEST light only occurs when

A

vehicle is stationary or moving less than about 5 mph

238
Q

DEF indicator light solid:_____________ vs flashing:__________

A

between 1/4 and 1/8 full; below 1/8 full

239
Q

When does fan clutch engage?

A

The engine coolant or air intake temp reaches the engine manufacturer’s preset temp for fan engagement (220 F). And placing the truck in “pump gear”.

240
Q

What do you do if the GFI breaker trips?

A

turn off the power to the water rinse system 120 volt heating element.

241
Q

How many gallons in warm water decon?

A

18 gallons

242
Q

What is best practice for the warm water rinse pump?

A

leave pump off unless needed

243
Q

Only fill _____________________ system with clean, potable water. (not from hydrant).

A

warm water system

244
Q

Only use what kind of oil for engine?

A

API CJ-4 15W-40. Oils that do not meet the CJ-4 standard should not be used due to possible damage to the after treatment system.

245
Q

How do you check fluid levels electronically?

A

Press the Up and Down arrow keys at same time. Cycle through diagnostics by continuing to press up and down arrows.

246
Q

What conditions must be met in order to check fluid levels electronically?

A

-fluid temp above 140 and below 220
-transmission in N
-engine at idle
-transmission output shaft is stopped
-vehicle has been stationary for about 2 minutes to allow the fluid to settle

247
Q

ABS

A

Antilock Braking System

248
Q

Features of ABS you may not be aware of:

A

-ABS allows for Anti-Slip-Resistance (ASR). if one wheel is off road spinning, ASR will apply that brake to increase torque to the other wheel
-If both wheels are spinning, ASR will reduce the engine torque to match the conditions
-ASR is completely automatic, drive does not need to do anything.

249
Q

What does Off Road traction Control switch do?

A

Allows ASR to be overrode so slippage is allowed in order to assist in climbing out of mud/snow etc.

250
Q

Where are onspot automatic chains located?

A

rear inside duals

251
Q

Onspot Chains facts:

A

-engage when traveling between 2-25 mph
- do not exceed 35 mph
-can stop on chains and start again, as long as switch is still in the active position

252
Q

When does opticom come on?

A

With master switch. Can press and hold to turn on without master switch (this is momentary)

253
Q

CZIC

A

Command Zone Information Center (Menu screen on engine computer)

254
Q

Difference in weight between 28’ 2 section ladder vs. 35’ 3 section ladder?

A

87 lbs vs. 129 lbs.

255
Q

Which engine can pump and roll?

A

Velocity

256
Q

How to engage pump and roll:

A

-stop, set the brake, engage pump switch, set up the pump for desired discharge, release brake and wait for the OK to Pump and Roll. Only use 1st gear for Pump and Roll.

257
Q

Where is Manual pump shift override on Velocity?

A

behind an access door above the foam system manifold drain

258
Q

In the Enforcer, how much psi must you have to actuate the pump switch?

A

80 psi

259
Q

Keep engines in Pressure mode because if in RPM mode, since there are not discharge side relief valves:

A

pressure spikes could injure or kill

260
Q

On enforcer, when put into pump gear it automatically goes into pressure mode. On velocity,

A

you must select pressure or RPM mode

261
Q

What is preset for pressure and RPM mode?

A

125 PSI, or 1000 RPM

262
Q

PSG

A

Pressure sensor governor

263
Q

Cavitation protection: In pressure mode, if pressur falls, what does PSG do?

A

Throttles up to recover. If PSG cannot recover, it switches to RPM limit mode

264
Q

In RPM Limit Mode, if pressure falls below 45 psi, but above 15 psi, enters:

A

Lo Water (sets rpm at 1100 and after 7 seconds goes to idle)

265
Q

In RPM Limit mode ( to protect against cavitation), if pressure falls below 15 psi, enters:

A

No Water Mode and pump goes to idle

266
Q

Priming is done with an air primer that uses:

A

brake tanks air pressure for a venturi. No fluids or oil

267
Q

When in auto, when does primer turn on and when will it turn off?

A

Turns on when put into pump gear and turns off when primed (20 psi)

268
Q

Hose reals on velocity vs enforcer

A

enforcer: officer’s side. velocity: driver’s side

269
Q

At the conclusion of every pump operation, after taking out of pump gear, open the _________________, momentarily, to prevent damage to the check valve.

A

Manifold Drain valve

270
Q

Booster real facts for enforcer:

A

150’ of 1 inch hose
same as velocity:
designated for less than 50 gpm
FL for 30 GPM is 37 psi per 50’ section

271
Q

Where are the 3 locations the TFT ( master stream) electronically controlled valve are found on the velocity?

A

-pump panel
-remote control mounted on the left wall in the pump panel compartment
-on the deck gun itself

272
Q

What is preset suction side relief valve on velocity?

A

190 psi

273
Q

booster real facts for velocity:

A

200’ of 1 inch hose
same as enforcer:
designated for less than 50 gpm
FL for 30 GPM is 37 psi per 50’ section
booster real has a discharge guage (enforcer does not)

274
Q

Foam facts (both engines):

A

-preset at 0.4% for class B fires
-Reduce to 0.1% for class A fires
-Can flow 3,000 gpm at 0.4%
-30 gallon (20 gallon on velocity) tank 7500 gallons of water at 0.4%

275
Q

When does foam pump go to standby?

A

at less than 20 gpm

276
Q

Will nova cool damage pump?

A

Yes, nova cool will damage pump seals if lift in system. Flush foam out of pump every time you use it.

277
Q

Which engine has a Xantrex Inverter?

A

Velocity. supplies 1800 watts to two locations: 2 receptacle located on both the right and left exterior pump panel.

278
Q

Head pressure

A

Pressure generated by the weight of a column of water above the pump. For every 1 foot increase in elevation, .434 PSI is gained.

279
Q

Residual pressure

A

Pressure at the test hydrant while water is flowing; represents the pressure remaining in the water system while the test water is flowing and is that part of the total pressure that is no used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through the hose, pipe, or fittings, and adapters.

280
Q

Static pressure

A

The stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters while water is at rest.

281
Q

Cavitation

A

A condition which vacuum pockets form, due to localized regions of low pressure at the vanes in the impeller of a centrifugal pump resulting in vibrations, loss of efficiency, and possible damage to the impeller. This can be caused by water being discharged from the pump faster than it is coming in. Signs: sound of “gravel” in the pump, increase in pump RPM with a corresponding decrease in discharge pressure.

282
Q

Friction loss

A

The loss of pressure created by turbulence of water moving against the interior walls of hose, pipe, and fittings.

283
Q

GPM

A

Gallons per minute. A unit expressing rate of discharge. Used when calculating water flowing/fire flows

284
Q

Draft

A

The process of obtaining water from a static source and transferring it into a pump that is above the source’s level. Atmospheric pressure onto the water surface forces the water into the pump where a partial vacuum has been created.

285
Q

Nozzle pressure

A

The velocity pressure at which water is discharged from the nozzle

286
Q

nozzle reaction

A

Counterforce directed against a person holding a nozzle or a device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged.

287
Q

Back flushing

A

The process of flushing water though the pump, with pressure, either from a hydrant or another pump, into the discharge side of the pump and out of the intake fittings to remove any foreign materials that could accumulate inside the pump body and impellers.

288
Q

Parallel (volume)

A

when a two-stage pump transfer valve is set in volume. The source water flows from the intake manifold into the eye of both impellers simultaneously Each of the impellers pumps water at its rated pressure while flowing 50% of the rated capacity of the pump; therefore, the total amount of water the pumper can deliver is equal to the sum of the two stages. If the pump is rated at 1750 GPM at 150 PSI, each impeller will flow 875 GPM.

289
Q

Series (pressure)

A

When a two-stage pump transfer valve is set in pressure. All of the water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller. Depending on the pump manufacturer, the first stage (impeller) increases the pressure and discharges 50%-70% of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the eye of the second impeller. The second impeller increases the pressure and delivers water at a higher pressure into the pump discharge port. All of the water pumped passes through each impeller.

290
Q

Volute

A

Consists of the casing that receives the fluid being pumped by the impeller. It is a curved funnel, within a centrifugal pump, that increases in area as it approaches the discharge port. The volute directs the flow through the discharge.

291
Q

Centrifugal Pump

A

Pump with one or more impellers that utilize centrifugal force to move water throughout the pump.

292
Q

two-stage centrifugal pump

A

Two impellers are mounted in a single housing. The two impellers are usually mounted on a single shaft driven by a single drive train. The impellers are identical, have the same capacity, and can be arranged in either volume (parallel) or pressure (series).

293
Q

prime

A

Term used to denote the removal of air from a centrifugal pump and intake hose, creating a partial vacuum in preparation for receiving water at atmospheric pressure.

294
Q

baffle

A

More commonly known as water tank baffles, used to control water flow/surges in a water tank

295
Q

Vacuum

A

In the fire and emergency services, a pressure that is less than atmospheric pressure; a vacuum is needed to facilitate drafting of water from a static source.

296
Q

Required tread depth for steering axle tires

A

1/8 inch

297
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus
-minimum tank capacity: 300 gallons
-minimum pump capacity: 750 gpm

298
Q

Quint’s must meet all requirements for regular engines but must also:

A

minimum rated pump of 1,000 GPM @ 150 psi
provide 1,000 GPM at 100 PSI NP at full elevation/extension

299
Q

Tender minimum pump capacities

A

250 GPM at 150 psi
minimum 1000 gallon tank

300
Q

Wildland apparatus minimum capabilities

A

minimum pump capacity of 250 GPM
Minimum 50 gallon water tank
Type 1-2 “structural engines”
Type 3-7 “wildland engines”

301
Q

ARFF minimum capabilities

A

3,000 gallon water tank
420 gallon foam tank
500 pounds purple K dry chemical
1950 GPM while rolling

302
Q

How many degrees of play does your steering wheel get in order to meet standards?

A

no more than 10 degrees

303
Q

minimum tread depth for non-steering axle

A

1/16th of an inch

304
Q

Every 1 foot = how many gallons in supply hose?

A

1 gallon

305
Q

1 cause of winter driving accidents?

A

excessive speed

306
Q

Why do we use water to fight fire?

A

-abundant, cheap, chemically stable, non-toxic, changes states relatively easily, high expansion rate - 1700 x, absorbs heat, incompressible

307
Q

FL due to water particles moving against each other vs FL water moving against hose/fittings.

A

Water particles vs eachother = 90%
Water particels vs hose/adapters = 5-10 %

308
Q

Primary feeders vs secondary feeders vs distributors

A

Primary feeders: Large pipes distributing water to smaller pipes. Usually lines out of pumping stations. Can be 8” to 36”
Secondary Feeders: Medium sized pipes, industrial area: 10” to 16”. Residential area: 8” minimum
Distributors: Smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants

309
Q

Dry hydrant

A

allows efficient access to static water supply sources

310
Q

Flush hydrant

A

used at port, flush with pavement

311
Q

Dry barrel hydrant

A

most common, contorl valve located below the frost line- protects from freezing.

312
Q

Wet barrel hydrant

A

used in California, filled with water at all times

313
Q

What is hydrant spacing in residential vs multi-family/commercial?

A

600 feet residential, 300 feet multi-family/commercial

314
Q

What is the rule of thumb for finding the weight of a hoseline?

A

34 x D2 (per 100’ of hose)

315
Q

If you double the size of a hose, what happens to the velocity of water running through the hose?

A

velocity decreases by 4 times

316
Q

How to calculate velocity?

A

V= 8 x square root of H (h = height or head); when height is known

v = 12.14 x square root of P (pressure); when pressure is known

317
Q

Velocity is calculated in what units?

A

feet per second

318
Q

Anything > 350 GPM will be considered

A

master stream flows

319
Q

What is tip size and gallonage for smooth bore master streams? (all pumped at 80 psi to tip)

A

-1 3/8: 500
-1 1/2: 600
-1 3/4: 800
-2: 1000

320
Q

2 types of automatic fog nozzles (what we use on our rigs)

A

low pressure: 75 psi
normal pressure: 100 psi

321
Q

what is the GPMs on a bliztfire?

A

300-500

322
Q

What do you pump a piercing nozzle at?

A

125 GPM/ 100 psi

323
Q

Newton’s 3rd law of motion:

A

for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

324
Q

As a rule of thumb to find Nozzle reaction for fog nozzles you….

A

NR = GPM/2

325
Q

what is the vertical reach of a 1 1/8 inch smooth bore?

A

110 ft

326
Q

What are the multipliers (coefficient’s) for all hose sizes when calculating FL ( Fl= Q2 x M x L)

A

1: Q2 x 150
1 3/4: Q2 x 10
2 1/2: Q2 x 2
3: Q2
4: Q2 / 5
5 Q2 / 20

327
Q

What is formula for FL?

A

FL = Q2 x M x L

328
Q

Back pressure vs forward pressure

A

Back pressure: when the discharge is above the pump
Forward pressure: when discharge is below the pump

329
Q

Formula to find head pressure

A

P = 0.434 x H (height)

330
Q

Rule of thumb for elevation pressure:

A

5 PSI per floor, not including the first floor

331
Q

What if you have multiple hose lines with different PDP’s?

A

Set your pressure to the highest PDP and partially open, or gate down, the other lines

332
Q

PDP for sprinklers

A

Start at 150 psi (don’t exceed 175 psi)
Each head = 20 GPM

333
Q

A 1500 GPM pumper can adequately supply how many sprinkler heads at 150 psi?

A

75

334
Q

How can you help reduce friction loss when supplying an aerial master stream?

A

park as close as possible and use parallel lines to supply

335
Q

10/15/25 rule

A

-10% drop = additional 3 times the current GPM flow
-15% drop = additional 2 times current GPM flow
25% drop = additional 1 time the current GPM flow

336
Q

is a centrifugal pump a positive displacement pump?

A

No. But the primer pump is a positive displacement pump.

337
Q

Pump’s rated capacity

A

-100% @ 150 psi
-75% @ 200 psi
-50% @ 250 psi

338
Q

Net Pump discharge pressure =

A

discharge pressure - intake pressure

339
Q

What are the 3 main factors influencing discharge pressure in a centrifugal pump?

A

1) amount of water being discharged
2) speed at which the impeller is turning
3) pressure of water when it enters the pump from a pressurized source will flow through the centrifugal pump even when the impeller isn’t turning

340
Q

Whenever you pump more than 1/2 your rated capacity (with a multi-stage pump), you need to be in…

A

you need to be in parallel (volume).

341
Q

NFPA 1901 states intake piping should flow at least

A

500 GPM

342
Q

Tank fill piping must be at least

A

1 inch

343
Q

pipes larger than __________ require a slow acting control device

A

3 inches

344
Q

What are some electric pump shift indicators?

A

-see 10-15 mph on speedometer
-hear the sound of the pump engaging
-see green light on the pump shift “OK to pump”

345
Q

How do you troubleshoot a pump shift issue (if the engine won’t go into pump)?

A

-start the sequence over again
-move transmission through a series of gears, the last being reverse, then to neutral
-start the sequence over again
-emergency manual pump engagement

346
Q

compound gauge aka

A

pump intake gauge

347
Q

discharge gauge aka

A

pressure gauge

348
Q

What does a PSG (pressure sensor governor) do?

A

Regulates the engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements

349
Q

What is an engine cooler line?

A

3/8” line from the discharge side to a heat exchanger in the radiator, prevents engine from overheating

350
Q

What are two auxiliary cooling devices?

A

engine cooler and tank fill (tank fill circulates water from the pump to your tank)

351
Q

Lift

A

the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the venter of the pump intake

352
Q

What NFPA has to do with drafting?

A

NFPA 1002

353
Q

vacuum is a pressure that is less than

A

atmospheric pressure (14.7 psi)

354
Q

Drafting operations:

A

-remove intake valve, attach hard suction to steamer port with mallet
-all drains, tank to pump, tank fill, discharge valves need to be closed to prevent air leaks
-Strainer needs to be minimum 2 feet under surface of water and 2 feet above the bottom
-Raise RPM to at least 1100
-Activate primer, RPM will drop under the new load, compound gauge will drop and measure in inches of mercury
-should take 10-15 seconds (no more than 45 seconds)

355
Q

What is a watch line?

A

used to keep engine cool as well as prevents the loss of suction during drafting. small line the discharges water back into static water source

356
Q

When would you use relay pumping?

A

-Water source is too far away
-source doesn’t have enough pressure
-make up for excessive elevation gain

357
Q

What is an open relay and why would you use it?

A

uses portable folding drop tanks at each intake for pumpers, eliminates pressure surges and inconsistent supply

358
Q

In a relay, where does the pumper with the largest pump capacity go?

A

at the begging as the source (supply) pumper

359
Q

Maximum distance between pumpers formula

A

165/FL x 100

360
Q

supply hose test pressure vs “attack” hose test pressure

A

supply: 200 psi; attack: 300 psi

361
Q

Maximum dependable flow in relay is _________ rated capacity

A

0.75

362
Q

What is starting PDP in relay operation?

A

FL +- EP + 20

363
Q

Attack pumper operates pressure governor in ____________, Relay pumpers operate pressure sensor governors in ________. (allows for small fluctuations in pressure without making adjustments)

A

PSI mode; RPM mode

364
Q

Some advantages of dual pumping:

A

-allows engines to work independently off the same supply with minimal consequences
-additional engines can be added without compromising the flow

365
Q

What are the principles of how foam works?

A

-separation: creates barrier between fuel and fire
-Cooling: lowers temperature of fuel and adjacent surfaces
-suppression: prevents release of vapors

366
Q

Low, medium, high expanding foam ratios:

A

Low: 20:1, medium: 200:1, high: 1,000:1

367
Q

Class B foam is used for:

A

liquid fires

368
Q

What does CAFS stand for?

A

Compressed Air foam system

369
Q

when using novacool, use no more than _______%

A

0.4

370
Q

When using Novacool, what percent foam do we use on class B fires?

A

0.4%, never a lesser percentage

371
Q

Novacool is an _____________ foam

A

emulsifying

372
Q

Hydrostatic testing of pump and associated piping tested to minimum ____________

A

500 psi for 10 minutes

373
Q

how many volts will the voltmeter read when fully charged and engine off? When engine running?

A

12.6; 13-14.8 volts

374
Q

slippage

A

the ability of water to “slip” through the inner workings of the pump. Centrifugal pumps have 100% slippage.

375
Q

what is a priming device used for?

A

to replace air in the centrifugal pump with water

376
Q

What is considered indirect cooling of the engine?

A

provides supplemental cooling to the engine by circulating water from the pump, through a jacket that surrounds metal tubes that are circulating engine coolant.

377
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that, as the tank empties, it will continue to provide _______ of the initial GPM. (When pumping a fire off of booster tank)

A

0.8

378
Q

Discharge relief valve dumps excess pressure ________ while the intake relief valve (aka dump valve) dumps excess pressure

A

back to the intake side of the pump; to the ground

379
Q

How big is piping on tank to pump?

A

usually 3-3 1/2 inches (so will limit you to 500 GPM)

380
Q

When do we report water tank levels?

A

Quarterly ( 3/4, 1/2, 1/4)

381
Q

How big is the line supplying most hydrants?

A

6 inches

382
Q

When using Novacool, what percent foam do we use on class B fires?

A

0.4%, never a lesser percentage

383
Q

If more than _________ is the required fire flow, a relay operation should be considered.

A

300 GPM

384
Q

What are the two types of relays

A

maximum distance: flowing a predetermined amount of water the maximum distance it can be pumped through a hose
Constant Pressure: when fighting a fire that is going to have a constant flow of water (can be “open” relay)

385
Q

What is the biggest downfall of a tender operation?

A

Needed Fire Flow (NFF)

386
Q

What is in the fire tetrahedron?

A

Fuel, oxygen, heat, chemical chain reaction

387
Q

What are the five classes of fire?

A

A: ordinary combustibles (wood and fabric)
B: Flammable liquids
C: Electrical fires
D: Flammable metals
K: Oils and greases found in kitchens

388
Q

3 methods to proportion foam

A

1: injection (most common today: husky pro/ foamPro)
2: batch mixing
3: Pre-mixing

389
Q

Dry wood gives off ignitable vapors at what temp?

A

450 degrees F

390
Q

Class B foam is used for

A

hydrocarbon fires (gasoline, diesel) and alcohol based fires (polar solvents)

391
Q

Class B foam is usually AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) which will

A

form a film on the surface of the liquid fuel and excludes oxygen

392
Q

percent of class B foam application for hydrocarbons vs polar solvents

A

Hydrocarbons: 3%
Polar solvents: 6%

393
Q

What is an emulsifier and what does it mean?

A

Novacool. It means it mixes with the product and renders it inert, or unable to burn.

394
Q

What is slug flow?

A

alternating bursts of air and water from the nozzle (usually while pumping foam)

395
Q

What physical forces impact vehicle operations?

A

speed (acceleration), Force/momentum, Friction, and centripetal force

Engineer study (5 decks)

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