Endocrine System Flashcards

1
Q

When homeostasis is out of balance, the endocrine system releases hormones into the blood supply to restore balance. What are the three classes of hormone molecules?

A

Amines/amino acids

  • Thyroid hormones that bind to nuclear receptors which regulate gene transcription.
  • Adrenaline/noradrenaline bind to GPCR receptors responsible for intracellular signalling.

Peptides/proteins
- Insulin binds to the receptor tyrosine kinase causing an intracellular signal via the P cascade.

Steroids
- Glucocorticoids bind to nuclear receptors - transcription factors.

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2
Q

What are the different glands of the endocrine system?

A

Parathyroid - PTH stimulated by calcium levels.
Pancreas - insulin and glucagon - stimulated by glucose levels.
Gonads - androgens in males, oestrogena nd progesterone in females.
Adrenals - medulla produces adrenaline and noradrenaline whilst cortex produces cortisol, corticosterone, cortisone, aldosterone and androgens.
Thyroid - thyroxine, triodothyronine and calcitonin.
Pituitary - anterior produces ACTH, TSH, GH, PRL, MSH, FSH and LH, posterior produces ADH and oxytocin.
Hypothalamus - ADH, oxytocin.
Heart - atrial natruiretic peptide.
Kidney - renin, erythropoitin.
Digestive tract - gastrin, CCK, secretin.
Pineal (in the brain) - melatonin - this establishes 24h circadian rhythm.

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3
Q

What are endocrine glands?

A

Ductless and richly vascularized glands that secrete messengers directly into the circulation. (Exocrine glands excrete substances onto an epithelial surface by a duct.

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4
Q

What are the different cell signalling methods?

A

Intracrine - release products which regulate something within cell.
Autocrine - release products which act upon itself.
Paracrine - release products which act on neighbouring cells.
Endocrine - release products which act on distant target cells.
Neuroendocrine - neurons release products which act on distant target cells.

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5
Q

What are the 4 broad areas under important regulation of endocrine organs?

A

Reproduction
Growth and development.
Maintenance of internal environment.
Regulation of energy.

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6
Q

What are hormones?

A

Chemical messengers released by glands into the circulation that bind to specific high affinity recognition sites/receptors on/in target cells.
- A single hormone may have different tissue-specific effects.
A single function may be regulated by different hormones.

Some hormones directly target target tissue while others trigger the release of additional hormones which work on target cells.

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7
Q

The catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline are derived from tyrosine - explain the synthesis of these hormones.

A

Tyrosine is converted to L_DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase. Dopa decarboxylase then breaks this down into dopamine. Dopamine B-hydroxylase then converts this to noradrenaline. Adrenaline is then produced from the breakdown of noradrenaline by the enzyme phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase.

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8
Q

The thyroid hormones thyroxine and triiodothyronine are derived from tyrosine - explain the synthesis of these hormones.

A

Tyrosine goes to monoiodotyrosine (MIT) which then goes to di-iodotyrosine (DIT).
2 molecules of DIT turns into thyroxine (T4).
One molecule of MIT and one molecule of DIT produce triiodotyrosine (T3)

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9
Q

What are steroid hormones derived from?

A

Cholesterol to give the tetra planar structure - hence why some fat is required in the diet in order to provide the body with cholesterol for the synthesis of steroid hormones.

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10
Q

What are the steroid hormones derived from cholesterol?

A

Adrenal hormones (cortisol and aldosterone), sex hormones (testosterone and estradiol) and vitamin D.

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11
Q

How is progesterone and aldosterone derived from cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol - pregnenalone - progesterone - corticosterone - aldosterone.

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12
Q

How is cortisol derived from cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol - pregnenalone - 17hydroxyprogesterone - cortisol.

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13
Q

How is adrostenedione derived from cholesterol?

A

Cholesterol - pregnenalone - dehydroepiandosterone - androstenedione.

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14
Q

What are peptides?

A

Short amino acid chains e.g. ADH and oxytocin.

Polypeptides e.g. insulin and prolactin.

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15
Q

What hormones are proteins?

A

TSH, FSH and GH.

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16
Q

How are proteins synthesised?

A

Proteins are synthesised in the nucleus, rough endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus. They are then released by exocytosis as prohormone or hormone into the bloodstream.

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17
Q

What are hormone receptors?

A

For a cell to respond to a hormone it must have receptors for that hormone. The number of receptors for a hormone can increase or decrease. Hormone receptors may be cell surface receptors or intracellular receptors.

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18
Q

What are cell surface receptors?

A

Rcepetors that activate an intracellular signalling cascade - e.g. GPCR (for adrenaline) and RTK (for insulin).

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19
Q

What are intracellular receptors?

A

Activate gene transcription e.g. carrier proteins in blood activated by corticosteroids.

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20
Q

Whats a negative feedback loop?

A

Stop the hormone release from the endocrine cell once the target cell has been successfully activated.

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21
Q

Whats a positive feedback loop?

A

Increase the release of hormone once the target cell is reached.

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22
Q

What are the different endocrine disorders?

A

Hyposecretive, hypersecretive, hyporesponsive and hyperresponsive.

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23
Q

How can a tumour affect endocrinology?

A

A tumour is uncontrolled proliferation of cells - an endocrine tumour could therefore lead to hypersecretion.

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24
Q

Blood glucose levels are usually around 4.5 - 5.5. What regulates this?

A

When glucose levels rise, pancreas releases insulin which stimulates uptake of glucose into the liver, muscle and adipose tissue.
When glucose levels drop, pancrease releases glucagon which stimulates gluconeogenesis and glyogenolysis.

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25
Q

How are glucagon and insulin counterregulatory hormones?

A

They have opposite effects - glucagon is catabolic whilst insulin is anabolic.

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26
Q

Explain the biology of the pancreas.

A

The pancreas is located by the duodenum and has a pancreatic duct running through it. It is composed of acinar cells and islet of langerhans - this is a ball of endocrine cells. The vast majority are beta cells which produce insulin but a ring of alpha cells surround these, responsible for producing glucagon.
delta cells produce somatostatin which suppresses GI motility and release of insulin and glucagon.

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27
Q

What transports glucose in the blood ?

A

Glut 4.

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28
Q

Whats the structure of insulin?

A

Insulin is composed of 2 biologically active peptides and one active chain - the A chain and B chain are active and joined by two disulfide bonds, the C peptide is inactive.

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29
Q

How is insulin degraded?

A

By insulinase in the liver and kidneys - it has a half life of 6 minutes.

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30
Q

Whats an insulin receptor?

A

An insulin receptor is a type of tyrosine kinase in which insulin binds to the extracellular a-subunits.

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31
Q

How is insulin involved in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Insulin facilitates the entry of glucose into muscle and adipose tissue and stimulates the liver to store glucose as glycogen - in turn this leads to a decreased concentration of glucose in the blood.

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32
Q

How is insulin involved in lipid metabolism?

A

Insulin promotes the synthesis of fatty acids in the liver (when glycogen saturated) leading to an increase in lipoproteins in circulation to release fatty acids which are used in triglyceride synthesis in the adipocytes.
Inhibits the breakdown of fat in adipose tissue.
Promotes glycerol synthesis from glucose and increase triglyceride synthesis.

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33
Q

How do we know that insulin is involved in muscle glucose uptake?

A

If insulin is present, when the extracellular glucose levels increase, so will the intracellular glucose levels hence demonstrating that insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose in muscle.

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34
Q

Explain the process of stimulation of glucose uptake by insulin.

A

When extracellular glucose levels rise, insulin is released which binds to insulin receptor tyrosine kinase on the cell, this stimulates the storage microsome of the cell to release glucose transporters hence increasing the uptake of glucose into the cell.

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35
Q

What do insulin sensatizing drugs do?

A

Increase glucose uptake by skeletal muscle and reduce gluconeogenesis in the liver.

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36
Q

Explain the affects of insulin on muscle.

A

Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose into the muscle - this then gets converted to glucose-6-p which then gets converted to glycogen and stored. The glucose-6-p can also be converted into lactic acid to produce energy - the lactic acid then goes to the liver.
Insulin also promotes the uptake of amino acids by muscle then get converted into structural proteins.

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37
Q

What affect does insulin have on the liver?

A

Insulin increases the release of glucokinase (an enzyme facilitating the phosphorylation of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate) whilst decreasing levels of glucose-6-phosphatase (an enzyme that hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate into glucose) hence overall promoting the uptake of glucose into liver cells and converting it into glucose-6-phosphate.
The glucose-6-phosphate can then be converted to glycogen - this is promoted by insulin triggering the release of glycogen synthetase.
The glucose-6-phosphate can also undergo a series of reactionsto produce lipoproteins which then get deposited in adipose tissue. (glucose-6-p - pyruvate - acetylcoa - fatty acids)
The liver cells convert lactic acid to pyruvate, amino acids to acetylcoa and they take up fatty acids. All of these undergo reactions to produce lipoproteins which then get taken up by adipose tissue.

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38
Q

What are the affects of insulin on adipose tissue?

A

Insulin increases the uptake of glucose and amino acids by adipose tissue which both undergo a series of reactions to finally produce triglycerides.
Alternatively the glucose absorbed can be converted into glycerol phosphate and then triglycerides.
The adipose tissue also takes up lipoproteins from the liver which get converted to fatty acids by the enzyme lipoprotein lipase (stimulated by insulin) and then converted into triglycerides.

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39
Q

What is glucagon?

A

A peptide hormone released from alpha cells of the islets of LAngerhans in the pancreas when blood glucose falls. It stimulates glucogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and increases the breakdown of fats (into ketones, an alternative energy source).

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40
Q

What is hypoglycaemia?

A

A condition where blood glucose levels are abnormally low and the uptake of glucose by glucose dependent tissue is not adequate to maintain tissue function. The CNS becomes very sensitive causing slurred speech, impaired vision, confusion, mood change etc.
There is also overactivity of the ANS causing sweats shakiness and hunger.

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41
Q

Whats diabetes mellitus?

A

Diabetes is characterised by hyperglycaemia.
Type 1 is incurable and insulin dependent.
Type 2 reuires lifestyle changes and medication.
Gestational diabetes can occur in pregnancy.

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42
Q

Whats the musculoskeletal system?

A

The skeleton, muscles and accessory tissues allowing locomotion and articulation

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43
Q

What are the 2 main types of tissue in the skeleton?

A

Bone - a compact exterior and a trabecular interior - encased with fibrous peristoneum.
Cartilage:
- hyaline = growth plate, joint surfaces, temporary scaffold.
- fibrocartilage = intervertebral discs, minisci in joint spaces - this is not encased in fibrous peristoneum.
- elastic = external ear, epiglottis larynx.

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44
Q

Whats the function and composition of bones?

A

Bones provide support, protection, muscle attachment, mineral reservoir, hematopoiesis, lipid storage and endocrine function.
They are composed of 65% minerals, 5% proteoglycans and 30% type 1 collagen.

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45
Q

What are the cell types of bone?

A

Osteoblasts (bone forming cells), osteocytes (most abundant) and osteoclasts (bone resorbing).

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46
Q

Whats the function and composition of cartilage?

A

Cartilage is required for none formation, growth of long bones, articulating joint surface.
They are composed of 65% type 2 collagen, 20% proteoglycans, 10% glycosaminoglycans and 5% glycoproteins.

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47
Q

What are the cell types of the cartilage?

A

Chondroblasts and chondrocytes.

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48
Q

The bones make up 2 skeletons, what are they?

A

Axial skeleton - bones of skull, vertebral column and ribs.

Appendicular skeleton - bones of limbs pelvis scapula and clavicle.

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49
Q

Bones can be classified by shape, what are these classifications?

A

Long bones, short bones, flat bones and irregular bones.

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50
Q

Bone is a living metabolically active tissue consisting of a protein (collagen) matrix upon which calcium salts are deposited. Describe the structure of long bone.

A

The long bone is divided into the epiphyses (ends) and the shaft (diaphysis). The portion between the epiphyses and the shaft is called the metaphysis - this contains the epiphyseal growth plate of actively proliferating cartilage during growth. There is a nutrient artery running through long bone.

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51
Q

Whats the epiphysis?

A

The epiphysis is the end of the long bone - it has spongy bone and red bone marrow within it.

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52
Q

Whats the diaphysis?

A

The shaft - its coated in periosteum.

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53
Q

Whats the medullary cavity?

A

The medullary cavity is the central cavity of the bone marrow shafts where red/yellow bone marrow is stored.

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54
Q

Whats the endosteum?

A

The endosteum is a thin vascular membrane of connective tissue lining the inner surface of the medullary cavity.

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55
Q

Whats the periosteum?

A

The periosteum coats bones - it contains an outer fibrous layer and an inner osteogenic layer. There are periosteal veins and arteries along the periosteum which branch into the bone via perforating canals - these blood vessels run through the bone in central canals alongside lymphatic vessels.

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56
Q

Whats the microanatomy of the trabecular (spongy bone)?

A

A lining of osteoblasts with a few osteoclasts - inclosed is osteocytes bound with lamellae (cells) joined by canaliculi (junctions)

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57
Q

What are the cells of the bone?

A

Osteogenic cells develop into osteoblasts (which form bone matrix) these then develop into osteocytes (which maintain bone tissue).
Osteoclasts have functions in resorption, the breakdown of bone matrix.

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58
Q

Describe the process of ossification (bone development)

A

The skeleton develops from embryonic mesenchyme - these are loosely packed unspecialised skells in a gel like matrix, derived fromthe embryonic mesoderm.
The mesenchymal cells migrate and form condensations - these are cellular aggregates that prefigure sites of bone developement.
- The bone can form directly within the condensation - this is intramembraneous ossification.
- A cartilage template can form within the condensation which is subsequently replaced with bone - this is endochondrial ossification.

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59
Q

Describe intramembraneous ossification.

A

Developement of ossification centre, calcification, formation of trabeculae, development of the periosteum.

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60
Q

Describe endochondrial ossification.

A

1 - Chondrocytes at the centre of the growing cartilage model enlarge and then die as the matrix calcifies.
2 - Newly derived osteoblasts cover the shaft of the cartilage in a thin layer of new bone.
3 - Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage. New osteoblasts form a primary ossification centre.
4 - The bone of the shaft thickens and the cartilage near each epiphysis is replaced by shafts of bone.
5 - Blood vessels invade the epiphysis and osteoblasts form secondary centres of ossification.

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61
Q

Whats the epiphyseal plate?

A

The epiphyseal plate is the location in which growth occurs. Chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate divide and enlarge and calcified cartilage is replaced by bone - the thickness of the epiphyseal plate remains unchanged but bone is added to the diaphysis.

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62
Q

Explain the process in the epiphyseal plate.

A

1 - New cartilage is produced on the epiphyseal side of the plate as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells.
2 - Chondrocytes mature and enlarge.
3 - Matrix is calcified and chondrocytes die.
4 - The cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the plate is replaced by bone.

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63
Q

Whats apposition?

A

The post natal growth of width - the outer bone gets pushed wider (bone deposited by osteoblasts) whilst the bone resorbed by osteoclasts moves outwards.

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64
Q

Explain how bone is maintained.

A
Resting bone surface - preosteoclasts.
Resorption - active osteoclasts.
Reversal - mononuclear cells, preosteoblasts.
Bone formation - osteoblasts.
Mineralization - osteocytes.

There is no net change in bone mass, the remodelling process just allows bones to adapt to changes in mechanical loading and retain its structural integrity.

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65
Q

How is bone affected by age?

A

Bone mass changes with age with age related bone loss - women experience an extra drop during menopause. As you get older, the trabeculae get thinner, fewer and more widely spaced.

66
Q

How does a bone regenerate after a fracture?

A

1 - Hematoma formation - blood is released from damaged blood vessels to form a hematoma.
2 - Callus formation - The internal callus forms between ends of the bones and the external callus forms a collar around the break.
3 - Callus ossification - woven spongey bone replaces the internal and external calluses.
4 - Bone remodelling - Compact bone replaces woven bone and part of the internal callus is removed, restoring the medullary cavity.

67
Q

What are joints?

A

Joints occur at the point where two or more bones meet. Joints are classified according to the range of motion they exhibitand the types of tissue that holds the bones together: synovial joints, fibrous joints and cartaliginous joints.

68
Q

Whats the most important joint?

A

Synovial joints - these allow free movement. There are 6 types - planar hinge pivot condyloid saddle and ball and socket.
All synovial joints have a similar structure:
- Articular cartilage covering the ends of the bones to provide a smooth lubricating surface that resists compression.
- A bilayered joint capsule:
- an outer fibrous layer attaches to the periosteum of the
articulating bone.
- an inner elastic layer - this is an inner synovial
membrane which is the site of production of synovial
fluid.
- A joint cavity filled with viscous synovial fluid - this has non Newtonian properties as viscosity increases with applied force.

69
Q

How are joints affected in osteoarthritis?

A

The cartilage is thinned hence the ends of the bone rub together.

70
Q

How is the joints affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The bone erodes and there is a swollen inflamed synovial membrane.

71
Q

What is extracellular calcium required for?

A

Nerve function, muscle contraction, coagulation, skeletal mineralisation and activation of most cell types.

72
Q

Whats the physiologically active fraction of total plasma calcium?

A

The calcium which is unbound this is around 45%.

73
Q

Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathyroid hormone, explain the role of this hormone.

A

Parathyroid hormone is a single chain polypeptide derived from the larger precursor peptides pre-proPTH and proPTH.
PTH is produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid gland.
- Calcium acting via the G-protein coupled calcium sensing receptor causes a decrease in ionised (free) plasma calcium causing an increase in PTH secretion.
- Calcitriol acts directly on the PTH to decrease pre-proPTH mRNA.

74
Q

The parathyroid hormone increases plasma calcium and decreases plasma PO4 3- via what mechanisms?

A

Kidney - PTH stimulates calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule and inhibits reabsorption of phosphate in the proximal tubule. It also increases the activity of 1a-hydroxylase and decreases 24-hydroxylase - overall increasing the renal production of calcitriol.

Bone - PTH stimulates rapid efflux of calcium from freely exchangeable calcium pool (an affect of osteocytes and bone lining cells). PTH also increases the number and activity of osteoclasts via action on osteoblasts which causes a gradual increase in bone resorption.

GI tract - stimulates absorption of calcium and phosphate - this is a delayed effect.

75
Q

To summarise, what occurs when plasma calcium levels decrease?

A

There will be an increase in PTH secretion which increases bone reabsorption, increases calcium absorption in the intestine and in the kidneys as well as decreasing phosphate reabsorption and increasing hydroxylation of calcifediol into calcitriol, consequently increasing calcium levels to normal.

76
Q

How is calcitriol metabolised in the body?

A

7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin gets converted into cholecalciferol by sunlight.
Cholecalciferol enters bloodstream and gets metabolised in the liver into calcifediol via the enzyme 25-hydroxylase, regulated by CYP2R1.
Calcifediol travels in the blood to the kidneys where it gets converted to calcitriol by CYP27B1 - calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D and will act on target organs.
Calcifediol can also be converted to 24,25 dihydroxyvitamin D, the inactive form of vitamin D

77
Q

What is calcitriol?

A

Calcitriol is an active metabolite of vitamin D. Its a secosteroid (open B ring) produced in the kidneys by 1a-hydroxylation of calcifediol. The majority of calcitriol is bound to vitamin D binding protein (a-globulin) transcalciferin - only the free fraction is active - this has a half life of 3-6 hours.
Calcitriol interacts with a nuclear receptor - this is a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily.

78
Q

Vitamin D, whether consumed in diet or synthesized in the skin is rapidly converted to calcifediol in the liver. What are plasma levels of calcitriol determined by?

A

The rate of conversion of calcifediol to calcitriol (activation step) and the rate of conversion of calcitriol to 24,25 OH D (the inactivation step).

79
Q

How does parathyroid hormone affect calcitrio levels?

A

PTH stimulates the conversion of calcifediol into calcitriol - this then increases calcium and phosphate levels in the blood.

80
Q

What consequently occurs from the increased calcium and phosphate levels?

A

The increased concentrations inhibit the conversion of calcifediol to calcitriol - calcium inadvertently does this by stopping the action of PTH. Also, the calcitriol produced inhibits the conversion of calcifediol to calcitriol and inhibits the action of PTH.
The calcitriol also stimulates the conversion of calcifediol to 24,25 OH D - the inactive form of vitamin D.

81
Q

How does calcetriol increase calcium levels?

A

Stimulates absorption of calcium in the GI tract.
Stimulates absorption of phosphate.
Increases number and activity of osteoclasts - this leads to an increase in bone reabsorption and hence increases calcium and phosphate release.
Stimulates the absorption of calcium in the kidney - DCT.

82
Q

What does the endocrine regulation of calcium rely on?

A

Feedback loops - increased calcium and calcetriol negatively feedsback to inhibit PTH.

83
Q

Whats calcitonin?

A

Calcitonin is a single chain polypeptide secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland - this secretion is regulated by calcium and gastrin - both of which increase secretion of calcitonin.

84
Q

How does calcitonin affect calcium levels?

A

Calcitonin reduces calcium levels by:

  • Decreasing the release of calcium and phosphate in bones - this occurs through decreasing rapid efflux accross the bone membrane and acting directly on osteoclasts to inhibit bone resorption.
  • decreasing tubular resorption in the kidneys of calcium and phosphate.
85
Q

Summarise how calcium homeostasis is under hormonal regulation.

A

When calcium levels rise, thyroid glands release calcitonin which stimulates calcium deposition in bones and reduces calcium uptake in kidneys.
When calcium levels drop, parathyroid glands release PTH which stimulates the release of calcium from bones increases calcium uptake in the kidneys and intestines.

86
Q

What are the cellular targets in bone?

A

PTH acts on osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
Calcitriol acts on osteoblasts.
Osteoclasts also stimulate osteoblasts.
Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts.

87
Q

Whats hypercalceamia?

A

Hypercalceamia is associated with excess PTH.

88
Q

Whats hypocalceamia?

A

This is usually caused by a lack of PTH hormone or lack of vitamin D effect.

89
Q

Describe the structure of the hypothalamus and pituitary.

A

The hypothalamus joins to the pituitary gland (consiting of anterior and posterior).
The median eminance at the base of the hypothalamus releases the hypothalamic releasing hormones into the portal capillary bed to be transported to the anterior pituitary. Both the anterior and posterior pituitary have a venous and arteriel blood circulation.

90
Q

What are some of the nuclei within the hypothalamus?

A

Paraventricular nucleus - affects oxytocin release - this plays a role in lactation.
Supraoptic nucleus - vasopressin release.
Arcuate nucleus and periventricular zone - neuroendocrine control.

91
Q

What do cells of the periventricular zone do?

A

Suprachiasmatic neurones recieve retinal innervation and synchronize circadian rhytm in the light dark cycle.
Sends output to sympathetic and parasympathetic output neurones in spinal cord to control activity of the autonomic nervous system.
Neurosecretory cells responsible for the release of regulatory hormones to control the pituitary gland.

92
Q

What are the endocrine functions of the hypothalamus?

A

The hypothalamus releases regulatory hormones that act on the anterior pituitary to trigger the release of hormones - these then act on target endocrine glands.
Posterior pituitary hormones are also syntheiszed by the hypothalamus - this includes oxytocin and vasopressin.

93
Q

What are releasing factors produced by the hypothalamus?

A

CRF, TRH, GHRH, GnRH and PRF.

94
Q

What are the inhibiting factors produced by the hypothalamus?

A

GHIH, PIH and MSH-IH.

95
Q

Whats the anatomy of the pituitary gland?

A

The hypothalamus joins to the pituitary gland by the pituitary stalk (infundibulum). The anterior pituitary is separated from the posterior pituitary via the intermediate pituitary - this produces melanocyte stimulating hormone MSH.

96
Q

What are the trophic hormones released by the anterior pituitary? (tropic hormones target other endocrine glands).

A

TSH, ACTH, FSH and LH.

97
Q

What primary hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary?

A

GH and Prolactin (PRL).

98
Q

Explain the hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary.

A

The hypothalamus recieves arterial flow from the heart - this enters the capillaries in the median eminence where hypothalamic neurons act upon it to produce hypophysiotrophic hormone. This travels through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal vessels into the anterior pituitary and into capillaries. The hypophysiotropic hormone acts on anterior pituitary gland cells which then secrete hormones into the capillaries where it enters venous outflow to the heart.

Hypophysiotropic hormone = generic name for a hormone released by hypothalamus.

99
Q

Whats the hormone pathway once the hypothalamus releases GnRH?

A

pituitary releases LH and FSH - this acts on testes and ovaries.

100
Q

Whats the hormone pathway once the hypothalamus releases TRH?

A

pituitary releases TSH targeting the thyroid gland.

101
Q

Whats the hormone pathway once the hypothalamus releases CRF?

A

pituitary releases ACTH which acts on adrenal gland.

102
Q

Whats the hormone pathway once the hypothalamus releases GHRH or SRIF?
somatotropin = growth hormone

A

The pituitary either secretes or inhibits secretion of GH which affects multiple tissues.

103
Q

Whats the hormone pathway once the hypothalamus releases PRF or PIH?

A

The pituitary either increases or decreases release of prolactin which acts on breast.

104
Q

What negative feedback loops are there?

A

from the end hormone to the endocrine gland, from the end hormone to the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus, from the pituitary hormone to the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus.

105
Q

What are the effects of growth hormone/somatotropin?

A

Increased cell size, number and differentiation.
Stimulate proteins synthesis.
Stimulate fat utilisation.
Alter carbohydrate metabolism.

106
Q

What is growth hormone?

A

A polypeptide hormone that acts at tyrosine kinase receptors.

107
Q

How does GH affect protein synthesis?

A

Increases transcription in the nucleus, increases translation in the ribosome and increases the uptake of amino acids into the cell by transporters.

108
Q

What triggers the secretion of GH?

A

GH is released in response to GHRH and inhibited by GHIH (somatostatin).
Both these hormones are produced in the hypothalamus.
GH is regulated by a short feedback loop and controlled by factors like sleep and excercise.

109
Q

What can a deficit in GH cause?

A

Dwarfism or accelerated aging (from decreased protein synthesis)

110
Q

What can excess GH cause?

A

Giganticism or acromegaly.

111
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Acromegaly is caused by an increased production of GH causing symptoms like abnormal growth of hands and feet.

112
Q

What drugs could be used to treat acromegaly?

A

Somatostatin analogues as these would inhibit the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary.

113
Q

Whats the cellular structure of the thyroid gland?

A

Thyroid cells surround a follicle cavity (stores thyroglobulin). Also within the follicle membrane part are C-cells (produce calcitonin - involved in calcium homeostasis), and surrounding the follicle are capillaries.

114
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland synthesise?

A

Thyroxine (T4) from 2 molecules of diiodotyrosine and triiodothyronine (T3) from one molecule of MIT and one molecule of DIT.
Iodinated thyroglobulin enters the lumen by exocytosis.
Stored thyroglobulin re-enters follicle cells by enocytosis.
Lysosomal enzymes release T3 and T4.

90% are bound by binding proteins in the plasma - the free fraction can enter target tissues.

115
Q

How is mono and di iodo tyrosine synthesised?

A

From the amino acid tyrosine and iodine hence iodine is required in the diet.
Cells actively accumulate iodide and iodinate tyrosine residues to form T3 and T4.

116
Q

Explain the synthesis of thyroid hormones.

A

Iodide in the blood diffuses out of the capillarys into the thyroid cells via an iodide pump. Thyroid peroxidase oxidises the iodides (into iodine atoms) and attaches them to tyrosine rings in thyroglobulin in the lumen. One iodinated ring is attached to a DIT at another spot to form T3 or T4.Endocytosis of T3 and T4 molecules into cell, - lysosomal enzymes then release the hormones from the thyroglobulin. The hormones are then secreted into the capillaries.

  • Free amino acids are re-used for thyroglobulin synthesis - once synthesised in the follicle it gets secreted into the lumen.
  • TSH activates the iodide pump so that more iodide enters the follicle and activates lysosomal digestion.
117
Q

How is the release of thyroid hormones regulated?

A

Negative feedback of hormones to TSA and TRH.
hormones trigger release of somatostatin which inhibits release of TSH.
cortisol inhibits release of TRH.
Activation of sympathetic nerves increases secretion of TRH.
GH inhibits secretion of TRH

118
Q

Whats the role of the thyroid hormones?

A

major homeostatic regulators. They act on nuclear receptors, regulating gene transcription and affecting metabolism. also have major effect on metabolism of proteins hence affecting growth.

119
Q

How does T3 and T4 regulate gene transcription?

A

The hormones bind to mitochondrial receptors which increases production of ATP.
The hormones bind to nuclear receptors which cause mRNA transcription, then mRNA transcription enzyme synthesis, changing cellular homeostasis.

Thyroid hormone increases size and number of mitochondrial receptor, ATP production and increases transcription and translation. The effect is increase in enzyme synthesis. Most cells have the receptors meaning theres widespread response.

120
Q

How do thyroid hormones affectbasal metabolic rate?

A

Thy attach to receptors in nucleus which increases number of sodium-potassium ATPase. They also bind to mitochondria increasing size number and SA hence increasing ATP production. Both of these cause increased heat production and therefore increased BMR.

121
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect protein metabolism?

A

Bind to receptors in nucleus increasing protein synthesis and therfore tissue growth. Also increases protein breakdown through protease which increases energy expenditure and consequently BMR.

122
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Bind to TH receptors in nucleus causing increase in enzyme synthesis. This increases release of insulin (and therefore glucose uptake), increases gluconeogenesis and increases glycogenolysis.

123
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect fat metabolism?

A

Bind to receptors in nucleus which increases lipase synthesis, increasing lipid metabolism which increases free fatty acids in plasma. Also increases lipoprotein receptors on liver cells, increasing bile cholesterol secretion increasing cholesterol secretion and decreasing plasma cholesterol.

124
Q

What properties does an underactive thyroid glnd have?

A

Higher colloid levels and flattened cells.

125
Q

What properties will an overactive thyroid gland have?

A

Lower colloid levels and columnar cells.

126
Q

Whats hypothyroidism?

A

Increased TSH levels but a decrease in T4 hormone.

127
Q

Whats hyperthyroidism?

A

Size of gland increases as well as rate of secretion. Largely caused by graves disease - when antibodies bind to TSH receptors continually activating them. Could also be caused by thyrid adenoma - tumour.

128
Q

The adrenal gland consistes of the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex. What are the 3 classes of hormone secreted by this gland?

A

Catecholamines (bodily symptoms), mineralcorticoid (sodium effects) and glucocorticoids (metabolic effects).

129
Q

Whats the structure of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenal medulla in centre surrounded by adrenal cortex - this consits of 3 layers - zona reticularis, zona fascilata and zona glomerulosa. These regions are anatomically different.

  • Central medulla region is derived embryologically from neural crest cells and is a modified sympathetic ganglion - it secretes the catecholamines noradrenaline and adrenaline.
  • Outer cortex has 3 zones that each produce different steroid hormones.
    • zona glomerulosa releases aldosterone.
    • zona fascilata secretes cortisol
    • zona reticularis releases androgen precursors dehydroepiandosterone.
130
Q

How are the catecholamines produced in the adrenal medulla?

A

Tyrosine goes to (tyrosine hydroxylase) DOPA then dopamine (DOPA decarboxylase) then to noradrenaline (dopamine b-hydroxylase) then adrenaline through N-methyl transferase.

131
Q

How is the adrenal medulla invlved in fight or flight?

A

Adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic division of the ANS. Its a specialised group of postganglionic neurons in which secretion is controlled by sympathetic preganglionic nerve fibres. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system during stress is a major stimulus for release of adrenal medullary hormones.

132
Q

How do the catecholamines work?

A

Adrenaline and noradrenaline bind to a1 and b2 adrenergic receptors. They circulate in the bloodstream and act on all cells at once producing bodily symptoms associated with acute stress response.Adrenaline has a much lower plasma threshold which it often exceeds causing metabolic and cardiovascular effects, noradrenaline rarely exceeds threshold.

When the hypothalamus is stimulated it produces an action potential in the sympathetic division of the ANS which activates adrenal medulla to secrete adrenaline and noradrenaline.

133
Q

How is the mineralocorticoid aldosterone produced in the adrenal cortex?

A

Produced in zona glomerulosa. Its derived from cholesterol which goes to pregnenalone then progesterone then deoxycorticosterone then corticosterone then aldosterone.

134
Q

Whats the function of aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone stimulates the resorption of sodium (and excretion of potassium) in the cortical collecting duct causing increased water resorption, increased plasma volume and increased blood pressure.
It also decreases the ratio of sodium to potassium in sweat and saliva and increases absorption of sodium in colon.

135
Q

Whats the renin angiotensin system?

A

The kidneys produce renin which triggers angiotensinogen in the liver to convert to angiotensin I. Angiotensin converting enzymes in the lungs metabolise angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II increases vasocconstriction, raising blood pressure as well as activating adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone, increasing sodium retention and hence blood pressure.

136
Q

What can be used for hypertension?

A

ACE inhibitors.

Angiotensin II antagonists - these stop release of aldosterone and stop action of angiotensin II on vasoconstriction.

137
Q

Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasculata and zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex. How is cortisol produced?

A

17hydroxypregnenalone - 17hydroxyprogesterone - deoxycortisol - cortisol.

138
Q

What are the efffects of cortisol?

A

In response to stress, the hypothalamus releases corticotrophin releasing hormone which acts on the pituitary gland to releease adrenocorticotropic hormone triggering the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex.This causes a metabolic response, mobilising glucose in bloodstream. Proinflammatory cytokines also trigger the release of CRH from the hypothalamus.
Cortisol release is regulated by bodies circadian rhytm.

139
Q

What are the metabolic actions of glucocorticoids?

A

In white fat lipolysis is increased - this decreases the triacylglyceride store, increasing free fatty acid production and glycerol production.
In muscle connective lymphoid, proteolysis is increased(using fuel from FFA synthesis) hence reducing protein store and increasing amino acid production.
In liver the increased amino acid and glycerol production causes increased gluconeogenesis, increased glycogen store increased enzyme synthesis and increased glucose production. Overall processes increase plasma glucose.
The decrease in TAG store and proteins can cause tissue wasting if uncompensated.

140
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on the liver?

A

Cortisol binds to receptors in the nucleus causing mRNA translation which :
increases the number of amino acid transporters, increasing uptake of amino acids from plasma hence increasing protein synthesis.
increases enzyme synthesis which increases gluconeogenesis and then increases glycogen formation.

141
Q

Whats addisons disease?

A

Reduced cortisol levels causing hypoglycaemia, weight loss, fatigue etc.

142
Q

Whats cushings disease?

A

Increased cortisol levels causing hyperglycaemia, depression, increased sodium etc.

143
Q

What are the affects of corticosteroids?

A

Cause an increase in plasma glucose causing an increase in proteolysis which can cause metabolic wasting. Also cause fat redistribution and a rise in plasma fatty acid levels.

144
Q

Whats oogenesis?

A

The productionof the ovum - this occurs monthly in ovarian follicles as part of ovarian cycle.

145
Q

Whats the follicular phase?

A

Primary oocytes in ovaries develop into a primary follicle then a secondary follicle then a tertiary follicle - this is a primary oocyte surrounded by granulosa cells with an antrum containing follicular fluid. Follicular phase is under control of FSH.

146
Q

Whats the luteal phase?

A

Ovulation - follicle wall ruptures releasing the secondary oocyte into ovary.
Corpus luteum develops - this secretes oestrogen and progesterone preparing uterus for implantation.
If fertlisation doesnt occur, corpus luteum degenerates into corpus albicans.
This phase is controlled by LH.

147
Q

Whats the function of the uterus?

A

A muscular organ providing protection and nutritional support for embryo.

148
Q

What are the three layers of the uterine wall?

A

Myometrium - outer muscular layer.
Endometrium - thin glandular mucosa consisting of a basilar zone and a functional zone.
Perimetreum - incomplete serosa continuous with peritoneum.

149
Q

How does the endometrium change in the uterine cycle?

A

Menses - degeneration of endometrium - menstruation.
Proliferative phase - restoration of endometrium - oestragen.
Secretory phase - endometrial glands enlarge and accelerate rates of secretion - progesteroen.

150
Q

What are the hormones of the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH - stimulate sfollicular developemnt.
LH - maintains structure and secretory functions of corpus luteum.
oestrogen - multiple functions.
progesterone - stimulates endometrial growth and secretion.

151
Q

Whats gonadotropin releasing hormone?

A

The functioning of gonads is controlled by hypothalamus and anterior pituitary under influence of cortex. This leads to pulsile GnRH release and consequently pulsatile release of hormones from pituitary.

152
Q

Whats the receptor binding of sex hormones?

A

Sex hormones act through nuclear receptors. These have ligand binding and DNA binding domains. once hormone bound they translocate to the nucleus and bind to hormone response elements in specific gene sequences.
dimerisation is important for function

153
Q

What is menopause?

A

Menstruation becomes irregular then stops - very few primordial follicles in ovaries. Gonadotrophins are secreted in larger amounts due to loss of negative feedback.

154
Q

Menopause can increase risk of osteoporosis - what is this?

A

oestrogen acts to maintain bone mineral density - there is apositive relationship between maintenance of bone mass and hormone replacement therapy. Raloxifene is a SERM that functions like oestrogen to mintain bone density.

155
Q

How does combined pill work?

A

oestrogen - suppresses ovulation by inhibiting the release of LH/FSH henec mimicking negative feedback.
Progesterone - thickens cervical mucus and thins endometrium.

156
Q

Whats the progesterone only pill?

A

Cervical mucus turns thick ans sticky - hostile to sperm, endometrium changes so implantation is less likely, weak negative feedback inhibition of LH release and ovulation.

157
Q

Whats emergency conraception ?

A

High does of progesterone can prevent pregnancy.

158
Q

What can be used for medical abortion?

A

A progesterone antagonist and a prostaglandin.

159
Q

How do prostaglandins cause uterine wall contractions?

A

Prostaglandins are derived from arachidonic acid found in membrane phospholipids. Phospholipase A liberates arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids - this is then broken into:

  • prostaglandinds by cyclooxygenase causing vascular affects.
  • Thromboxanes by cyclooxygenase which are clotting mediators.
  • Leukotrienes by lipoxygenase causing inflammation.
160
Q

Whats parturition?

A

Child birth begins with posterior pituitary producing oxytocin causing uterine contractions. This then release prostaglandins further inducing contractions. this pushes babies head downwards causing a cervical stretch - this positively feedsback to the posterior pituitart and uterine contractions.