Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

Topic: DIABETES MELLITUS

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Questions
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2
Q

According to the International Association of Diabetes and Pregnancy Study Groups (IADPSG) criteria, which of the following values confirms GDM in a 75g OGTT at 24–28 weeks of gestation?

a) Fasting glucose ≥92 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥180 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥153 mg/dL
b) Fasting glucose ≥100 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥200 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥140 mg/dL
c) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL or HbA1c ≥6.5%
d) Random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL with polyuria and polydipsia

A

Answer:
a) Fasting glucose ≥92 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose ≥180 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose ≥153 mg/dL

Explanation: The IADPSG criteria, endorsed by the American Diabetes Association (ADA), recommend a one-step 75g OGTT with these thresholds for diagnosing GDM.

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3
Q

Which fetal complication is most strongly associated with maternal hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes?

a) Congenital heart defects
b) Caudal regression syndrome
c) Macrosomia
d) Sacral agenesis

A

Answer:

c) Macrosomia

Maternal hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) leads to excessive glucose transfer to the fetus, which stimulates fetal insulin secretion. This results in increased fat deposition and accelerated fetal growth, leading to macrosomia (birth weight > 4,000 g or > 90th percentile for gestational age).

Why not the other options?
• (a) Congenital heart defects – More strongly associated with pre-existing (overt) diabetes, not GDM.
• (b) Caudal regression syndrome – Rare but linked to pre-gestational diabetes, not GDM.
• (d) Sacral agenesis – Also associated with pre-gestational diabetes, particularly poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes.

Gestational diabetes usually develops after organogenesis (2nd-3rd trimester), so it does not cause major congenital anomalies, unlike pregestational diabetes.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

a) Absolute insulin deficiency due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction
b) Increased insulin resistance mediated by placental hormones
c) Primary defect in pancreatic beta-cell function similar to MODY
d) Enhanced hepatic glucose production due to increased glucagon secretion

A

The correct answer is:

b) Increased insulin resistance mediated by placental hormones

Explanation:

Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) occurs due to progressive insulin resistance caused by placental hormones, particularly:
• Human placental lactogen (hPL)
• Progesterone
• Cortisol
• Prolactin

These hormones antagonize insulin, leading to reduced maternal glucose uptake and increased blood glucose levels. This ensures adequate glucose supply for the fetus but may cause hyperglycemia if the mother’s pancreas cannot compensate with increased insulin production.

Why not the other options?
• (a) Absolute insulin deficiency due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction – Describes Type 1 diabetes mellitus, not GDM.
• (c) Primary defect in pancreatic beta-cell function similar to MODY – MODY (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) is a monogenic form of diabetes caused by genetic mutations affecting beta-cell function, which is different from GDM.
• (d) Enhanced hepatic glucose production due to increased glucagon secretion – More characteristic of Type 2 diabetes mellitus, where insulin resistance and glucagon dysregulation both play a role.

GDM typically resolves after delivery when placental hormones disappear, confirming its hormone-driven mechanism.

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5
Q

According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) criteria, which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?

a) ≥100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L)
b) ≥110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
c) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions
d) ≥140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) on a single test

A

Answer:
c) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions

Explanation:
A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on two separate occasions confirms diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as 100–125 mg/dL, while a glucose level ≥140 mg/dL is used for the 2-hour OGTT, not fasting glucose.

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6
Q

Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?

a) Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) test
b) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with 75g glucose
c) Random plasma glucose (RPG) with classic symptoms
d) HbA1c measurement

A

Answer:
b) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with 75g glucose

Explanation:
The OGTT is considered the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes, especially in cases of gestational diabetes or borderline fasting glucose. The 2-hour post-load glucose reading is more sensitive for detecting early glucose metabolism abnormalities.

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7
Q

A 50-year-old asymptomatic patient undergoes a routine health check. His HbA1c is 6.3%. How should this be interpreted?

a) Normal glucose tolerance
b) Prediabetes
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Reactive hypoglycemia

A

Answer:
b) Prediabetes

Explanation:
• Normal HbA1c: <5.7%
• Prediabetes: 5.7%–6.4%
• Diabetes: ≥6.5% on two occasions

This patient has prediabetes and is at high risk of progressing to Type 2 diabetes.

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions may cause a falsely low HbA1c, leading to underdiagnosis of diabetes?

a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Chronic kidney disease (CKD)
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Answer:
c) Hemolytic anemia

Explanation:
HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months, but conditions that shorten red blood cell lifespan (e.g., hemolytic anemia, acute blood loss, or recent transfusions) cause falsely low HbA1c values, underestimating glucose levels.

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9
Q

Which test is most specific for diagnosing Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a) C-peptide level
b) Fasting plasma glucose (FPG)
c) HbA1c
d) Islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, ZnT8)

A

Answer:
d) Islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, ZnT8)

Explanation:
The presence of islet autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, and ZnT8) is the most specific marker for diagnosing Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). These autoantibodies indicate autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which is the hallmark of T1DM.

C-peptide levels (option a) can help distinguish T1DM (low C-peptide) from T2DM (normal or high C-peptide) but are not specific for Type 1 diabetes.

Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) (option b) and HbA1c (option c) are used to diagnose diabetes in general but do not differentiate Type 1 from Type 2.

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10
Q

A 45-year-old man with Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) presents with hypoglycemia unawareness despite frequent glucose monitoring. What is the most likely cause?

a) Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
b) Chronic exposure to hypoglycemia leading to autonomic failure
c) Delayed gastric emptying due to diabetic gastroparesis
d) Beta-cell regeneration causing unpredictable insulin secretion

A

Answer:
b) Chronic exposure to hypoglycemia leading to autonomic failure

Explanation:
This patient has hypoglycemia unawareness, which occurs due to hypoglycemia-associated autonomic failure (HAAF). Recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia lead to a blunted counterregulatory response, particularly reduced epinephrine secretion, impairing the body’s ability to detect and respond to low blood sugar levels.

• Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis (a) is a response to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

• Diabetic gastroparesis (c) can cause delayed glucose absorption, leading to erratic blood glucose levels, but it does not directly cause hypoglycemia unawareness.

• Beta-cell regeneration (d) is not a significant factor in established T1DM, as autoimmune destruction of beta cells is usually irreversible.

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11
Q

Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a) Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
b) Anti-insulin (IAA)
c) Anti-islet antigen-2 (IA-2)
d) Anti-ZnT8

A

Answer:
d) Anti-ZnT8

Explanation:

Anti-ZnT8 (Zinc Transporter 8 autoantibody) is the most specific autoantibody for Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). It is present in 60–80% of newly diagnosed T1DM patients and is often found in cases where other autoantibodies (e.g., GAD, IA-2) are absent.

• Anti-GAD (a) is the most commonly detected (SENSITIVE) autoantibody in T1DM but is less specific, as it can also be present in latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA).

• Anti-IAA (b) is often seen in young children with T1DM but can also be found in people exposed to exogenous insulin.

• Anti-IA-2 (c) is highly associated with rapid beta-cell destruction but is less specific than ZnT8.

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes the therapeutic agent teplizumab?

a) A humanized anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody
b) An Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody
c) A recombinant insulin analog
d) A glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist

A

Answer: b) An Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody

Explanation:
Teplizumab is an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody engineered to avoid binding to Fc receptors. This modification reduces potential immune activation and adverse effects, allowing it to modulate T-cell responses in a controlled manner. This mechanism is distinct from therapies that target CD20 (option a), are recombinant insulin analogs (option c), or are GLP-1 receptor agonists (option d).

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13
Q

Which of the following is the most common genetic predisposition associated with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a) HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4
b) HLA-B27
c) HLA-DR2 and HLA-DQ6
d) HLA-A3

A

Answer:
a) HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4

• T1DM is strongly associated with HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4, particularly in combination with HLA-DQ8.

• HLA-DR2 is protective against T1DM.

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14
Q

Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a) Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
b) Anti-insulin
c) Anti-islet cell (ICA)
d) Anti-zinc transporter 8 (ZnT8)

A

The correct answer is:

d) Anti-zinc transporter 8 (ZnT8)

Explanation:

Among the autoantibodies associated with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), ZnT8 autoantibodies are considered the most specific for the disease.

Why ZnT8?
• ZnT8 is a beta-cell–specific zinc transporter involved in insulin packaging.
• Autoantibodies against ZnT8 are highly specific for T1DM and are often detected in newly diagnosed patients.
• ZnT8 antibodies can be present even when other autoantibodies are absent, making them useful in diagnosis.

Why not the other options?
• Anti-GAD (a) – Common in T1DM but also found in autoimmune thyroid disease and stiff-person syndrome.
• Anti-insulin (b) – Can be seen in both T1DM and in patients receiving exogenous insulin.
• Anti-islet cell (ICA) (c) – Present in T1DM but less specific, as they also occur in other autoimmune conditions.

Key Takeaway:

ZnT8 autoantibodies have the highest specificity for the disease.

GAD - more SENSITIVE but not specific

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15
Q

A 14-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Lab tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Which of the following immune cells play a primary role in the pathogenesis of her condition?

a) B lymphocytes producing autoantibodies
b) CD4+ T cells activating eosinophils
c) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells targeting beta cells
d) Macrophages releasing IL-6 and TNF-alpha

A

The correct answer is:

c) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells targeting beta cells

Explanation:

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by T-cell–mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
• CD8+ cytotoxic T cells are the primary mediators of beta-cell destruction in T1DM.
• These T cells directly attack pancreatic beta cells, leading to their apoptosis and progressive loss.

Why not the other options?
• (a) B lymphocytes producing autoantibodies – Autoantibodies (e.g., anti-GAD, ICA, ZnT8) are markers of the disease but do not directly cause beta-cell destruction.

• (b) CD4+ T cells activating eosinophils – T1DM is a Th1-driven autoimmune disease, not associated with eosinophilic activation.

• (d) Macrophages releasing IL-6 and TNF-alpha – These cytokines contribute to inflammation but do not directly destroy beta cells.

Key Takeaway:

CD8+ cytotoxic T cells are the main immune cells responsible for beta-cell destruction in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.

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16
Q

A 17-year-old male with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found to have persistent postprandial hyperglycemia despite insulin therapy. His insulin requirements are increasing. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Insulin receptor mutations
b) Development of insulin autoantibodies
c) Lipodystrophy at injection sites
d) Coexisting C-peptide secretion

A

The correct answer is:

b) Development of insulin autoantibodies

Explanation:

In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), insulin autoantibodies (IAAs) can develop, especially in patients receiving exogenous insulin. These antibodies bind to insulin, altering its pharmacokinetics and leading to:
• Delayed insulin action → Postprandial hyperglycemia
• Prolonged insulin effect → Increased risk of late hypoglycemia

IAAs can cause erratic glucose control and increasing insulin requirements due to unpredictable insulin release from immune complexes.

Why not the other options?
• (a) Insulin receptor mutations – These are seen in Type A insulin resistance syndrome, which presents with severe insulin resistance, acanthosis nigricans, and hyperinsulinemia (not typical of T1DM).
• (c) Lipodystrophy at injection sites – Can impair insulin absorption, but it does not explain increasing insulin requirements systemically.
• (d) Coexisting C-peptide secretion – T1DM patients have minimal or no C-peptide secretion due to beta-cell destruction, unlike in early Type 2 DM or LADA.

Key Takeaway:

Insulin autoantibodies can lead to erratic insulin activity, delayed postprandial glucose control, and increasing insulin needs in T1DM.

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17
Q

A patient with newly diagnosed Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is undergoing evaluation for additional autoimmune conditions. Which of the following is most likely to coexist with T1DM?

a) Addison’s disease
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Systemic sclerosis
d) Pernicious anemia

A

The correct answer is:

a) Addison’s disease

Explanation:

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is frequently associated with other autoimmune disorders, particularly those affecting endocrine glands. Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) is one of the most common autoimmune conditions found in T1DM patients and is part of Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome Type 2 (APS-2), which includes:
• Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
• Addison’s disease
• Autoimmune thyroid disease (Hashimoto’s or Graves’ disease)

Patients with APS-2 are at high risk for adrenal crisis, which presents with hypotension, fatigue, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia.

Why not the other options?
• (b) Myasthenia gravis – A neuromuscular autoimmune disorder associated with thymic abnormalities, not commonly linked to T1DM.
• (c) Systemic sclerosis – A connective tissue disease; not strongly associated with T1DM.
• (d) Pernicious anemia – Caused by autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. While it can coexist with T1DM, Addison’s disease is more strongly associated.

Key Takeaway:

Patients with T1DM should be screened for Addison’s disease, especially if they present with unexplained fatigue, hypotension, or recurrent hypoglycemia.

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18
Q

Which of the following metabolic changes occurs earliest in the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

a) Increased hepatic ketogenesis
b) Depletion of glycogen stores
c) Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria
d) Elevated serum anion gap

A

The correct answer is:

c) Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria

Explanation:

In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), hyperglycemia develops first, leading to osmotic diuresis and subsequent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances before ketosis becomes significant.

Early Events in DKA Pathogenesis:
1. Absolute insulin deficiency → Increased hepatic glucose output & reduced peripheral glucose uptake
2. Severe hyperglycemia (≥250 mg/dL) → Exceeds renal glucose threshold (≈180 mg/dL)
3. Glucosuria → Osmotic diuresis → Causes polyuria, dehydration, and hyperosmolality
4. Volume depletion worsens hyperglycemia and triggers counterregulatory hormones (glucagon, cortisol, epinephrine)
5. Ketogenesis begins later, leading to anion gap metabolic acidosis

Why not the other options?
• (a) Increased hepatic ketogenesis – Ketone production (β-hydroxybutyrate & acetoacetate) increases after dehydration and hyperglycemia trigger counterregulatory hormones.
• (b) Depletion of glycogen stores – While hepatic glycogenolysis contributes to hyperglycemia, glycogen stores are not fully depleted until later stages.
• (d) Elevated serum anion gap – This occurs after significant ketoacid accumulation; it’s not the earliest metabolic change.

Key Takeaway:

Hyperosmolality due to glucosuria is the earliest metabolic change in DKA, occurring before ketogenesis and anion gap elevation.

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19
Q

Which of the following cytokines is most strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a) IL-4
b) IL-10
c) IFN-gamma
d) TGF-beta

A

The correct answer is:

c) IFN-gamma

Explanation:

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) is an autoimmune disease characterized by T-cell–mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells. Among the various cytokines involved, IFN-gamma (Interferon-gamma) plays a key role in disease pathogenesis.

Role of IFN-gamma in T1DM:
• Produced by Th1 cells
• Activates macrophages and promotes beta-cell destruction
• Increases MHC class I expression on beta cells, making them more vulnerable to cytotoxic CD8+ T-cell attack
• Enhances the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1β), further damaging beta cells

Why not the other options?
• (a) IL-4 – A Th2 cytokine, which is actually protective against autoimmune beta-cell destruction.

• (b) IL-10 – An anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits immune-mediated beta-cell damage.

• (d) TGF-beta – Involved in immune tolerance and regulation of T-cell responses; it is not a driver of T1DM pathology.

Key Takeaway:

IFN-gamma is the most strongly implicated cytokine in the pathogenesis of T1DM, promoting beta-cell destruction via Th1-mediated immune responses.

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20
Q

What is the clinical significance of teplizumab delaying the onset of stage 3 T1D?

a) It provides a permanent cure for T1D.
b) It demonstrates that immune modulation can alter the natural history of T1D.
c) It replaces the need for insulin therapy in T1D patients.
d) It increases insulin secretion from beta cells indefinitely.

A

Answer: b) It demonstrates that immune modulation can alter the natural history of T1D.

Explanation:
Teplizumab, an Fc receptor–nonbinding anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody, has been shown to delay the onset of stage 3 Type 1 Diabetes (T1D) by a median of 2.7 years in high-risk individuals. This finding is clinically significant because it provides proof-of-concept that targeted immune modulation can modify the progression of T1D.

It does not permanently cure the disease (ruling out option a), eliminate the future need for insulin therapy (ruling out option c), or indefinitely boost beta-cell insulin secretion (ruling out option d).

Rather, it supports the idea that intervening in the immune-mediated processes can change the disease course.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements best reflects the genetic contribution to Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)?

a) It is entirely monogenic, typically caused by a single gene defect.
b) Concordance rates in monozygotic (identical) twins are approximately 70%.
c) It is solely influenced by environmental factors such as diet and inactivity.
d) Having one affected parent does not increase the risk of T2DM.

A

Answer: b) Concordance rates in monozygotic (identical) twins are approximately 70%.

Explanation
• Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) has a strong genetic component, as evidenced by high concordance rates in identical twins, often cited in the range of 70–90%.

• However, T2DM is not a purely monogenic condition (eliminating option a); rather, it’s polygenic, with multiple genes each contributing modest risk.

• Environmental and lifestyle factors (such as obesity, physical inactivity, and diet) are also crucial—so it’s not solely influenced by environment (eliminating option c).

• Having a first-degree relative with T2DM does increase one’s risk, so it’s incorrect to say it does not (eliminating option d).

Hence, the statement about ~70% concordance in monozygotic twins best reflects the significant hereditary (but also multifactorial) nature of T2DM.

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22
Q

Which gene has been identified as one of the strongest common genetic risk factors for T2DM in multiple populations?

a) PPARG
b) TCF7L2
c) KCNJ11
d) CAPN10

A

Answer: b) TCF7L2

Explanation

• TCF7L2 (Transcription Factor 7-Like 2) has consistently shown one of the strongest associations with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus across diverse ethnic groups.

• While PPARG, KCNJ11, and CAPN10 also play roles in T2DM risk, TCF7L2 variants generally confer a higher relative risk compared to other common genetic factors.

• TCF7L2 influences beta-cell function and the incretin pathway, which are critical for glucose homeostasis.

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23
Q

Which of the following best describes the nature of T2DM inheritance?

a) It follows a strict autosomal dominant pattern.
b) It is largely polygenic, with multiple genes each conferring small to moderate risk.
c) It is primarily due to mitochondrial DNA mutations.
d) It does not have any hereditary component.

A

Answer: b) It is largely polygenic, with multiple genes each conferring small to moderate risk.

Explanation
• Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) is a multifactorial disorder where numerous genetic variants each contribute a small to moderate risk.

• It does not follow a simple Mendelian (e.g., autosomal dominant) pattern (eliminating option a).

• While mitochondrial dysfunction may play a role in some metabolic diseases, T2DM is not primarily caused by mitochondrial DNA mutations (eliminating option c).

• There is a significant hereditary component to T2DM, so option d is incorrect.

• Instead, T2DM results from the cumulative effects of many genetic factors (polygenic inheritance) in combination with environmental and lifestyle influences.

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24
Q

Which mechanism best explains how PPARG (peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma) variants predispose individuals to T2DM?

a) They cause autoimmune destruction of beta cells.
b) They alter adipocyte differentiation and insulin sensitivity.
c) They directly inhibit hepatic glucose output.
d) They block incretin hormone action.

A

Answer: b) They alter adipocyte differentiation and insulin sensitivity.

Explanation

PPARG is a nuclear receptor that functions as a transcription factor involved in regulating adipocyte differentiation, lipid metabolism, and insulin sensitivity. Variants in PPARG can lead to alterations in the normal differentiation process of adipocytes, resulting in dysfunctional fat storage and impaired insulin signaling. This contributes to insulin resistance—a hallmark of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.

• Autoimmune destruction of beta cells (a) is a mechanism seen in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, not T2DM.

• Direct inhibition of hepatic glucose output (c) is not the primary role of PPARG.

• Blocking incretin hormone action (d) is unrelated to PPARG function.

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25
Which lipid abnormality is commonly observed in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus due to insulin resistance in adipose tissue? a) Increased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) b) Increased free fatty acid release and VLDL-triglyceride production c) Decreased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d) Decreased lipolysis in adipose tissue
Answer: b) Increased free fatty acid release and VLDL-triglyceride production Explanation In Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance in adipose tissue leads to increased lipolysis and the release of free fatty acids (FFAs) into the circulation. The liver takes up these excess FFAs and converts them into very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles, which carry triglycerides. This process contributes to the characteristic dyslipidemia seen in T2DM, marked by elevated triglycerides and often reduced HDL levels. • (a) Increased HDL is not typical in T2DM; HDL is usually low. • (c) Decreased LDL is also not a hallmark of T2DM dyslipidemia; LDL levels may be normal or mildly elevated, but often LDL particles are smaller and denser, which is more atherogenic. • (d) Decreased lipolysis would be the opposite of what typically occurs in insulin-resistant adipose tissue. Hence, the excess FFA flux from adipose tissue to the liver and the subsequent increased VLDL production are key features of dyslipidemia in T2DM.
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Which statement best describes the relationship between obesity and T2DM pathogenesis? a) Obesity is unrelated to insulin resistance in muscle and liver b) Adipokines and free fatty acids from excess adipose tissue exacerbate insulin resistance c) Lean individuals cannot develop T2DM d) Subcutaneous fat deposits do not affect insulin sensitivity
Answer: b) Adipokines and free fatty acids from excess adipose tissue exacerbate insulin resistance Explanation Obesity, particularly when associated with excess visceral adipose tissue, leads to increased secretion of adipokines (such as TNF-α, IL-6) and a higher release of free fatty acids. These factors contribute to the development of insulin resistance in peripheral tissues like muscle and liver. This insulin resistance is a central component in the pathogenesis of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM). • Option a is incorrect because obesity is directly related to insulin resistance in these tissues. • Option c is incorrect because while lean individuals are less likely to develop T2DM, they can still be affected, albeit less commonly. • Option d is incorrect because even subcutaneous fat can influence insulin sensitivity, though visceral fat has a stronger association with insulin resistance. Thus, the best description is that the increased adipokines and free fatty acids in obesity worsen insulin resistance, thereby playing a key role in T2DM pathogenesis.
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Which of the following statements about insulin secretion in early Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is most accurate? a) Insulin secretion is completely absent due to beta-cell destruction. b) Insulin secretion is initially increased but inappropriate for the degree of insulin resistance. c) Insulin secretion is normal and remains unchanged throughout the disease. d) Insulin secretion is rapidly depleted due to mitochondrial dysfunction.
Answer: b) Insulin secretion is initially increased but inappropriate for the degree of insulin resistance. Explanation In the early stages of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), the body’s tissues—especially skeletal muscle and adipose tissue—develop insulin resistance. In response to this decreased sensitivity, the pancreatic beta cells compensate by increasing insulin secretion. This compensatory mechanism leads to hyperinsulinemia. However, even though insulin levels are elevated, they are still insufficient to overcome the high level of insulin resistance, resulting in hyperglycemia. Over time, chronic metabolic stress (including glucotoxicity and lipotoxicity) can impair beta-cell function further, leading to a decline in insulin secretion. But at the onset of T2DM, the primary characteristic is an inappropriately high insulin secretion relative to the degree of insulin resistance. Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Option a) Insulin secretion is completely absent due to beta-cell destruction. • Incorrect: This describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, where autoimmune destruction of beta cells leads to an absolute insulin deficiency. In T2DM, especially early on, beta cells are still functional and actually overproduce insulin in response to insulin resistance. Complete absence of insulin secretion does not occur until very late stages, if at all. Option c) Insulin secretion is normal and remains unchanged throughout the disease. • Incorrect: While insulin secretion may initially be elevated as a compensatory mechanism, it is not normal relative to the degree of insulin resistance. Over time, beta-cell function declines due to chronic metabolic stress. Therefore, insulin secretion does not remain unchanged throughout the disease; it typically deteriorates with disease progression. Option d) Insulin secretion is rapidly depleted due to mitochondrial dysfunction. • Incorrect: Although mitochondrial dysfunction in beta cells can contribute to impaired insulin secretion in T2DM, this process is gradual rather than rapid. In early T2DM, beta cells are compensating by increasing insulin output despite some degree of metabolic stress. The term “rapidly depleted” implies an acute loss of insulin secretion, which is more characteristic of conditions with acute beta-cell failure (e.g., Type 1 Diabetes) rather than the progressive decline seen in T2DM.
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For Screening and Control of Diabetes, which of the following is incorrect a. ADA, recommends that all women of childbearing age be counseled about the importance of tight glycemic control (Hba1C <6%) prior to conception b. Annual foot examination using 128 MHz tuning fork at the base of the great toe (vibratory sensation) , 5.07 or 10g monofilament (ability to sense touch) c. ADA, recommends annual screening for distal symmetric polyneuropathy and annual screening for autonomic neuropathy 5 years after the diagnosis of type 1 DM and type 2 DM d. For other individuals, initiate testing at 45 years of age and repeat every 3 years
a. ADA, recommends that all women of childbearing age be counseled about the importance of tight glycemic control (Hba1C <6%) prior to conception Hba1C <6.5% not 6.0 Harrison’s 21st Ed pg 3103
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Alvin, a 29-year-old male, presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. He tests positive for GAD and ZnT8 antibodies. Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with his condition? a. Lean body habitus b. Requirement of insulin as the initial therapy c. Propensity to develop ketoacidosis d. May have associated condition such as insulin resistance, hypertension, CVD, dyslipidemia or PCOS
The correct answer is: Harrison 21st Ed pg 3103 d. May have associated conditions such as insulin resistance, hypertension, CVD, dyslipidemia, or PCOS. Explanation: Alvin’s presentation (polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia) and positivity for GAD and ZnT8 antibodies strongly suggest Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) or Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA) rather than Type 2 DM. a. Lean body habitus → CORRECT • T1DM and LADA are typically associated with lean or normal BMI, unlike Type 2 DM, which is often linked to obesity. b. Requirement of insulin as the initial therapy → CORRECT • T1DM and LADA are autoimmune diseases leading to β-cell destruction, causing absolute insulin deficiency that requires insulin therapy from the start. c. Propensity to develop ketoacidosis → CORRECT • Individuals with T1DM or LADA are at risk for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to insulin deficiency. d. May have associated conditions such as insulin resistance, hypertension, CVD, dyslipidemia, or PCOS → INCORRECT (ANSWER) • These conditions are more characteristic of Type 2 DM (T2DM), which is linked to insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome. • While some overlap can exist, autoimmune diabetes (T1DM/LADA) is not primarily associated with these comorbidities.
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding C-peptide measurement? A. C peptide is useful but should always interpreted with a concurrent blood glucose level B. Low C peptide in the setting of an elevated blood glucose level may confirm a patient’s need for insulin C. C-peptide levels are able to distinguish type 1 from type 2 DM D. All are correct
C. C-peptide level are able to distinguish type 1 from type 2 DM C-peptide level are UNABLE to distinguish type 1 from type 2 DM as many individuals with type 1 retain some C-peptide production Harrison’s 21st pg 3103
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In the regulation of glucose homeostasis, which of the following is NOT expected during the fasting state? a. Low insulin levels, high glucagon b. Promotion of hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis c. High glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues d. Increased mobilization of gluconeogenic precursors (amino acids and free fatty acids)
C. High glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues Harrison’s 21st pg 3097-3098 Explanation: During the fasting state, the body maintains glucose homeostasis by: A. Low insulin levels, High glucagon → CORRECT • Insulin decreases (since there’s no food intake), while glucagon increases to promote glucose production. B. Promote hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis → CORRECT • The liver breaks down glycogen (glycogenolysis) and synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis) to maintain blood sugar levels. C. High glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues → INCORRECT (ANSWER) • Insulin-sensitive tissues (e.g., muscle and adipose tissue) require insulin for glucose uptake via GLUT4 transporters. • In fasting, low insulin levels lead to reduced glucose uptake in these tissues, preserving glucose for essential organs like the brain (which uses insulin-independent GLUT1 and GLUT3 transporters). D. Increase mobilization of gluconeogenic precursors (amino acids and free fatty acids) → CORRECT • Proteins break down into amino acids, and fat stores release free fatty acids, providing substrates for gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis.
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According to the ADA, what is the recommended HbA1c target for most non-pregnant adults with diabetes? a) <5.7% b) <6.5% c) <7.0% d) <8.0%
Correct Answer: c) <7.0% Harrison’s 21st pg 3104 Explanation: According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA), the recommended HbA1c target for most non-pregnant adults with diabetes is <7.0% to reduce the risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications. • <8.0% for older adults, those with limited life expectancy, or those at high risk of severe hypoglycemia.
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Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of metformin in diabetes management? a) It primarily increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells b) It should be discontinued immediately after a diabetes diagnosis c) It reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity d) It is contraindicated in all patients with any level of kidney disease
Correct Answer: c) It reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity Explanation: Harrison’s 21st edition pg 3110 Metformin is a first-line therapy for Type 2 Diabetes that primarily: • Reduces hepatic glucose production (decreasing gluconeogenesis). • Increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues (muscle and liver). • Does not stimulate insulin secretion, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Why the other options are incorrect: a) It primarily increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells → FALSE • Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion (unlike sulfonylureas). b) It should be discontinued immediately after a diabetes diagnosis → FALSE • Metformin is first-line therapy unless contraindicated. d) It is contraindicated in all patients with any level of kidney disease → FALSE • Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment (eGFR <30 mL/min/1.73 m²), but it can be used cautiously in mild to moderate kidney disease with dose adjustments.
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A 68 year old female was newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. She underwent radical cystectomy for bladder cancer last year. Which agent for diabetes is contraindicated in this patient? A. Metformin B. Vildagliptin C. Pioglitazone D. Gliclazide
Answer C. Pioglitazone Harrison’s 21st pg 3112 Concerns about increased cardiovascular risk associated with rosiglitazone led to considerable restrictions on its use and to the FDA issuing a black box warning in 2007. However, based on new informa-tion, the FDA has revised its guidelines and categorizes rosiglitazone similar to other drugs for type 2 DM. According to an FDA review, pioglitazone may be associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer. In one study, pioglitazone lowered the risk for recurrent stroke or myocardial infarction in insulin-resistant individuals without diabetes who had a prior stroke or transient ischemic attack.
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Which of the following monogenic forms of diabetes mellitus presents with a progressive decline in glycemic control, but may respond to sulfonylureas? A. MODY 1 B. MODY 2 C. MODY 3 D. MODY 4
Correct Answer: C. MODY 3 Explanation: Harrison’s pg 3102 MODY 3 is caused by mutations in the HNF-1α gene. This form of monogenic diabetes typically shows a progressive decline in glycemic control due to gradually worsening β-cell function. However, patients with MODY 3 are known to be highly sensitive to sulfonylureas, which can effectively lower blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion. MODY 1 (HNF-4α mutation) may share some clinical features but is less common and has a slightly different clinical course. MODY 2 (Glucokinase mutation) usually presents with mild to moderate , stable hyperglycemia that is often non-progressive and typically does not require treatment with sulfonylureas. MODY 4 is a less common variant and is not characterized by a strong response to sulfonylureas.
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Which of the following screening procedures is part of the guidelines for comprehensive diabetes care for all individuals with DM? A. Lipid profile testing every 6 months B. Urine albumin testing every 4 months C. Blood pressure assessment every month D. Foot examination by the patient monthly
A. Lipid profile testing every 6 months Explanation: Harrison’s 21st page 3104 Guidelines for ongoing, Comprehensive Medical Care for Individuals with Diabetes Lipids (1-2 times/year) Urine albumin (annual) or screening of albuminuria should commence 5years after the onset of Type 1 DM and at the time of diagnosis of type 2 DM Blood pressure should assess 2-4 times/year Foot examination (1-2 times/year by provider, daily by patient)
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A 27-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus has episodes of awakening at midnight accompanied by diaphoresis, and sometimes tremors. What is most useful for assessment to minimize the occurrence of this condition? a. 1,5 - anhydroglucitol b. Continuous glucose monitoring c. Fructosamine d. HbAlc
The correct answer is: b. Continuous glucose monitoring (CGM) Explanation: HPIM Ch 404 p. 3105 The patient’s symptoms—awakening at midnight with diaphoresis and tremors—are suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycemia, which is common in type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) due to insulin therapy. To minimize the occurrence of this condition, it is crucial to monitor glucose levels, especially at night, to detect trends and adjust insulin or dietary intake accordingly. Why CGM is the Best Option? • Continuous glucose monitoring (CGM) provides real-time glucose readings throughout the day and night. • It detects hypoglycemic episodes during sleep, which can be missed with routine fingerstick monitoring. • CGM helps identify trends (e.g., dropping glucose at night) and allows for better insulin adjustments. Why Not the Other Options? • 1,5-Anhydroglucitol (1,5-AG) – Reflects postprandial glucose control but is not useful for detecting nocturnal hypoglycemia. • Fructosamine – Reflects 2–3 weeks of average glucose levels but does not show daily fluctuations or nocturnal hypoglycemia. • HbA1c – Provides a 3-month average of glucose levels but does not reveal hypoglycemic episodes or glucose variability. Thus, CGM is the most useful tool for assessing and minimizing nocturnal hypoglycemia in this patient.
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64-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus h episodes of nocturnal, hypoglycemia. If you would like to switch his basal insulin to an agent associated with a longer duration of action with less frequent and severe nocturna bypoglycemia, which drug will you choose? a. Degludec b. Detemir c. Glargine d. Neutral Protamine Hagedorn
The correct answer is: a. Degludec Explanation: HPIM Ch 404 p. 3107-3109 The patient has nocturnal hypoglycemia, which is often associated with basal insulin peaking at night or having an inconsistent duration of action. To reduce nocturnal hypoglycemia, we need a basal insulin with a longer and more stable duration of action. Why Insulin Degludec? • Ultra-long-acting insulin with a duration of over 42 hours. • Provides a steady and peakless insulin release, reducing the risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia. • Studies show lower nocturnal hypoglycemia rates compared to insulin glargine and detemir. Why Not the Other Options? • Insulin Detemir – Long-acting, but has a shorter half-life than degludec and may require twice-daily dosing in some patients. • Insulin Glargine (U-100) – Long-acting, but peaks slightly and has a shorter duration (~24 hours), increasing the risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia. • Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) – Intermediate-acting, has a pronounced peak, and is associated with the highest risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia. Final Recommendation: Switching the patient to insulin degludec (Tresiba) will provide the longest duration of action and the lowest risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia.
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A 20 year old female with type 1 diabetes mellitus is building an exercise plan. What would you advise your patient to avoid exercise-related hyper- or hypoglycemia? A. Monitor blood glucose three times a day B. Delay exercise if blood glucose is less than < 250 mg/dL C. Maintain insulin doses before and after exercise D. Learn glucose response to different types of exercise
Answer: D D. Learn glucose response to different types of exercise Explanation: Harrison’s 21st page 3105 To avoid exercise-related hyper- or hypoglycemia, individuals with type 1 DM should (1) monitor blood glucose before, during, and after exercise; (2) delay exercise if blood glucose is >14 mmol/L (250 mg/ dL) and ketones are present; (3) if the blood glucose is <5.0 mmol/L (90 mg/dL), ingest carbohydrate before exercising; (4) monitor glucose during exercise and ingest carbohydrate as needed to prevent hypo-glycemia; (5) decrease insulin doses (based on previous experience) before and after exercise and inject insulin into a nonexercising area; and (6) learn individual glucose responses to different types of exercise. In individuals with type 2 DM, exercise-related hypoglycemia is less common but can occur in individuals taking either insulin or insulin secretagogues.
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Arnold has non-autoimmune features of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes, which of the following is NOT true about his condition? a. Development of a type 2 diabetes phenotype before puberty b. Type 2 diabetes phenotype in very lean individuals c. Ketosis-prone diabetes where individuals present with ketoacidosis, but do not require long-term exogenous insulin therapy d. They have linked to single gene defects like MODY
d. They have linked to single gene defects like MODY Explanation: The condition described is Atypical Diabetes or Ketosis-Prone Diabetes (KPD), a non-autoimmune form of diabetes that has characteristics of both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes but is not caused by single-gene defects like MODY. a. Development of a type 2 diabetes phenotype before puberty → TRUE Some patients with KPD or other forms of atypical diabetes may develop insulin resistance (a hallmark of Type 2 diabetes) early in life. b. Type 2 diabetes phenotype in very lean individuals → TRUE Some individuals with KPD or atypical diabetes exhibit insulin resistance despite having a low BMI, which is usually associated with Type 1 diabetes. c. Ketosis-prone diabetes where individuals present with ketoacidosis, but do not require long-term exogenous insulin therapy → TRUE A defining feature of Ketosis-Prone Diabetes (KPD) is that patients may present with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) initially but later regain beta-cell function and can sometimes be managed without insulin. d. They have linked to single gene defects like MODY → FALSE Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) is a monogenic form of diabetes caused by specific single-gene mutations affecting beta-cell function. It does not typically present with ketosis or DKA and does not have the same characteristics as KPD.
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A 46 year old woman is evaluated for type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 3 months ago. She also has hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and obesity. At the time of her diagnosis her hemoglobin A1c value was 8.5 and BMI was 33. Metformin was initiated. During the past 3 months, she has lost 5.0 kg (11.0 lbs) Medications are mettormin, lisinopril, and simvastatin. On physical examination, vital signs are within normal limits. BMl is 32. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Today, her hemoglobin A1c measurement is 8%. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to start next? a. Dulaglutide b. Glipizide c. Insulin d. Pioglitazone
a. Dulaglutide Explanation: The best treatment option for this patient is to add dulaglutide (Option A). At the time of diagnosis, metformin was initiated, which is first-line pharmacologic therapy for the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Although she has made some progress with hemoglobin A1c reduction and weight loss, her glycemic target is still not at goal. In young, otherwise healthy patients, the American Diabetes Association recommends a hemoglobin A target of less than 7% in most nonpregnant adults, suggesting that an even more stringent target, less than 6.5%, may be appropriate for some patients if it can be achieved without significant hypoglycemia or adverse effects. Patients should be re-evaluated at 3-month intervals and treatment escalated with additional agents if the hemoglobin Ac remains above goal. In patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or multiple risk factors for ASCVD, a glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) or sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor with demonstrated cardiovascular benefit is recommended to reduce the risk for major adverse cardiovascular events, independent of hemoglobin Alc lowering. This patient has multiple risk factors for ASCVD (hypertension, dyslipidemia, obesity). In addition, GLP-1 RAs are associated with weight loss, which would be beneficial for this patient with obesity. Dulaglutide is a GLP-1 RA with proven cardiovascular benefit. Glipizide (Option B) is a sulfonylurea and stimulates insulin secretion. It is associated with weight gain and has no ASCVD benefits. In most patients who need the greater glucose-lowering effect of an injectable medication, GLP-1 RAs are preferred to insulin (Option C). Insulin administration is not associated with the ASCVD benefits of a GLP-1 RA and may also cause weight gain. Pioglitazone (Option D), a thiazolidinedione, increases peripheral uptake of glucose. Although pioglitazone can possibly decrease cardiovascular disease events, it is associated with weight gain, which is undesirable in this patient with obesity.
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A 52 year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated after hospitalization for a non ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He is currently asymptomatic. Medications are metformin, aspirin, ticagrelor, atorvastatin, metoprolol, and lisinopril. On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 28. The general physical examination is normal. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c level of 7.0%. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Empagliflozin b. Glipizide c. Pramlintide d. Sitagliptin
a. Empagliflozin Explanation: The most appropriate treatment is empagliflozin (Option A). This drug has proven benefit for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus who have atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD), which is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in this population. The American Diabetes Association recommends dual antiplatelet therapy with low-dose aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel, ticagrelor) for 1 year after an acute coronary syndrome not treated with percutaneous coronary intervention. Patients should also receive high-intensity statin therapy (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin), an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, and a ß-blocker (metoprolol, carvedilol). For patients with type 2 diabetes who have established ASCVD or established kidney disease, a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor or glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) with demonstrated cardiovascular disease benefit is recommended as part of the glucose-lowering regimen. SGLT2 inhibitors with established cardiovascular disease benefit include empagliflozin, canagliflozin, and dapagliflozin; corresponding GLP-1 RAs include albiglutide, dulaglutide, lira-glutide, and injectable semaglutide. The Empagliflozin Cardiovascular Outcome Event Trial in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus Patients demonstrated a reduction in the primary composite outcome (cardiovascular-related death, nonfatal myocardial infarction, nonfatal stroke) and all-cause mortality when empagliflozin was added to standard care versus placebo. SGLT2 inhibitors should be used with caution in patients with previous amputation, severe peripheral neuropathy, severe peripheral vascular disease, or active diabetic foot ulcers or soft tissue infections. Patients should be monitored for genital fungal infection, urinary tract infection, euglycemic diabetic acidosis, and lower limb ulcerations and soft tissue infections. The presence of any of these conditions should prompt consideration of an alternative drug to reduce cardiovascular complications. Based on randomized controlled trials, the risk for cardiovascular events does not appear to be increased with second-generation sulfonylureas such as glipizide (Option B). Also, no evidence shows that second-generation sulfonylureas reduce cardiovascular events in patients at high risk, such as this patient. In patients with ASCVD or multiple ASCVD risk factors, an SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 RA is preferred to sulfonylureas. Pramlintide (Option C) is an amylin mimetic that slows gastric emptying, suppresses glucagon secretion, and increases satiety. No long-term studies have shown a decrease in adverse cardiovascular outcomes with pramlitide use. Sitagliptin (Option D), a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, may improve the patient's glycemic control; however, this drug class has no proven ASCVD benefit.
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A 58-year-old woman is evaluated for further management of type 2 diabetes mellitus after hospital discharge. She was hospitalized with a myocardial infarction and subsequent coronary stenting, and her hospital course was complicated by heart failure. Her hemoglobin A1c level was 8.2% while hospitalized. Hyperglycemia was treated with insulin. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, dyslipidemia, obesity, and idiopathic pancreatitis. Medications are metformin, lisinopril, carvedilol, atorvastatin, furosemide, aspirin, and clopidogrel. On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 29. Laboratory studies show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 52 mL/min/1.73m2 and blood glucose level of 202 mg/dL (11.2 mmol/L). Which of the following is the best additional treatment for diabetes mellitus? a. Empagliflozin b. Glipizide c. Liraglutide d. Pioglitazone
a. Empagliflozin Explanation: This patient would be best treated with empagliflozin (Option A). This sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor blocks renal glucose reabsorption and promotes the excretion of glucose and sodium via glycosuria, thus lowering blood glucose levels. The FDA approved empagliflozin for reduction of cardiovascular death in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus and atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. Also, the American Diabetes Association suggests that in patients with type 2 diabetes and established heart failure, an SGLT2 inhibitor may be considered to reduce the risk for heart failure-related hospitalization. Because empagliflozin is renally cleared, considerations for renal dose adjustment are required. The marked benefit in cardiac and renal protection of this drug class must be balanced against the risks of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis, increased urinary tract infections, genital fungal infections, and increased rate of lower limb infection, ulceration, and amputations. Glipizide (Option B) is a sulfonylurea. This drug class stimulates B-cell insulin secretion from the pancreas. Although the sulfonylureas initially are effective and inexpensive, they lose their efficacy as a result of gradual B-cell loss. They also cause weight gain, potentially contributing to further insulin resistance. Liraglutide (Option C) is a glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) that acts through several mechanisms, including increased insulin secretion in response to hyperglycemia, reduction of gastric emptying, and reduction of glucagon secretion. Similar to SGLT2 inhibitors, this drug class has also demonstrated significant risk reductions in atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and diabetic kidney disease. However, based on postmarketing reports of acute pancreatitis in association with GLP-1 RAs, they are not recommended for patients with a history of pancreatitis. Liraglutide has not been shown to reduce the risk for heart failure-related hospitalization. Pioglitazone (Option D) is part of the thiazolidinedione class and is an insulin sensitizer. Pioglitazone may reduce cardiovascular disease and triglyceride levels; however, it may cause weight gain because of volume retention and an increase in fat mass. In addition, these agents are contraindicated in heart failure, making it a poor choice in this patient.
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A 15-year-old woman is evaluated for management of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 1 year ago. During the past 6 months, she has implemented lifestyle modifications including a low calorie diet, weight-loss group meetings. and exercise. She has achieved a 5.0 kg (11.0-1b) weight loss. Medical history is significant for recurrent urinary tract infections. Her only medication is metformin, 850 mg twice daily. Vital signs and physical examination findings are unremarkable. BMI is 35. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c level of 7.6%. Which of the following medication changes would most benefit this patient? (A) Add dapagliflozin (B) Add glimepiride (C) Add liraglutide (D) Increase metformin dosage
Answer: C Liraglutide Explanation: Adding liraglutide (Option C) a glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA), would provide the most benefit to this patient. Because her hemoglobin A1c is not at goal with metformin alone, the addition of a second agent is warranted. The American Diabetes Association recommends a goal hemoglobin A1c of less than 7% in most nonpregnant adults. Individualized goals may vary based on patient factors such as disease duration, established vascular complications, hypoglycemia risk, and life expectancy. A patient-centered approach should be used to guide the choice of pharmacologic agents. Physicians should consider cardiovascular comorbidities, hypoglycemia risk, impact on weight, cost, risk for adverse effects, and patient preferences. This patient with diabetes mellitus has a BMI of 35 despite lifestyle modifications: therefore, a diabetes medication associated with weight loss would be beneficial Diabetes medications associated with weight loss include GLP-1 RAs, sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, a-glucosidase inhibitors, and amylin mimetics. The GLP-1 RAs increase glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, inhibit glucagon, slow gastric emptying, and increase satiety; they can lower hemoglobin A1c by 1% to 1.5%. Their additional ability to promote weight loss makes them an excellent choice for this patient. Although the SGLT2 inhibitors, such as dapagliflozin (Option A), are also associated with improvement in hemoglobin A1c and weight loss, they carry a risk for increased genitourinary tract infections. This patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections; therefore, dapagliflozin is not the most appropriate treatment option. a-Glucosidase inhibitors and amylin mimetics are also associated with weight loss, but the optimal roles of these agents in the treatment of diabetes are unclear. Insulin secretagogues, including sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones. and insulin, often cause weight gain. Although the sulfonylurea glimepiride (Option B) decreases hemoglobin A1c by 1% to 1.5%, weight gain is not desired in this patient. Metformin is typically a weight-neutral medication, although some studies show a modest weight loss. Increasing the metformin dosage (Option D) is unlikely to significantly improve hemoglobin A1c or contribute to substantial weight loss. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors also are weight neutral.
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A 70-year-old woman is evaluated in the ICU after admission for urosepsis. Appropriate antibiotics and intravenous fluids were initiated. She remains critically ill and continues to have poor oral intake. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, which has been previously well controlled. Before hospitalization, her only medication was metformin. Plasma glucose values measured on admission were 210 and 205 mg/dL (11.7 and 11.4 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's diabetes mellitus? a. Insulin; glucose target 80 to 110 mg/dL (4.4-6.1 mmol/L) b. Insulin; glucose target 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.8-10.0 mmol/L) c. Insulin; glucose target 180 to 200 mg/dL (10.0-11.1 mmol/L) d. No intervention
b. Insulin; glucose target 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.8-10.0 mmol/L) Explanation: The most appropriate management of diabetes mellitus is to initiate insulin to achieve blood glucose values of 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.8-10.0 mmol/L) (Option B). Inpatient hyperglycemia, defined as consistently elevated glucose values greater than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L), is associated with poor outcomes, but attempts to achieve blood glucose targets less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) is associated with hypoglycemia. The American Diabetes Association recommends that insulin therapy should be initiated for treatment of persistent hyperglyceria starting at a threshold of 180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L). After insulin therapy is started, a target glucose range of 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.8-10.0 mmol/L) is recommended for most critically ill and non-critically ill patients. This recommendation is based on the findings from the NICE-SUGAR randomized clinical trial and is supported by several meta-analyses, some of which suggest that tight glycemic control (80-110 mg/dL [4.4-6.1 mmol/L]) increases mortality compared with more moderate glycemic targets and generally causes higher rates of hypoglycemia. Intravenous insulin therapy is recommended for critically ill inpatients with a history of type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Subcutaneous insulin is appropriate for non-critically ill inpatients. Tighter glycemic control (80-110 mg/dL [4.4-6.1 mmol/LI) has been studied in critically ill patients and has not consistently been associated with improved outcomes and may increase mortality. Therefore, a goal of 80 to 110 mg/dL (4.4-6.1 mmol/L) (Option A) is inappropriate in this patient. Inpatient hyperglycemia, defined as consistently elevated glucose values greater than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L), is associated with poor outcomes. Therefore, it is inappropriate to target higher blood glucose values (180-200 mg/dL 110.0-11.1 mmol/L) (Option C). Likewise, it is inappropriate to choose no intervention (Option D), allowing this patient's glucose levels to be greater than 180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L). Insulin is the preferred treatment for hyperglycemia in hospitalized patients, particularly critically ill patients in the ICU. The safety of oral antihyperglycemic agents for critically ill patients has not been established, and frequent clinical status changes may increase the risk for adverse events associated with noninsulin therapies.
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A 28-year-old woman is evaluated following a positive pregnancy test. She has polycystic ovary syndrome, and her mother has diabetes mellitus. She takes no medications, except for a prenatal vitamin. On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 28. Which of the following is the most appropriate diabetes mellitus screening strategy for this patient? a. Screen at 24 to 28 weeks gestation b. Screen now; if negative, rescreen at 24 to 28 weeks gestation c. Screen now and only once d. Self-monitoring of blood glucose
b. Screen now; if negative, rescreen at 24 to 28 weeks gestation Explanation: This patient should be screened now for preexisting diabetes mellitus and again at 24 to 28 weeks gestation (Option B) for gestational diabetes if the first test is neg-ative. Gestational diabetes is defined as hyperglycemia during the second or third trimester in women without a prepregnancy diagnosis of type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Undiagnosed preexisting diabetes in patients who are pregnant is often first noticed during pregnancy; however, this diagnosis is not gestational diabetes. It is reasonable to test women with risk factors for diabetes at the time of a positive pregnancy test using standard diagnostic criteria, which includes measurement of hemoglobin Alc and fasting blood glucose or an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Hyperglycemia identified during the first trimester is classified as type 2 diabetes rather than gestational diabetes. Women who do not meet diagnostic criteria for diabetes on the original assessment should be re-screened between 24 and 28 weeks gestation using an OGTT (either one-step or two-step strategy). This patient has several risk factors, including overweight and family history of diabetes, and thus should be screened now in addition to the standard screening between 24 and 28 weeks' gestation if the original screening is negative. It is important to diagnose and manage diabetes in pregnancy because adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes related to diabetes increase with worsening hyperglycemia. Complications include macrosomia, labor and delivery complications, preeclampsia, fetal defects, neonatal hypoglycemia, spontaneous abortion, and intrauterine fetal demise. Performing standard screening for gestational diabetes with the OGTT only at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation (Option A) would miss the opportunity to diagnose preexisting diabetes. Screening now and only once (Option C) would miss the opportunity to diagnose gestational diabetes if this screening test is negative. Self-monitoring of blood glucose (Option D) does not have a role in the diagnosis of diabetes. This patient does not have known diabetes, either preexisting or gestational, and should be screened with the standard methods.
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A 20 year-old woman is evaluated during a follow-up visit for diabetes mellitus. She was hospitalized for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) 6 weeks ago but had been previously well. No inciting cause of the DKA was determined. She was discharged on basal-bolus insulin. Since discharge. she has implemented dietary and lifestyle interventions and has lost 4.0 kg (8.8 lb), and her insulin dose has been steadily reduced. Average fasting blood glucose is now 98 mg dL (5.1 mmol/l.) and remaining daytime blood glucose values have been less than 115 mg dI (6.4 mmol L). Her family history is significant for type 2 diabetes in her mother, maternal aunts and grandmother. On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 30. Central adiposity and acanthosis nigricans are noted. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. At this visit, the decision was made to discontinue the insulin. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Empagliflozin b. Glimepiride c. Metformin d. No additional treatment
c. Metformin Explanation: This patient has ketosis-prone diabetes mellitus and should be transitioned from insulin to metformin (Option C). The term "ketosis-prone diabetes" incorporates several glycemic syndromes and is also known as ketosis-prone type 2 diabetes mellitus, "Flatbush diabetes," idiopathic type 1 diabetes, type 1B diabetes, and atypical diabetes. These syndromes present with episodic diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) resulting from insulin deficiency but have variable periods of insulin dependence and independence. For individuals with ketosis-prone diabetes, insulin therapy for DKA is required until DKA has resolved and the B cells are no longer impaired by glucose toxicity and can produce sufficient amounts of insulin to suppress lipolysis. Assessment of B-cell reserve with a fasting C-peptide level should be performed weeks to months after the episode of DKA; B-cell function is indicated by a C-peptide concentration of at least 1 ng/mL. (0.33 nmo-1/L). Patients should also be evaluated for type 1 diabetes with fasting C-peptide measurement or a glutamic acid decarboxy-lase antibodies test. This patient has the clinical characteristics of type 2 diabetes (insulin production, obesity, strong family history), intact B-cell function, negative antibodies, and is on relatively low doses of insulin for her body weight. The insulin may be discontinued, and she can start metformin. No clinical evidence supports that sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin (Option A) are effective treatment in ketosis-prone diabetes. Moreover, this class of medications carries a higher risk for euglycemic DKA and thus would not be the best option in a patient with ketosis-prone diabetes. Glimepiride (Option B) is a sulfonylurea and is associated with weight gain. It is not the best option for this patient with obesity, who would benefit more from an insulin sensitizer like metformin. The American Diabetes Association recommends that all patients with type 2 diabetes should be treated with metformin as an initial agent, along with aggressive lifestyle modifications. Given the previous episode of DKA, lifestyle changes alone with no additional treatment (Option D) are insufficient to manage diabetes in this patient.
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A 60-year-old woman is evaluated during a follow-up visit for hypertension, coronary artery disease, obesity, and dyslipidemia. She reports a 5-kg (11.0-lb) weight gain in the past year. Her fasting blood glucose was 110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L) and hemoglobin A1c level was 6.1% 6 months ago. Current medications are hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, carvedilol, low-dose aspirin, and atorvastatin. On physical examination, blood pressure is 135/84 mm Hg. BMl is 28. The remainder of the examination is normal. Fasting glucose is 114 mg/dL (6.3 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's prediabetes? a. Glipizide b. Intensive lifestyle modifications c. Metformin d. Sitagliptin
b. Intensive lifestyle modifications Explanation: This patient has prediabetes, and intensive lifestyle modifications (Option B) should be implemented to delay or prevent the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Prediabetes is defined as a hemoglobin Ac level between 5.7% and 6.4%, fasting glucose between 101 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L) and 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L), or impaired glucose tolerance test with 2-hour glucose between 140 mg/dL (7.7 mmol/L) and 199 mg/dL (11.0 mmol/L) after a 75-g oral glucose load. This patient had three laboratory test results consistent with prediabetes in the past 6 months. The development of type 2 diabetes in persons at high risk can be delayed or prevented with modifications to lifestyle (diet, exer-cise), pharmacologic intervention, or metabolic surgery. The initial step in management of prediabetes should be intensive lifestyle management. Lifestyle modifications have been shown to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes by 58% in persons with prediabetes. The American Diabetes Association recommends a program for intensive lifestyle behavioral changes that includes at least a 7% weight loss over 6 months and at least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise. Patients with prediabetes should be retested yearly to monitor for the development of type 2 diabetes. Although some pharmacologic agents, including a-glucosidase inhibitors, glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists, and thiazolidinediones have been shown to reduce the incidence of diabetes in some trials, none are FDA approved for diabetes prevention. Glipizide (Option A), a sulfonylurea, is not indicated as a treatment for diabetes prevention. In addition, glipizide is associated with weight gain. In contrast, metformin (Option C) has demonstrated efficacy in diabetes risk reduction. In the Diabetes Prevention Program, metformin was not as effective as lifestyle modification but reduced the incidence of diabetes by 31% compared with placebo and by 18% at 10-year follow-up. Metformin may be considered for prevention of type 2 diabetes in patients with prediabetes unresponsive to lifestyle modifications, particularly in patients with BMl greater than 35, age younger than 60 years, or a history of gestational dia-betes. If this patient fails to lose weight, metformin would be a reasonable addition. Although weight neutral, sitagliptin (Option D), a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, is not indicated as a treatment for diabetes prevention.
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A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medical history is significant for hypertension. Medications are metformin, empagliflozin, atorvastatin, and hydrochlorothiazide. On physical examination, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c level of 7.0%, estimated glomerular filtration rate of 50 mL/min/1.73 m2, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 98 mg/g. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment? a. Start lisinopril b. Start verapamil c. Stop empagliflozin d. Stop metformin
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A 34-year-old woman is evaluated after a recent diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus, which she also experienced during a pregnancy 2 years ago. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Since her most recent diagnosis, she has improved her diet, is exercising regularly, and is monitoring her glucose levels. Fasting plasma glucose levels are 105 to 115 mg/dL (5.8-6.4 mmol/L), and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels are 130 to 140 mg/dL (7.2-7.8 mmol/L). For patients with gestational diabetes, the recommended glucose targets are a fasting plasma glucose level less than 95 mg/dL (5.3 mmol/L) and a 2-hour postprandial glucose level less than 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Initiate basal and prandial insulin b. Initiate glyburide c. Initiate metformin d. Intensify lifestyle modifications
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A 67-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for hyperglycemia 3 days after admission for a COPD exacerbation. Appropriate treatment was initiated with antibiotics, bronchodilators, supplemental oxygen, and systemic glucocorticoids. The patient's oral intake remains good. Since the initiation of systemic glucocorticoids, fasting blood glucose levels have been consistently greater than 180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L) and postprandial levels occasionally greater than 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L). On admission, hemoglobin A1c was 5.3%. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's hyperglycemia? a. Basal and correctional insulin b. Basal, prandial, and correctional insulin c. Correctional insulin d. Metformin
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A 23-year-old woman is evaluated for persistent hirsutism related to polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). She presented for evaluation 6 months ago with irregular menstrual cycles, coarse facial and body hair, and obesity. Diabetes screen ing was normal. Combined oral contraceptive therapy was prescribed along with weight loss. She has been adherent to this treatment and now has monthly withdrawal vaginal bleeding: she also has lost 1.5 kg (10.0 lb). She has had some improvement in hair growth but is not completely satisfied. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 30. She has dark, coarse hair over her chin, upper lip, chest, back, pubic area, arms, and legs. No evidence of virilism is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? a. Add metformin b. Add spironolactone c. Obtain adrenal CT d. Obtain pelvic ultrasonography
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A 45 year old man is evaluated for follow up management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He reports intermittent hypoglycemia. Fasting glucose values range from 120 to 160 mg dI (6.7 8.9 mmol L): daily glucose levels range from 110 to 180 mg dl (7.8 9.9 mmol L) with symptomatic values as low as 60 mg dL (3.3 mmol L) at various times. Medications are metformin, insulin glargine, insulin lispro, and atorvastatin. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c level of 8.5 and a serum creatinine level of 0.9 mg dL (79.6 umol L). Which of the following is the most appropriate management to improve glucose control? a. Discontinue metformin b. Increase insulin glargine c. Initiate continuous glucose monitoring d. Reduce insulin glargine
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Based on the American Diabetes Association guidelines, which patient is a candidate for metabolic surgery? A. 56/M with type 2 DM, BMI 35 kg/m2, HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen B. 56/M with type 1 DM, BMI 35 kg/m2, HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen C. 56/M with type 1 DM, BMI 30 kg/m2, HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen D. 56/M with type 2 DM, BMI 30 kg/m2, HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen
A. 56/M with type 2 DM, BMI 35 kg/m2, HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen Explanation: Harrison’s 21st page 3114 According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) Standards of Care, metabolic surgery (bariatric surgery) is recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who meet the following criteria: • BMI ≥ 40 kg/m², regardless of glycemic control • BMI 35–39.9 kg/m², if hyperglycemia is inadequately controlled despite optimal medical therapy • BMI 30–34.9 kg/m², if hyperglycemia remains uncontrolled despite medical therapy (considered in select cases) Why the other choices are incorrect: • B. 56/M with type 1 DM, BMI 35 kg/m², HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen → Metabolic surgery is NOT recommended for type 1 DM, as it does not address the underlying autoimmune process. (Incorrect) • C. 56/M with type 1 DM, BMI 30 kg/m², HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen → Again, metabolic surgery is not recommended for type 1 DM. (Incorrect) • D. 56/M with type 2 DM, BMI 30 kg/m², HbA1c 10% despite insulin regimen → Metabolic surgery may be considered for BMI 30–34.9 kg/m², but it is not a primary recommendation. (Less optimal choice compared to A)
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