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Delta Med - Endocrinology > Endocrinology 4 - Adrenology > Flashcards

Endocrinology 4 - Adrenology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the zones of the adrenal cortex, and what do they produce?

A 
Glomerulosa - Mineralocorticoids
 - aldosterone and precursors
 - in response to ATII, K and ACTH
Fasciculata - Glucocorticoids
 - Cortisol
 - Cortocosterone
 - in response to ACTH (Il-1, Il-6, TNF and neuropeptides)
Reticularis
 - Adrenal androgens - DHEA/S, androstenedione
 - in response to ACTH
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2
Q

What is produced in the adrenal medulla?

A

Catecholamines

  • Adrenaline (metanephrine)
  • Noradrenaline (normetanephrine)
  • Dopamine
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3
Q

What are clinical features of ‘non-classical’ CAH?

A

Prevalence 1:500
Females with precocious puberty
Androgen excess (hirsuit, oligmenorrhoea, acne, infertility)
Random 17-OH progesterone may be normal
17-OH-P >45nmol/L post synacthen - Diagnostic
Rx often not needed - antiandrogens for troublesome hisruitism, glucocorticoid/stress not required, ovulation induction.

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4
Q

What are characteristics of cortisol, and what does this mean for screening excess/deficiency?

A

Highest at 8am - check here for adrenal failure

Lowest at 0000 - check here for cushing’s

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5
Q

What is cortisol bound to, and what influences this?

A

90-95% bound to plasma proteins

  • 80% corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG)
  • 10-15% serum albumin

Pregnancy, oestrogen, hyperthyroidism, inflammation increase CBG

Hypothyroidism, protein deficiency, diminished synthetic capacity (genetics)

CBG inversely proportional to insulin

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6
Q

What are clinical Symptoms of Addison’s Disease?

A 
Weakness, fatigue
Anorexia
NV abdo pain
salt craving
postural drop
arthralgia
myalgia
low-libido (women)
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7
Q

What are signs of Addison’s Disease

A 
Hypotension, dehydration (disproportionate)
Anorexia/weight loss
Hyperpigmentation
loss of axillary and pubic hair (F)
Autoimmune vitiligo
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8
Q

What are Lab findings in addison’s disease?

A 
Hyponatraemia
Hyperkalaemia
Raised urea
Metabolic acidosis
NN anaemia
eosinophilia
lymphocytosis
T4 low, elevated TSH
Hypercalcaemia
Hypoglycaemia
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9
Q

What happens to cortisol and aldosterone in addison’s?

A

Decreased cortisol

  • increased ACTH - pigmentation
  • hypoglycaemia
  • weight loss from anorexia

Decreased aldosterone

  • increased renin
  • hyponatraemia
  • hypoerkalaemia
  • hyperchloraemic acidosis
  • decreased H20 retention, weight and BP
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10
Q

What are causes of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A 
Acute - haemorrhage or infarction of adrenals
Slow onset
- Autoimmune disease adrenalitis
- Infection -TB, AIDS
- Cancer - lymphoma, metastases
- Drugs - ketoconazole, etomidate
- Other - congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- Adrenoleukodystrophy (Males)
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11
Q

What are causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A 
Acute onset
- pituitary apoplexy
- pituitary/hypothalamic surgery
- TBI
Slow onset
- autoimmune disease - lymphocytic hypophysitis
- infectious disease - TB
- Cancer - pit/hypothalamic tumours/lymphoma
- Trauma - TBI, SAH, Radiation
- Drugs - megestrol acetate
Other
- discontinuation of exogenous steroids
- sarcoidosis
- empty sella syndrome
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12
Q

What is associated with HITTS?

A

bilateral adrenal haemorrhage

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13
Q

What is the first test in excluding adrenal insufficiency?

A

Early morning cortisol - if >550, reasonably exludes if patient not on glucocorticoids. 250-500 is probably sufficienct.

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14
Q

What is the role of the short synacthen test in adrenal insufficiency?

A

If cortisol is >550 at 30 or 60 minutes, reflects normal adrenal function in a well patient.

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15
Q

What is the role of the insulin tolerance test in adrenal insuffciency?

A

Gold standard test for ACTH/GH reserve.

only interpretable if hypoglycaemia induced 500, GH >20.

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16
Q

What is the significance of high ACTH and renin?

A

Indicates primary adrenal insufficiency (loss of aldosterone secretion)

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17
Q

When is imaging not indicated in adrenal disease?

A

IF there is associated autoimmune disease, adrenal autoantibodies.

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18
Q

What is the significance of autoimmune polyglandular syndrome?

A

If a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism is made, but miss coexisting adrenal insufficiency, commencing thyroid replacement therapy can precipiate an adrenal crisis - given thyoroxine accelerates the metabolic clearance of cortisol.

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19
Q

What are features of Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type I?

A

Addison’s disease
Hypoparathyroidism
Mucocutaneous candidosis

Due to AIRE defect.

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20
Q

What are principal features of Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type II?

A

Addison’s disease
Diabetes mellitus type 1
Hypothyroidism

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome?

A

failure of normal thymic negative selection with autoreactive T-cells escaping to the periphery.

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22
Q

What are features of adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive disorder

  • Cerebral ALD
    • childhood presentation
    • dementia, blindness, quadriplegia

Elevated very long chain fatty acids

Screen in any young man with adrenal insufficiency

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23
Q

What are features of adrenomyeloneuropathy?

A

X-linked recessive disorder

  • spasticity, distalpolyneuropathy
  • young men

Diagnosis - elevated very long chain fatty acids

Screen in any young man with adrenal insufficiency

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24
Q

What duration and dose of prednisone is required to cause HPA suppression?

A

> 5mg/day of pred for >4 weeks

Morning admin less likely to suppress vs nighttime admin.

Full recovery can take 12 months. HPA 2-5months, full adrenal function 9-12months

SST most commonly used method to test adrenal/HPA suppression.

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25
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on the liver?

A

hyperglycaemia

  • gluconeogenesis
  • glucose production from protein
  • increased pancreatic insulin pdn
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26
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on muscle?

A

muscle catabolism

  • mobilisation of AA
  • inhibition of glucose uptake
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27
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on fat tissue?

A

adipose tissue

  • inhibition of fat uptake promoting lipolysis
  • counteracted by increased insulin stimulating lipogenesis
28
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on the immune system?

A

anti-inflammatory:

- increased Neutrophils, decreased T/B lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils

29
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on bone?

A

bone catabolism

  • decreased bone formation by direct inhibition of osteoblasts
  • stimulation of bone resorption
30
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on vascular/fluid balance?

A

hypertension

  • increased sensitivity to vasoconstrictors
  • mineralocorticoid like effect
  • increased free water excretion (ADH antagonism and ADH independent effects)
31
Q

What clinical features are most discriminatory for cushing’s syndrome?

A 
easy bruising
facial plethora
proximal myopathy
striae (esp if purple, >1cm)
weight gain with decreasing growth velocity in children
32
Q

What are the best screening tests for cushing’s syndrome?

A
  1. 24hr free urinary cortisol
  2. 1mg overnight dexamethasone suppression
  3. midnight salivary cortisol
33
Q

What is the rationale of diagnosing cushing’s syndrome?

A

1st exclude endogenous glucocorticoids
perform 24hrFUC, 1mg ODS, Midnight SC
exclude physiologic causes of hypercortisolism
repeat one of above tests or consider Dex-CRH

34
Q

What are recommended tests for cushing’s in certain populations?

A

pregnancy - recommend using UFC instead of dex
epilepsy - do not use dex testing as interaction with AEDs - recommend nonsuppressed midnight cortisol
renal failure - 1mg overnight DST instead of UFC
cyclic cushing syndrome - recommend UFC
adrenal incidentaloma - recommend use of 1mg DST or late night cortisol, vs UFC

35
Q

What conditions are associated with hypercortisolism in absence of cushing’s syndrome?

A 
Some clinical features present:
Pregnancy
Depression
Alcohol dependence
Glucocorticoid resistance
Morbid obesity
Poorly controlled DM
Unlikely to have clinical features
Physical stress
Malnutrition, AN
Intense chronic exercise
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
CBG excess (increased serum, but not urine cortisol)
36
Q

What is the next step following confirmation of cushing’s syndrome?

A

Measurement of serum ACTH:
- 20 - ACTH dependent - pituitary vs ectopic source
10-20 - usually ACTH dependent

37
Q

What are features of pituitary cushings vs ectopic ACTH?

A

better responsiveness to dynamic testing, but substantial overlap. MRI pituitary not reliable (basically useless)

BIPPS often necessary, unless MRI shows >6mm adenoma AND suppression with HDDST/increase in CRH.

10% ectopics are suppressed by HDDST
ACTH/Cortisol >30% in CD, but not in ectopics on CRH test.

38
Q

What is the most likely cause of ectopic ACTH secretion?

A

bronchial carcinoid (40%)

39
Q

What conditions produce low renin and high aldosterone?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

  • bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
  • aldosterone producing adenoma (Conn)
  • Familial hyperaldosteronism
  • Pure aldo-producing carcinoma
40
Q

What conditions produce high renin and alsoterone?

A

Secondary hyperaldosteronism

  • renal artery stenosis
  • diuretics (?surreptitious)
  • renin secreting tumour
41
Q

What conditions produce low renin and low aldosterone?

A

Apparent mineralocorticoid excess

  • Exogenous mineralocorticoid
  • cushing’s syndrome (production of mineralocorticoid compounds)
  • licorice (inhibits 11b-HSD2)
  • CAH/11bHSD2 deficiency
  • Liddle’s syndrome (activating mutation of collecting tubule sodium channel)
42
Q

What excess is associated with fluticasone and ritonavir?

A

high glucocorticoid but normal cortisol

43
Q

What are clinical findings in primarly aldosteronism?

A 
Hypertension >95%
CV/CVD 4-12%
Hypokalemia +/- alkalosis (40%)
Hypokalemic Sx (fatigue, HA, arrhythmias, muscle weakness or cramping, paraesthesias, polyuria, impaired IGT) - 20%
mild hypernatremia
44
Q

What is the prevalence of various causes of primary aldosteronism?

A

bilateral idiopathic hyperplasia 60%
aldosterone producing adenoma 35%
Primary adrenal hyperplasia (unilat) 2%
Pure aldo producing adrenocortical carcinoma (

45
Q

When should testing for primary aldosteronism be considered?

A 
HTN and hypokalemia
resistant hypertension
adrenal incidentaloma and hypertension
onset of HTN160/100
whenever considering secondary hypertension
46
Q

What should be initially tested in w/u of primary aldosteronism?

A

Plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity

Increased PAC and Decreased PRA or PRC
AND PAC/PRA ratio >=555 or >=20

Investigate for primary aldosteronism

47
Q

What antihypertensives have minimal effects on ARR testing?

A 
verapamil SR
hydralazine
prazosin
doxazosin
terazosin
48
Q

What medications should be avoided in ARR testing?

A 
B-blockers
a2 agnoists (central)
NSAIDs
K+ wasting diruetics
K+ sparing diuretics
ACEi
ARBs
CCBs (dihydropyridine)
Renin inhibitors
49
Q

What are the most frequent Sx in phaeochromocytoma?

A

Headache 60-90%
Sweating 55-75%
Sustained HTN 50-60%
Palpitations 50-70%

50
Q

What precipitates phaeo crises?

A

anaesthesia
surgery
drugs (B-blockers, opiods, TCAs)

51
Q

When is genetic testing indicated in phaeo?

A

young, 50% have genetic cause

52
Q

What genes should be tested in phaeo?

A

Extra-adrenal - SDHB
Adrenal - RET, VHL
Multiple - SDHD, VHL
Malignant - SDHB

53
Q

What are features of tests for phaeo?

A

Plasma free metanephrines - Sn >95%, Sp 80-95%
Urinary fraction metanephrines - Sn >90%, Sp 80-95%
Urinary catecholamines - Sn 70-90%, Sp 70-95%

54
Q

What are imaging featuers of phaeo?

A

often heterogenous, large HU>30

55
Q

What are features of adrenal incidentalomas?

A

Common - up to 9% at autopsy, 4% of CT scans
25% increase in size on FU
40% of patients have mets to adrenals if cancer Hx

Malignant

56
Q

What are frequencies of adrenal mass aetiologies?

A 
Nonfunctional adrenal adenoma 70%
Subclinical cushing syndrome 5-10%
Phaeochromactyoma 5%
Adrenocortical carcinoma 4.5%
Met 2.5%
57
Q

What are features of adrenocortical adenomas?

A

Small, =50% washout of contrast at 10 minutes

Isointense on T2wI

58
Q

what are indications for surgery in an incidental adrenal mass?

A

Size >6cm or imaging sugg of malgnancy
Increase in Size
Functioning tumour
Phaeochromocytoma - for surgery
Primary hyperaldosteronism - surgery if unilateral disease confirmed
Autonomous cortisol secretion - consider if comobidities present, or in case of clearly abnormal endocrine tests.

59
Q

What are S+Sx suggestive of androgen deficiency in men?

A 
Incomplete sexual development, eunchoidism, aspermia
Reduced sexual desire (libido), activity
Decreased spontaneous erections
Breast discomfort, gynaecomastia
Loss of body hair, less shaving
Very small/shrinking testis (
60
Q

What conditions are associated with decreased SHBG?

A 
Moderate obesity
nephrotic syndrome
hypothyroidism
GC/progestins/androgenic steroids
Acromegaly
Diabetes Mellitus
61
Q

What conditions are associated with increased SHBG?

A 
Aging
hepatic cirrhosis and hepatitis
hyperthyroidism
use of anticonvulsants
use of estrogens
HIV disease
62
Q

What are causes of primary androgen deficiency?

A 
(elevated LH/FSH)
Acquired:
- testicular damage: trauma, orchitis, CTX/RTX/Toxins, spironolactone, ketoconazole
Congenital:
- klinefelter
- cryptorchidism
- mut in androgen bioenzyme synthesis
- LH/FSH receptor mutations
- myotonic dystrophy
63
Q

What are causes of secondary androgen deficiency?

A

LH/FSH normal
structural - pituitary/hypopit tumour, surgery, rad, trauma, infitration (fe, sarcoid, histiocytosis)
genetic - kallman, idiopathic HH, LH/FSH beta subunit mutations
functiona - hyperprolactinaemia, morbid obesity, curshing’s syndrome
partial/transient - acute illness, chronic disease (ESRD, COPD, HIV, T2DM) - drugs - GC, Opiods, GnRH agonist, anabolic steroids

64
Q

What are the effects of adiposity on testosterone?

A

moderate adiposity:

  • increased visceral fat
  • increased insulin resistance
  • decrease SHBG
  • decreased total testosterone

severe obesity (BMI >35)

  • massive increase in fat mass
  • increased aromatase
  • increased oestradiol
  • decreased LH
  • decreased free and total T
65
Q

What are causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

Macroadenoma = mass effect

Micro-prolactinoma - PRL inhibits gonadotrophins

66
Q

What is the relevance of prolactin in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

if >5-10x ULN, almost always due to prolactinoma

67
Q

What should be monitored in patients on testosterone replacement therapy?

A 
testosterone levels
liver function
PSA
DRE
lipids
hct
BMD if prev #

Delta Med - Endocrinology (4 decks)

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