Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

A 43yo obese man present for a health maintenance visit. On physical exam, it is noted that his waist circumference is 106cm and bp is 148/92. Which of the following fasting lab levels would suggest a dx of metabolic syndrome (syndrome X) in this pt?

a) HDL of 45 mg/dL
b) LDL of 180 mg/dL
c) Triglyceride of 190 mg/dL
d) glucose of 100 mg/dL

A

c: Metabolic syndrome is found in approx. 25% of Americans. It is defined as 3 or more of the following: waist circumference greater than 102cm in men or greater than 88 in women; serum triglyceride level of at least 150 mg/dL, HDL level of less than 40mg/dL in men or less than 50 mg/L in women; blood pressure of at least 130/85; and serum glucose level of at least 110 mg/dL

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2
Q

A 36yo woman presents to the office complaining of weight loss and a feeling of “nervousness.” She also complains of losing hair during the last several weeks. Exam reveals a diffusely enlarged, firm, non-tender thyroid gland with an audible bruit. Her eyes have marked proptosis and lid retraction. Her TSH is very low; her free and total thyroid hormone levels are elevated. What is the most likely dx?

a) subacute thyroiditis
b) Hashimoto thyroiditis
c) Graves disease
d) mulinodular goiter
e) Cushing Disease

A

c: This pt is suffering from Graves disease. Her symptoms are consistent with a hyperthyroid state. Based upon her physical exam, Graves disease is the most likely diagnosis due to the specific associated eye findings of thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy. The lab findings of low TSH and elevated FT4 are also consistent with the dx.

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3
Q

A 23yo woman present with joint pain, anorexia, amenorrhea, and fatigue. On further questioning, she says that she has been craving salty foods and gets dizzy easily when she stands. Upon physical exam, she is found to have darkened skin over her palms and extensor surfaces and postural hypotension. An 8am plasma cortisol level is low. What test is the gold standard to dx her condition?

A

b: Adrenal crisis may present with a history of fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea, joint or back pain, and darkening of the skin. Pts may have postural dizziness, food cravings, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and pre renal azotemia. The 8am plasma cortisol levels may serve as a screening tool for adrenal insufficiency. The gold standard test to dx this is an ACTH stimulation test. This test will also differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency.

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4
Q

A 44yo man has been drinking large quantities of water, up to 12L/day, for the last week. In addition, he has been passing large quantities of urine. Upon physical exam, there are no remarkable findings except for increased capillary refill time and tacky mucous membranes. Lab results show sodium 166, potassium 4.2, chloride 123, and bicarbonate 27. His fasting serum glucose is 80 and creatinine 1.2. His serum osmolality is 343. Which of the following hormone deficiencies is most likely present in this pt?

a) prolactin
b) oxytocin
c) insulin
d) growth
e) antidiuretic

A

e: This pt’s symptoms and labs are consistent with diabetes insipidus. This condition results from a deficiency of ADH causing polyuria and polydipsia.

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5
Q

A 42yo woman has experience recent weight gain, heavy periods, fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. She has a rough voice, and her rate of speech is slow. Physical exam is significant for an enlarged thyroid, slow reflexes, and the presence of brittle and course hair. She denies any hx of bipolar disease or tx with lithium. Lab tests show an elevated TSH and low free T4 (FT4). What is the most appropriate tx for this pt?

a) propylthiouracil (PTU)
b) levothyroxine
c) surgical resection
d) radioiodid ablation

A

b: The pt’s signs and symptoms are consistent with hypothyroidism. Tx of choice is levothyroxine, which is partially converted in the body to T3. Significant increases are seen within 1-2 weeks, with max levels reached in 3-4 weeks.

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6
Q

A 22yo man is being evaluated for extremity enlargement unlike anyone in his family. Over the past 2 years, he has noticed that his rings no longer fit and his feet are so wide that he cannot find shoes to fit. He has always been tall for his age, greater than the 95th percentile throughout his teenage years. He has very coarse facial features, macroglossia, and a very deep voice. What is the most likely cause of this patients condition?

a) adrenal neoplasm
b) multi nodular goiter
c) pituitary macroadenoma
d) Rathke cleft cyst
e) testicular neoplasm

A

c: This pts signs and symptoms are consistent with acromegaly, which is caused by an increased secretion of GH. These are almost always caused by pituitary macroadenomas. The tumors may be locally invasive into the cavernous sinus but are typically not malignant.

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7
Q

A 49yo man presents to the office complaining of general malaise with muscle aches, anorexia, fever, and severe pain over his anterior neck radiating to his ears. He state that he was ill about 2 weeks ago with a sore throat**, but it resolved within a few days. On palpation, the thyroid gland is enlarged and tender. His lab workup shows a high T4 level and increased ESR. What is the most appropriate therapy for this pt’s disease?

a) levothyroxine sodium
b) PTU therapy
c) radioiodine ablation
d) surgery
e) supportive therapy only

A

e: This is a subacute, painful thyroiditis. This is a self-limiting disorder that at most requires symptomatic therapy. In mild cases, analgesics (ASA) are sufficient for pain relief and to decrease the inflammation. Prednisone may bring more relief if needed. Transient hypothyroidism should be treated as well.

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8
Q

A 45yo woman presents with weight gain, fatigue, dry skin, and oligomenorrhea. On physical exam, the pt has a palpable thyroid mass over the right lobe. An ultrasound evaluation of the thyroid shows diffuse heterogenous enlargement of the gland. Which of the following is the most likely dx?

a) Multinodular goiter
b) thyroid carcinoma
c) thyroid adenoma
d) Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

d: Hashimoto thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland. This condition causes hypOthyroidism. ON physical exam, a goiter may be palpated. In order to distinguish this from other conditions, lab and diagnostic studies should be done. When an ultrasound is performed, it will show diffuse heterogenous enlargement of the gland and not a solitary or multi nodular gland.

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9
Q
A 23yo pt with type 1 DM has been having difficulty sleeping at night. Usually around 3am the pt will wake up feeling sweaty, nauseated, and tachycardia. HE has recorded the following blood glucose levels: 10pm=90mg/dL; 3am=40mg/dL; 7am=200mg/dL
What is the best advice for this pt?
a) stop eating a bedtime snack
b) increase the evening regular dosage
c) decrease the evening Lente dosage
d) exercise before going to bed at night
A

(don’t think we need to know this?)
c) The patient has described the Somogyi effect. This effect occurs because the pt is receiving too much intermediate insulin at dinner time. This occurs when nocturnal hypoglycemia results in counter-regulatory hormones producing hyperglycemia. Either the intermediate insulin dosage can be shifted to a lower does at bedtime or the pt can eat a larger snack at bedtime.

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10
Q

A 47yo woman presents to the office with increased BP, bradycardia, constipation, muscle cramps, and weight gain. What is the best initial lab workup for this pt?

a) TSH level
b) T3 & T4
c) Free T4 & TSH
d) serum thyroglobulin
e) RAI uptake and thyroid scan

A

c: This pt is displaying symptoms of hypOthyroidism. The most appropriate tests to differentiate the cause for this are free T4 and TSH. Serum T3 is not a sensitive test for hypothyroidism

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11
Q

An obese pt with T2DM is started on initial therapy to improve glycemic control. Which of the following would be c/i for the tx with metformin?

a) renal failure
b) history of ketoacidosis
c) inflammatory bowel disease
d) anemia

A

a: Metformin should NOT be used in pts with renal insufficiency due to its ability to produce LACTIC ACIDOSIS. Other c/i include liver disease, severe CHF, metabolic acidosis, or hx of alcohol abuse.

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12
Q

A 45yo man with a hx of neck irradiation for Hodgkin lymphoma at the age of 15 is found to have a 1.5cm, non-tender, firm thyroid nodule. Upon lab evaluation, the pt is found to be euthyroid, and a FNA bx reveals malignancy. What histologic type is most likely?

a) anapestic
b) follicular
c) medullary
d) papillary

A

d: Thyroid carcinoma often presents as an asymptomatic thyroid nodule. The most common histological form is PAPILLARY carcinoma, representing more than 80% of cases.

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13
Q

A 25yo mn presents to the clinic complaining of nocturnal enuresis, weight loss, and blurred vision. On further questioning, he relates that he has increased appetite and thirst. His fasting blood glucose level is 225mg/dL. Which of the following would be indicative of type 1 vs type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a) increased Triglycerides
b) presence of glutamic acid decarboxylase
c) presence of C-peptide
d) decreased urine catecholamines

A

b: T1DM is an autoimmune disease. New onset type 1 diabetic pts have islet antibodies. A variety of beta-cell antibodies including insulin and glutamic acid may exist. GAD 65 is present in 70-90% of pts with new onset T1DM

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14
Q

A 54yo man with T2DM has a BP of 146/92 and 138/90 on two separate occasions. Which of the following treatments offers the best outcomes to reduce cardiovascular complications of disease?

a) lifestyle modification
b) calcium channel blockers
c) diuretics
d) ACE inhibitors

A

d: The importance of aggressive BP management in diabetes is important in decreasing cardiovascular microvascular complications of diabetes. The JNC 7 report has established BP targets of less than 130/85. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors have both been effective in reducing cardiovascular and microvascular complications of diabetes. Because of the results of several large trials, ACE inhibitors are recommended as first line anti-HTN therapy in diabetic pts with HTN.

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15
Q

A 68yo woman complains of loss of appetite, weakness, fatigue, constipation, and impaired memory. She has a hx of two episodes of nephrolithiasis. Lab evaluation reveals calcium levels and PTH are high. Which of the following is a common manifestation of this disease?

a) anxiety
b) bone fractures
c) heart failure
d) hirsutism
e) proximal muscle weakness

A

b: This pt has hyperparathyroidism. The most common clinical manifestation of disease is nephrolithiasis due to elevated levels of PTH. There is a high rate of bone fractures in patients with PTH due to increases osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity.

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16
Q

63yo woman present with shortness of breath, cough, and proximal muscle weakness of 1 month duration. On clinical exam, she is noted to have a BP of 156/102, facial flushing, mild hirsutism, truncal obesity, marked proximal muscle weakness of both the upper and lower extremities, and hyper pigmentation over the palms and back of the neck. Lab exam reveals hypercortisolism and increased ACTH. Which of the following would be the most likely dx in this patient?

a) lymphoma
b) ovarian cancer
c) renal cell carcinoma
d) small cell lung carcinoma

A

d: Tumor cells may secrete hormones that have the same biologic actions as the normal hormone. This pts symptoms are consistent with adrenocorticoid hyper function. The most common cause of ectopic ACTH syndrome is SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA*. This should be suspected in any patient with risk factors for lung cancer.

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17
Q

A 54yo woman is taking glyburide, a second generation sulfonylurea, to control her type 2 DM. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the therapeutic effect of glyburide on this patient’s disease?

a) increase pancreatic insulin secretion, in part by acting on potassium channels
b) delay postprandial carbohydrate and glucose absorption
c) reduce hepatic glucose production by suppressing gluconeogenesis
d) inhibit cholesterol synthesis and carbohydrate uptake

A

a: Sulfonylureas have a principal action of the stimulation of endogenous insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The drug acts to close adenosine triphosphate-dependent potassium channels.

18
Q

A 38yo man presents to the ED experiencing a severe headache and heart palpitations. HE appears to be anxious and perspiring heavily. On exam, he is found to be tachycardia and his BP is 158/102. His urine catecholamines are increased. If imaging were performed, what is the most likely location where a lesson would be found?

a) pituitary gland
b) liver
c) adrenal gland
d) testicle
e) kidney

A

c: Pheochromocytomas produce, store, and secrete catecholamines. They are usually derived from the adrenal medulla, although they may be found in other locations.

19
Q

A 40yo obese woman presents for her annual physical exam. A fasting blood glucose level drawn with her routine lab test is 130mg/dL. In order to confirm the dx of T2DM, what would be the most appropriate next step?

a) glycated hemoglobin
b) 3 hour glucose tolerance test
c) repeat fasting blood glucose
d) insulin level

A

c: DM is confirmed by a fasting serum glucose greater than 126mg/dL on more than one occasion. Repeating a fasting serum glucose would be the next best step to confirm DM in this pt.

20
Q

A 67yo woman with T2DM is being treated for dyslipidemia. She does not have additional risk factors. What is the target LDL goal for this pt?

a) less than 70mg/dL
b) less than 100mg/dL
c) less than 120mg/dL
d) less than 130mg/dL
e) less than 160mg/dL

A

b: T2DM is a coronary heart disease (CHD) risk equivalent condition. The LDL goal for these pts is

21
Q

A 29yo woman presents to the office with complaints of for sleep, irritability, and nervousness. She appears anxious and restless. You note tachycardia and edematous skin change on the dorm of the lower legs and feet. She has exophthalmos and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland on exam. Which of the following finding would be expected on further evaluation?

a) low levels of FT4
b) high levels of TSH
c) low uptake on radioiodine nuclear scan
d) high levels of thyroid-stimulating antibodies

A

d: This pts signs and symptoms are consistent with Grave’s disease. The pathogenesis of Graves involves the formation of autoantibodies that bind to TSH receptors causing the gland to hyper function. The disease is often associated with a personal or family hx of autoimmune disorders.

22
Q

A 41yo woman presents with complaints of weight gain, infrequent menses, and mood changes. You observe her to have moon facies, centripetal fat distribution, and purple striae on her abdomen. Her BP is 152/98. What is the first step in confirming the dx?

a) random cortisol level
b) overnight dexamethasone suppression test
c) thyroid studies
d) MRI

A

b: This pts signs and symptoms indicate possible Cushing syndrome. Overnight dexamethasone testing is the most widely used test, with normal results excluding Cushing syndrome. Cortisol levels are not useful because of diurnal variations.

23
Q

A 26yo woman has decreased appetite, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarse voice, constipation, and arthralgia. What is the most likely etiology of her condition?

a) autoimmune thyroiditis
b) congenital hypothyroidism
c) dietary iodine deficiency
d) surgical resection of the thyroid gland

A

a: Autoimmune thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the US. Dietary iodine deficiency is the most common cause in underdeveloped regions of the world.

24
Q

How often should urine be obtained to screen for microalbuminemia in the management of a type 2 diabetic patient?

a) every 6 months
b) annually
c) every 2 years
d) every 5 years

A

b: Screening for proteinuria should be done annually in T2DM pts starting at the time of dx and yearly in T1DM patients beginning after 5 years of disease. Approx 20-30% of diabetic pts develop nephropathy.

25
Q

A 45yo pt presents 2 days post-operatively with a partial thyroidectomy. She has been experiencing vomiting with diarrhea. On physical exam, her temp is 101 degrees F and jaundice is noted. Her HR is irregularly irregular with a rate of 200 ppm. What would be the most appropriate pharmacological intervention?

a) radioactive iodine
b) propranolol
c) PTU 60mg
d) iopanoic acid 500mg

A

c: This pt is in a thyrotoxic crisis or thyroid storm. She need to be admitted for monitoring and supportive care. The initial tx would be PTU 600mg loading dose followed by 200-300 mg every 6hrs given either by NG tube or rectally.

26
Q

A 31yo woman is being evaluated for irregular, infrequent menstrual periods. On further questioning, she complains of headaches, fatigue, and breast discharge. She takes ibuprofen only occasionally. Which of the following labs would most likely be elevated?

a) BUN and creatinine
b) LH and FSH
c) oxytocin
d) prolactin
e) TSH

A

d: This pts symptoms are consistent with a pituitary adenoma. Prolactinomas account for about half of all functioning pituitary tumors and may secrete PRL, GH, and ACTH

27
Q

Which of the following oral agents used to treat T2DM is effective in lowering fasting blood glucose levels without causing hypoglycemia?

a) glyburide
b) metformin
c) repaglinide
d) pioglitazone

A

b: Metformin is considered a “euglycemic” or “anti hyperglycemic” drug because it does NOT cause a hypoglycemic reaction at therapeutic levels

28
Q
A 75yo man with T2DM presents to the ED with a 2 day hx of confusion and lethargy. ON physical exam, notable dehydration, tachycardia, and confused mental state is noted. Serum sodium, potassium, magnesium, and chloride levels are normal. The arterial blood gases are normal and serum ketones are negative. The abnormal lab findings are: Glucose 700 (normal 74-106)
Osmolality 380 (normal 275-295)
What is the most likely dx?
a) diabetic ketoacidosis
b) hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
c) hypoglycemia
d) dehydration
A

b: A hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state is characterized by dehydration, significant hyperglycemia, and an elevated serum osmolality with an insignificant or negative ketosis. Because of the lack of ketosis, the pt may present with a gradual onset of symptoms, and it can go unnoticed until the dehydration becomes more severe in ketoacidosis.

29
Q

When treating the dyslipidemia associated with T2DM, which of the following is the drug of choice?

a) bile acid sequestrates
b) Fibrate
c) fiber supplements
d) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
e) nicotinic acid derivatives

A

d: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) are the preferred initial choice for tx of dyslipidemia in diabetic pts.

30
Q

A 28yo woman is being treated for hypothyroidism with 200ug of levothyroxine daily. At a periodic dosage reassessment, her TSH was suppressed at 0.08 mU/L and she is symptomatic. What is the appropriate course of action?

a) increase her levothyroxine dose
b) decrease her levothyroxine dose
c) no change to her levothyroxine dose
d) change her med to PTU

A

b: important to perform regular periodic dosage reassessments for patients with hypothyroidism. Suppressed TSH levels (

31
Q

A 56yo woman is being seen for regular assessment and monitoring of her T2DM. She has been following a strict diet and exercise plan for 2 years with an addition of Metformin 6 months ago for an increased HbA1C. Her HbA1C at today’s appt is 7.1. What is the appropriate management for this pt?

a) add exenatide to her current Rx
b) change her oral therapy to rosiglitazone
c) add insulin to her current Rx
e) maintain her current therapy and recheck in 6 months

A

e: The HbA1C goal for this pt is less than 6.5, with action at a level of greater than 80. The appropriate action at this time is to continue her current therapy and reassess in 6 months!

32
Q

A 30yo pt presents 2 months post-thyroidectomy. The pt has had symptoms of increases irritability, muscle spasms, and hair loss for the past month. On physical exam, a positive Chovestek sign is noted. Which of the following is the most likely dx?

a) hypothyroidism
b) hypopituitarism
c) hypoparathyroidism
d) hypogonadism

A

c: Hypoparathyroidism commonly presents following thyroidectomy surgery. This pt has classic signs and symptoms of a LOW calcium level and hypoparathyroidism. Chovestek sign is a physical exam finding that is positive after tapping in front of the ear in the facial nerve region. When doing this, the muscle contracts. When the calcium level is low, this occurs! Hypothyroidism can occur following a thyroidectomy but the symptoms are NOT the same!

33
Q

A pt seen at the prenatal clinic develops Grave’s disease at 25 weeks gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate tx?

a) PTU 100mg po tid
b) methimazole 10-30mg po qd
c) propranolol 80 mg po kid
d) radioactive iodine therapy (RAI, 131I)
e) Levothyroxine 0.1mg po qd

A

a: In non pregnant pts, PTU and methimazole are the DOC for the management of Graves disease. During PG, PTU has a lower incidence of crossing the placental barrier than does methimazole. It is also excreted into breast milk to a lesser degree than is methimazole. Propranolol will help with the symptoms of Graves but not treat it. It can also cause low birth weight in the infant. RAI is contraindicated in PG. Levothyroxine will worsen Graves patient’s hyperthyroidism.

34
Q

You are considering the addition of glipizide therapy to the tx regimen for a pt with T2DM. Which of the following would be a contraindication if present in this pt?

a) HTN
b) diabetic retinopathy
c) liver impairment
d) age less than 85
e) osteoporosis

A

c: At least 90% of glipizide is metabolized int he liver to inactive products, and 10% is excreted unchanged in the urine. Because of the short half life, it is preferable to use glyburide in elderly pts because of lessened risk of hypoglycemia

35
Q

A 55yo man pt presents with tachycardia and heart palpitations. Physical exam shows multi nodular goiter. He does not have obstructive symptoms. He has suppressed TSH and elevated T3 & T4, and a thyroid scan shows multiple functioning nodules. What is the tx of choice for this pt?

a) PTU
b) beta-blockers
c) 131-I ablation
d) surgical resection

A

c: The tx of choice for multi-nodular goiter is 131-I ablation. In pts with very large thyroid glands WITH obstructive symptoms, surgical resection may be the best option

36
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause of hypercalcemia in an ambulatory pt?

a) parathyroid adenoma
b) renal insufficiency
c) Malabsorption
d) multiple myeloma

A

a: The most common cause of hypercalcemia in an ambulatory pt is a primary hyperparathyroid condition condition. These include parathyroid adenomas and parathyroid malignancies. Both of these account for 90% of the causes of hypercalcemia. Renal insufficiency, malabsorption , and multiple myeloma are all

37
Q

A 30yo woman present to the office with polyuria, fatigue, and a chronic white vaginal d/c with vaginal pruritis. She has been having the d/c off and on for the past 6 months with recurrent tx failures. Which of the following is the most likely dx?

a) T2DM
b) hyperthyroidism
c) hypothyroidism
d) diabetes insipidus

A

a: Polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue are all findings that can be consistent with both type 1 and type 2 DM. Any woman who presents with a chronic vaginal d/c or chronic vaginal pruritis should be screened for T2DM!

38
Q

A 26yo woman presents to the clinic with a 3month hx of galactorrhea and amenorrhea. Her serum hCG is negative and her serum prolactin is elevated at 220. You suspect pituitary adenoma. Which of the following physical exam findings is most likely to suggest a macro adenoma vs a micro adenoma?

a) visual field defects
b) significant weight loss
c) bilateral nipple discharge
d) elevated BP

A

a: Mass effects of an enlarging pituitary tumor are often related to the location of the optic chasm related to the sella turcica. Expansion of a macro adenoma places pressure on the optic chasm. Bitemporal hemianopia is the MC visual field abnormality.

39
Q

Which of the following drugs can cause syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a) carbamazepine
b) glyburide
c) lithium carbonate
d) metoprolol

A

a: Many medications can enhance the release or potentiate the effects of ADH. Carbamazepine may increase ADH release.

40
Q

A 39yo woman presents to the office for evaluation of a palpable nodule of 2yrs duration in the neck. She has no other symptoms. She has a hx of low-dose chest irradiation for an enlarged thymus gland during infancy. On exam, a firm, contender 2.5 cm nodule is palpable in the left lobe of they thyroid. Her TSH level is normal. What is the next diagnostic step?

a) ultrasound of the neck
b) thyroid san
c) MRI of the neck
d) FNA of the nodule

A

d: The most accurate test to confirm or exclude malignant disease in pts with a thyroid nodule and normal TSH level is a FNA bx. Solid nodules larger than 1.0-1.5cm in diameter should be tested!