Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A
  • Infarction of the pituitary gland secondary to profound blood loss during postpartum.
  • Most common consequence is disruption of the production of growth hormone and prolactin causing agalctorhea, but can affect other hormones in the anterior pituitary.
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2
Q

First line management in Type 2 DM ?

A

Metformin , up titrate, if contraindicated due to CVD than SGLT-2 inhibitor. if contraindicated for different reason than DPP-4

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3
Q

Second line management for Type 2 DM ?

A

Add on one of in addition to metformin:
- DPP-4 inhibitor
- pioglitazone
-Sulfonylurea
- SGLT 2 inhibitor

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4
Q

Third line management for DM type 2

A

Add a third one from the below :
- DPP-4 inhibitor
- pioglitazone
-Sulfonylurea
- SGLT 2 inhibitor
Or start Insulin

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5
Q

If third line therapy for DM is not sufficient , what is next?

A

Insulin or GLP2 mimetic if BMI >35 or insulin would have occupational implications.

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6
Q

How do you distinguish PCOS from non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia on bloods?

A
  • Clinical features are very similar - hirsutism, acne, irregular periods, early periods.
  • Biochemically both will show elevated testosterone however Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia, will also show elevated 17-hydroprogensterone.
  • PCOS usually develops after puberty not during
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7
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

It is a condition in which target cells are being insensitive to PTH, due to abnormality in the G protein.
- Clinical manifestations include : low IQ, short stature, shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals.
- Biochemistry - low calcium, high phosphate and high PTH
- Diagnosed via measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate following infusion of PTH.
-> In hypoparathyroidism neither cAMP n
or phosphate levels will increase.
-> In pseudohypoparathyroidism type 1 neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased.
- > In pseudohypoparathyroidism type 2 only cAMP rises
- Treatment is calcium and vitamin D supplementation

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8
Q

Criteria for offering parathyroidectomy even to patients with primary asymptomatic hyperparathyroidism?

A

-Serum calcium 0.25mmol/L above the upper limit
- eGFR < 60
- Current or previous nephrolithiasis or nephrocalcinosis
- Osteoporosis - T score < or = to - 2.5
- Age less than 50

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9
Q

What are the amino acid modifications seen in glargine insulin?

A
  • Insulin glargine is a long acting insulin analogue, such as detemir. - – The main use for insulin analogues is in improving glycaemic control in type 1 diabetes. Some patients may be limited in HbA1c reductions due to post meal hypoglycaemia, or nocturnal hypoglycaemia, this is where long acting insulins help as they keep a steady state.
  • Glycine is at position A21, two arginine are added to the B chain
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10
Q

Medication linked to SIADH ?

A
  • Vincristine,
  • vinblastine
  • cyclophosphamide
  • chlorpropamide
  • clofibrate
  • phenothiazines
  • Monoamine oxidase uptake inhibitors.
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11
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of SIADH?

A
  • normal renal , adrenal and thyroid function, with hyponatraemia and hypotonic plasma ( <270)
  • urine sodium should be inappropriately high and there should be excessive renal sodium loss of at least 20mmol/L
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12
Q

Why is hypercalcaemia seen in sarcoidosis?

A
  • It is due to uncontrolled synthesis of 1.25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 by macrophages, 1.25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 leads to an increased absorption of calcium in the intestine and an increased resorption of calcium in the bone.
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13
Q

MEN type 1

A

3Ps
- Parathyroid (95%) - hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia
- Pituitary (70%)
- Pancreas (50%) - insulinomas or gastrinoma e.g Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
=> MEN 1 gene

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14
Q

MEN type II a

A

Medullary thyroid cancer in 70%
+ 2Ps
-> parathyroid (60%)
-> phaeochromocytoma
=> RET oncogene

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15
Q

MEN type IIb

A

Medullary thyroid cancer + 1P
-> Phaeochromocytoma
+ Marfanoid body habitus , neuromas
=> RET oncogene

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16
Q

What is a craniopharyngioma and what are some hallmark features ?

A
  • It is slow growing calcified cystic tumour arising from the remnants of the craniopharyngeal duct.
  • Symptoms usually develop when the tumour is 3cm diameter or bigger.
  • Most common symptoms are growth failure and delayed puberty from compression of the anterior pituitary.
  • Radiologically common feature - suprasellar calcified cyst, with calcification being more common in children compared to adults
17
Q

Best test to confirm medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

Pentagastrin test - pentagastrin is a synthetic peptide - that simulates gastrin, prompting prodduction of calcitonin from the thyroid gland, in medullary thyroid cancer the C cells are neoplastic so they overproduce calcitonin.

18
Q

The best way to distinguish between infesction and charcot’s arthropathy?

A

Indium-labelled white cell scan

19
Q

Charcot’s , why and what to do?

A

Charcot’s is thought to occur due to increased blood flow as a result of neuropathy. This results in increased osteoclast activity and bone turnover; the foot is then susceptible to often very minor trauma and destructive changes take place. Experts recommend immobilisation for at least 3 months in an aircast-type non-weight-bearing plaster. This is to allow bone remodelling/repair to occur. Bisphosphonates are a useful adjunct to the healing process as they reduce osteoclast activity. Whilst insulin therapy is likely to improve glycaemic control and slow further progression of neuropathy, it will not affect recovery of the Charcot’s joint

20
Q

What does TP- ALB stand for ?

A

TP-ALB stands for:

TP = Total Protein

ALB = Albumin

So, TP-ALB refers to the globulin fraction, which is calculated by subtracting albumin from total protein:

Globulin = Total Protein – Albumin

An elevated TP-ALB (i.e., raised globulin fraction) suggests hyperglobulinaemia, commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to excess monoclonal immunoglobulin production.

21
Q

Subacute thyroiditis treatment and diagnostic features?

A
  • malaise and neck pain radiating to the ear or head.
  • gland is tender and nodular on palpation
  • Elevates ESR
  • Technetium-99m scan shows no technetium uptake by the thyroid gland.
  • Mild cases can be treated by NSAID with more severe cases causing thyrotoxicosis treated with prednisalone, which can be stopped once the T4 normalises.
22
Q

Indications for elective parathyroid surgery ?

A
  • serum Ca²⁺ level > 0.25 mmol/l above the upper limit of normal
  • marked hypercalciuria (> 400 mg/day) or renal stones
  • creatinine clearance < 30% of normal
  • marked bone density reduction with a T-score < 2.5 at any site
  • age < 50 years (if the problem is left untreated, many of these younger patients eventually develop complications of primary hyperparathyroidism)
  • a patient for whom surveillance and follow-up are difficult or impossible.
23
Q

Management in acute prathryoidism with high calcium and high PTH?

A

Levels of calcium above 3.5 are associated with cardiac arythmias, coma, pancreatitis. The treatements includes agressive re-hydration following which IV bisphosphonates - pamidronate being the treatment of choice.
- Emergency surgery is only considered when the above has shown to be inefective.

24
Q

What is McCune-Albright syndrome and what are the cardinal features?

A

McCune-Albright syndrome is not inherited, it is due to a random, somatic mutation in the GNAS gene.

  • Features
  • precocious puberty
  • cafe-au-lait spots
  • polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
  • short stature
25
Woman with PCOS, normal BMI, struggles with acne and hirsutism, already on COCP or it is contraindicated what would be next line for symtpoms manegement?
- Cyproterone acetate - Found in Co-cyprindiol (e.g. Dianette), which is given in combination with ethinylestradiol - Has both anti-androgen and progestogenic effects - Not first line for contraception - Off label in the UK, spironolactone and finesteride
26
How would you distinguish organic causes of hyperthyroidism from thyrotoxicosis factita ( thyroid hormone abuse)?
- In thyrotoxicosis factita there are low thyroglobulin levels, as well as no enlarged gland, and decreased uptake on thyroid scanning.
27
The difference between secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is when you have hypocalcaemia 2ndary to CKD ( poor vitamin D activation and therefore unsuficient amount of calcoum absorbed ), causing increased PTH. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is when there is parathyroid gland hyperplasia, due to 2ndary hyperparathyroidism, and now PTH is being produced in excess even in view of a raised calcium.
28
Polyglandular syndrome type 1 ?
Two or more of the following - hypoparathyroidism, primary adrenal insufficiency (60%), chronic mucocutanous candisiasis, primary gonadal failure and primary hypothyroidism.
29
Polyglandular syndrom type 2 ?
Primary adrenal inssufiency, with primary hypothyroidism +/- DM.
30
Polyglandular syndrome type 3 ?
Not assosiated with adrenal inssuficiency, autoimune thyroiditis, in conjunction with Diabetes mellitus, pernicious anaemia or vetiligo.
31
What is Sevelamer?
It is a phosphate binder
32
What is cinacalcet ?
It works as an agonist at the site of calcium sensor on the parathyroid gland, leading to supression of PTH levels.
33
When is parathyroidectomy in a non-CKD patient not the right answer ?
- When the patient is assymptomatic and has only a mild. moderate elevation of caclium , e.g less than 3mmol.
34
What two conditions are assosiated with HLA-DR4 and therefore one should make you consider the other ?
- Type 1 DM and rheumatoid arthritis.
35
Symptoms that strongly suggest acromegaly ?
- Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome - macroglossia - proganthism - frontal bossing - enlarged hands - arthralgia - DM - HTN
36
Tests for gastric motility issues related to DM and treatment options ?
- Isotopic gastaric motility study - Treatment involve prokinetic agents : domperidone , metoclopramide, erythromycin.