Endocrinology Flashcards
Topic: DIABETES MELLITUS
Questions
1-
According to the International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG) criteria, which of the following values confirms GDM in a 75g OGTT at 24–28 weeks of gestation?
a) Fasting glucose ≥92 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥180 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥153 mg/dL
b) Fasting glucose ≥100 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥200 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥140 mg/dL
c) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL or HbA1c ≥6.5%
d) Random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL with polyuria and polydipsia
Answer:
a) Fasting glucose ≥92 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥180 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥153 mg/dL
Explanation: The IADPSG criteria, endorsed by the American Diabetes Association (ADA), recommend a one-step 75g OGTT with these thresholds for diagnosing GDM.
Which fetal complication is most strongly associated with maternal hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes?
a) Congenital heart defects
b) Caudal regression syndrome
c) Macrosomia
d) Sacral agenesis
Answer:
c) Macrosomia
Maternal hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) leads to excessive glucose transfer to the fetus, which stimulates fetal insulin secretion. This results in increased fat deposition and accelerated fetal growth, leading to macrosomia (birth weight > 4,000 g or > 90th percentile for gestational age).
Why not the other options?
• (a) Congenital heart defects – More strongly associated with pre-existing (overt) diabetes, not GDM.
• (b) Caudal regression syndrome – Rare but linked to pre-gestational diabetes, not GDM.
• (d) Sacral agenesis – Also associated with pre-gestational diabetes, particularly poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes.
Gestational diabetes usually develops after organogenesis (2nd-3rd trimester), so it does not cause major congenital anomalies, unlike pregestational diabetes.
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
a) Absolute insulin deficiency due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction
b) Increased insulin resistance mediated by placental hormones
c) Primary defect in pancreatic beta-cell function similar to MODY
d) Enhanced hepatic glucose production due to increased glucagon secretion
The correct answer is:
b) Increased insulin resistance mediated by placental hormones
Explanation:
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) occurs due to progressive insulin resistance caused by placental hormones, particularly:
• Human placental lactogen (hPL)
• Progesterone
• Cortisol
• Prolactin
These hormones antagonize insulin, leading to reduced maternal glucose uptake and increased blood glucose levels. This ensures adequate glucose supply for the fetus but may cause hyperglycemia if the mother’s pancreas cannot compensate with increased insulin production.
Why not the other options?
• (a) Absolute insulin deficiency due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction – Describes Type 1 diabetes mellitus, not GDM.
• (c) Primary defect in pancreatic beta-cell function similar to MODY – MODY (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) is a monogenic form of diabetes caused by genetic mutations affecting beta-cell function, which is different from GDM.
• (d) Enhanced hepatic glucose production due to increased glucagon secretion – More characteristic of Type 2 diabetes mellitus, where insulin resistance and glucagon dysregulation both play a role.
GDM typically resolves after delivery when placental hormones disappear, confirming its hormone-driven mechanism.
According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) criteria, which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
a) ≥100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L)
b) ≥110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
c) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions
d) ≥140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) on a single test
Answer:
c) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions
Explanation:
A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions confirms diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as 100–125 mg/dL, while a glucose level ≥140 mg/dL is used for the 2-hour OGTT, not fasting glucose.
Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
a) Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) test
b) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with 75g glucose
c) Random plasma glucose (RPG) with classic symptoms
d) HbA1c measurement
Answer:
b) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with 75g glucose
Explanation:
The OGTT is considered the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes, especially in cases of gestational diabetes or borderline fasting glucose. The 2-hour post-load glucose reading is more sensitive for detecting early glucose metabolism abnormalities.
A 50-year-old asymptomatic patient undergoes a routine health check. His HbA1c is 6.3%. How should this be interpreted?
a) Normal glucose tolerance
b) Prediabetes
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Reactive hypoglycemia
Answer:
b) Prediabetes
Explanation:
• Normal HbA1c: <5.7%
• Prediabetes: 5.7%–6.4%
• Diabetes: ≥6.5% on two occasions
This patient has prediabetes and is at high risk of progressing to Type 2 diabetes.
Which of the following conditions may cause a falsely low HbA1c, leading to underdiagnosis of diabetes?
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Chronic kidney disease (CKD)
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Hypertriglyceridemia
Answer:
c) Hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months, but conditions that shorten red blood cell lifespan (e.g., hemolytic anemia, acute blood loss, or recent transfusions) cause falsely low HbA1c values, underestimating glucose levels.
Which test is most specific for diagnosing Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a) C-peptide level
b) Fasting plasma glucose (FPG)
c) HbA1c
d) Islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, ZnT8)
Answer:
d) Islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, ZnT8)
Explanation:
The presence of islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, and ZnT8) is the most specific marker for diagnosing Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). These autoantibodies indicate autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which is the hallmark of T1DM.
C-peptide levels (option a) can help distinguish T1DM (low C-peptide) from T2DM (normal or high C-peptide) but are not specific for Type 1 diabetes.
Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) (option b) and HbA1c (option c) are used to diagnose diabetes in general but do not differentiate Type 1 from Type 2.
A 45-year-old man with Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) presents with hypoglycemia unawareness despite frequent glucose monitoring. What is the most likely cause?
a) Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
b) Chronic exposure to hypoglycemia leading to autonomic failure
c) Delayed gastric emptying due to diabetic gastroparesis
d) Beta-cell regeneration causing unpredictable insulin secretion
Answer:
b) Chronic exposure to hypoglycemia leading to autonomic failure
Explanation:
This patient has hypoglycemia unawareness, which occurs due to hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia lead to a blunted counterregulatory response, particularly reduced epinephrine secretion, impairing the body’s ability to detect and respond to low blood sugar levels.
• Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis (a) is a response to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.
• Diabetic gastroparesis (c) can cause delayed glucose absorption, leading to erratic blood glucose levels, but it does not directly cause hypoglycemia unawareness.
• Beta-cell regeneration (d) is not a significant factor in established T1DM, as autoimmune destruction of beta cells is usually irreversible.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a) Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
b) Anti-insulin (IAA)
c) Anti-islet antigen-2 (IA-2)
d) Anti-ZnT8
Answer:
d) Anti-ZnT8
Explanation:
Anti-ZnT8 (Zinc Transporter 8 autoantibody) is the most specific autoantibody for Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). It is present in 60–80% of newly diagnosed T1DM patients and is often found in cases where other autoantibodies (e.g., GAD, IA-2) are absent.
• Anti-GAD (a) is the most commonly detected (SENSITIVE) autoantibody in T1DM but is less specific, as it can also be present in latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA).
• Anti-IAA (b) is often seen in young children with T1DM but can also be found in people exposed to exogenous insulin.
• Anti-IA-2 (c) is highly associated with rapid beta-cell destruction but is less specific than ZnT8.
Which of the following best describes the therapeutic agent teplizumab?
a) A humanized anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody
b) An Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody
c) A recombinant insulin analog
d) A glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist
Answer: b) An Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody
Explanation:
Teplizumab is an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody engineered to avoid binding to Fc receptors. This modification reduces potential immune activation and adverse effects, allowing it to modulate T-cell responses in a controlled manner. This mechanism is distinct from therapies that target CD20 (option a), are recombinant insulin analogs (option c), or are GLP-1 receptor agonists (option d).
Which of the following is the most common genetic predisposition associated with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
a) HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4
b) HLA-B27
c) HLA-DR2 and HLA-DQ6
d) HLA-A3
Answer:
a) HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4
• T1DM is strongly associated with HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4, particularly in combination with HLA-DQ8.
• HLA-DR2 is protective against T1DM.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
a) Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
b) Anti-insulin
c) Anti-islet cell (ICA)
d) Anti-zinc transporter 8 (ZnT8)
The correct answer is:
d) Anti-zinc transporter 8 (ZnT8)
Explanation:
Among the autoantibodies associated with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), ZnT8 autoantibodies are considered the most specific for the disease.
Why ZnT8?
• ZnT8 is a beta-cell–specific zinc transporter involved in insulin packaging.
• Autoantibodies against ZnT8 are highly specific for T1DM and are often detected in newly diagnosed patients.
• ZnT8 antibodies can be present even when other autoantibodies are absent, making them useful in diagnosis.
Why not the other options?
• Anti-GAD (a) – Common in T1DM but also found in autoimmune thyroid disease and stiff-person syndrome.
• Anti-insulin (b) – Can be seen in both T1DM and in patients receiving exogenous insulin.
• Anti-islet cell (ICA) (c) – Present in T1DM but less specific, as they also occur in other autoimmune conditions.
Key Takeaway:
ZnT8 autoantibodies have the highest specificity for the disease.
GAD - more SENSITIVE but not specific
A 14-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Lab tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Which of the following immune cells play a primary role in the pathogenesis of her condition?
a) B lymphocytes producing autoantibodies
b) CD4+ T cells activating eosinophils
c) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells targeting beta cells
d) Macrophages releasing IL-6 and TNF-alpha
The correct answer is:
c) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells targeting beta cells
Explanation:
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by T-cell–mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
• CD8+ cytotoxic T cells are the primary mediators of beta-cell destruction in T1DM.
• These T cells directly attack pancreatic beta cells, leading to their apoptosis and progressive loss.
Why not the other options?
• (a) B lymphocytes producing autoantibodies – Autoantibodies (e.g., anti-GAD, ICA, ZnT8) are markers of the disease but do not directly cause beta-cell destruction.
• (b) CD4+ T cells activating eosinophils – T1DM is a Th1-driven autoimmune disease, not associated with eosinophilic activation.
• (d) Macrophages releasing IL-6 and TNF-alpha – These cytokines contribute to inflammation but do not directly destroy beta cells.
Key Takeaway:
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells are the main immune cells responsible for beta-cell destruction in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.
A 17-year-old male with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found to have persistent postprandial hyperglycemia despite insulin therapy. His insulin requirements are increasing. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) Insulin receptor mutations
b) Development of insulin autoantibodies
c) Lipodystrophy at injection sites
d) Coexisting C-peptide secretion
The correct answer is:
b) Development of insulin autoantibodies
Explanation:
In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), insulin autoantibodies (IAAs) can develop, especially in patients receiving exogenous insulin. These antibodies bind to insulin, altering its pharmacokinetics and leading to:
• Delayed insulin action → Postprandial hyperglycemia
• Prolonged insulin effect → Increased risk of late hypoglycemia
IAAs can cause erratic glucose control and increasing insulin requirements due to unpredictable insulin release from immune complexes.
Why not the other options?
• (a) Insulin receptor mutations – These are seen in Type A insulin resistance syndrome, which presents with severe insulin resistance, acanthosis nigricans, and hyperinsulinemia (not typical of T1DM).
• (c) Lipodystrophy at injection sites – Can impair insulin absorption, but it does not explain increasing insulin requirements systemically.
• (d) Coexisting C-peptide secretion – T1DM patients have minimal or no C-peptide secretion due to beta-cell destruction, unlike in early Type 2 DM or LADA.
Key Takeaway:
Insulin autoantibodies can lead to erratic insulin activity, delayed postprandial glucose control, and increasing insulin needs in T1DM.
A patient with newly diagnosed Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is undergoing evaluation for additional autoimmune conditions. Which of the following is most likely to coexist with T1DM?
a) Addison’s disease
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Systemic sclerosis
d) Pernicious anemia
The correct answer is:
a) Addison’s disease
Explanation:
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is frequently associated with other autoimmune disorders, particularly those affecting endocrine glands. Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) is one of the most common autoimmune conditions found in T1DM patients and is part of Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome Type 2 (APS-2), which includes:
• Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
• Addison’s disease
• Autoimmune thyroid disease (Hashimoto’s or Graves’ disease)
Patients with APS-2 are at high risk for adrenal crisis, which presents with hypotension, fatigue, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia.
Why not the other options?
• (b) Myasthenia gravis – A neuromuscular autoimmune disorder associated with thymic abnormalities, not commonly linked to T1DM.
• (c) Systemic sclerosis – A connective tissue disease; not strongly associated with T1DM.
• (d) Pernicious anemia – Caused by autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. While it can coexist with T1DM, Addison’s disease is more strongly associated.
Key Takeaway:
Patients with T1DM should be screened for Addison’s disease, especially if they present with unexplained fatigue, hypotension, or recurrent hypoglycemia.
Which of the following metabolic changes occurs earliest in the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
a) Increased hepatic ketogenesis
b) Depletion of glycogen stores
c) Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria
d) Elevated serum anion gap
The correct answer is:
c) Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria
Explanation:
In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), hyperglycemia develops first, leading to osmotic diuresis and subsequent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances before ketosis becomes significant.
Early Events in DKA Pathogenesis:
1. Absolute insulin deficiency → Increased hepatic glucose output & reduced peripheral glucose uptake
2. Severe hyperglycemia (≥250 mg/dL) → Exceeds renal glucose threshold (≈180 mg/dL)
3. Glucosuria → Osmotic diuresis → Causes polyuria, dehydration, and hyperosmolality
4. Volume depletion worsens hyperglycemia and triggers counterregulatory hormones (glucagon, cortisol, epinephrine)
5. Ketogenesis begins later, leading to anion gap metabolic acidosis
Why not the other options?
• (a) Increased hepatic ketogenesis – Ketone production (β-hydroxybutyrate & acetoacetate) increases after dehydration and hyperglycemia trigger counterregulatory hormones.
• (b) Depletion of glycogen stores – While hepatic glycogenolysis contributes to hyperglycemia, glycogen stores are not fully depleted until later stages.
• (d) Elevated serum anion gap – This occurs after significant ketoacid accumulation; it’s not the earliest metabolic change.
Key Takeaway:
Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria is the earliest metabolic change in DKA, occurring before ketogenesis and anion gap elevation.
Which of the following cytokines is most strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
a) IL-4
b) IL-10
c) IFN-gamma
d) TGF-beta
The correct answer is:
c) IFN-gamma
Explanation:
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is an autoimmune disease characterized by T-cell–mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells. Among the various cytokines involved, IFN-gamma (Interferon-gamma) plays a key role in disease pathogenesis.
Role of IFN-gamma in T1DM:
• Produced by Th1 cells
• Activates macrophages and promotes beta-cell destruction
• Increases MHC class I expression on beta cells, making them more vulnerable to cytotoxic CD8+ T-cell attack
• Enhances the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1β), further damaging beta cells
Why not the other options?
• (a) IL-4 – A Th2 cytokine, which is actually protective against autoimmune beta-cell destruction.
• (b) IL-10 – An anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits immune-mediated beta-cell damage.
• (d) TGF-beta – Involved in immune tolerance and regulation of T-cell responses; it is not a driver of T1DM pathology.
Key Takeaway:
IFN-gamma is the most strongly implicated cytokine in the pathogenesis of T1DM, promoting beta-cell destruction via Th1-mediated immune responses.
What is the clinical significance of teplizumab delaying the onset of stage 3 T1D?
a) It provides a permanent cure for T1D.
b) It demonstrates that immune modulation can alter the natural history of T1D.
c) It replaces the need for insulin therapy in T1D patients.
d) It increases insulin secretion from beta cells indefinitely.
Answer: b) It demonstrates that immune modulation can alter the natural history of T1D.
Explanation:
Teplizumab, an Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody, has been shown to delay the onset of stage 3 Type 1 Diabetes (T1D) by a median of 2.7 years in high-risk individuals. This finding is clinically significant because it provides proof-of-concept that targeted immune modulation can modify the progression of T1D.
It does not permanently cure the disease (ruling out option a), eliminate the future need for insulin therapy (ruling out option c), or indefinitely boost beta-cell insulin secretion (ruling out option d).
Rather, it supports the idea that intervening in the immune-mediated processes can change the disease course.
Which of the following statements best reflects the genetic contribution to Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)?
a) It is entirely monogenic, typically caused by a single gene defect.
b) Concordance rates in monozygotic (identical) twins are approximately 70%.
c) It is solely influenced by environmental factors such as diet and inactivity.
d) Having one affected parent does not increase the risk of T2DM.
Answer: b) Concordance rates in monozygotic (identical) twins are approximately 70%.
Explanation
• Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) has a strong genetic component, as evidenced by high concordance rates in identical twins, often cited in the range of 70–90%.
• However, T2DM is not a purely monogenic condition (eliminating option a); rather, it’s polygenic, with multiple genes each contributing modest risk.
• Environmental and lifestyle factors (such as obesity, physical inactivity, and diet) are also crucial—so it’s not solely influenced by environment (eliminating option c).
• Having a first-degree relative with T2DM does increase one’s risk, so it’s incorrect to say it does not (eliminating option d).
Hence, the statement about ~70% concordance in monozygotic twins best reflects the significant hereditary (but also multifactorial) nature of T2DM.
Which gene has been identified as one of the strongest common genetic risk factors for T2DM in multiple populations?
a) PPARG
b) TCF7L2
c) KCNJ11
d) CAPN10
Answer: b) TCF7L2
Explanation
• TCF7L2 (Transcription Factor 7-Like 2) has consistently shown one of the strongest associations with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus across diverse ethnic groups.
• While PPARG, KCNJ11, and CAPN10 also play roles in T2DM risk, TCF7L2 variants generally confer a higher relative risk compared to other common genetic factors.
• TCF7L2 influences beta-cell function and the incretin pathway, which are critical for glucose homeostasis.
Which of the following best describes the nature of T2DM inheritance?
a) It follows a strict autosomal dominant pattern.
b) It is largely polygenic, with multiple genes each conferring small to moderate risk.
c) It is primarily due to mitochondrial DNA mutations.
d) It does not have any hereditary component.
Answer: b) It is largely polygenic, with multiple genes each conferring small to moderate risk.
Explanation
• Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) is a multifactorial disorder where numerous genetic variants each contribute a small to moderate risk.
• It does not follow a simple Mendelian (e.g., autosomal dominant) pattern (eliminating option a).
• While mitochondrial dysfunction may play a role in some metabolic diseases, T2DM is not primarily caused by mitochondrial DNA mutations (eliminating option c).
• There is a significant hereditary component to T2DM, so option d is incorrect.
• Instead, T2DM results from the cumulative effects of many genetic factors (polygenic inheritance) in combination with environmental and lifestyle influences.
Which mechanism best explains how PPARG (peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma) variants predispose individuals to T2DM?
a) They cause autoimmune destruction of beta cells.
b) They alter adipocyte differentiation and insulin sensitivity.
c) They directly inhibit hepatic glucose output.
d) They block incretin hormone action.
Answer: b) They alter adipocyte differentiation and insulin sensitivity.
Explanation
PPARG is a nuclear receptor that functions as a transcription factor involved in regulating adipocyte differentiation, lipid metabolism, and insulin sensitivity. Variants in PPARG can lead to alterations in the normal differentiation process of adipocytes, resulting in dysfunctional fat storage and impaired insulin signaling. This contributes to insulin resistance—a hallmark of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.
• Autoimmune destruction of beta cells (a) is a mechanism seen in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, not T2DM.
• Direct inhibition of hepatic glucose output (c) is not the primary role of PPARG.
• Blocking incretin hormone action (d) is unrelated to PPARG function.