Endocrine Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Endocrine hyperfunction is usually due to what three things?

A
  • increased trophic hormone
  • artificial hormone
  • neoplasms (primarily adenomas)
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2
Q

Endocrine hypofunction is usually due to what five things?

A
  • inflammation
  • surfical excision
  • circulation defect (infarct or hemorrhage)
  • mass effect
  • congenital enzyme defect
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3
Q

What are the endocrine cells in the adrenal medulla called?

A

chromaffin cells

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4
Q

What do chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla produce?

A

catecholamines, especially epinephrine

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5
Q

What are paraganglia?

A
  • neuroendocrine cells similar to chromaffin cells, which are dispersed in nodules
  • associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
  • divided into three groups based on location: branchiomeric, intravagal, aorticosympathic
  • give rise to pheochromocytomas in the adrenal medulla or paragangliomas in the organ of Zuckerkandl or in associated with the carotid bodies
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6
Q

What is the “rule of 10s” associated with pheochromocytomas?

A
  • 10% arise in association with a familial syndrome
  • 10% are extra-adrenal
  • 10% of the non-familial ones are bilateral
  • 10% are biologically malignant
  • 10% occur in childhood
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7
Q

How do pheochromocytomas present?

A
  • triad of headache, sweating, and palpitations

- if accompanied by hypertension, these signs are 90% specific and sensitive

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8
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A
  • a tumor of chromatin cells leading to excess catecholamines
  • associated with MEN2, VHL, and neurofibromatosis type 1
  • presents as episodic release of catecholamines (hypertension, headaches, palpitations, tachycardia, and sweating)
  • diagnosed by increased catecholamines, metanephrines and VPA (catecholamine metabolites) in urine and elevated metanprhines and chromogranin A in plasma
  • gross exam reveals a brown tumor
  • treatment is preparation with an irreversible alpha blocker called phenoxybezamine and then a beta blocker (prevents hypertensive crisis during surgery) before removal
  • follow the rule of 10s: 10% bilateral, 10% familial, 10% malignant, 10% located outside the medulla
  • most frequent ectopic location is in the bladder wall, in which case symptoms are tied to urination
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9
Q

How are pheochromocytomas diagnosed?

A
  • elevated plasma metanephrines and chromogranin A

- elevated urinary catecholamines, metanephrines, and VMA

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10
Q

What familial syndromes are risk factors for pheochromocytoma?

A
  • VHL
  • neurofibromatosis, type I
  • MEN, type 2
  • familial paragangliomas
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11
Q

Where are paragangliomas most likely to arise?

A
  • most commonly in the adrenal medulla as a pheochromocytoma
  • paravertebral paraganglia (organ of Zuckekandl) and paragnaglia related to the great vessels of the head and neck are the most common extra-adrenal locations
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12
Q

Head and neck paraganglioma

A
  • a neuroendocrine tumor of the paraganglia related to the great vessels of the head and neck, including the carotid bodies
  • innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system and rarely release catecholamines
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13
Q

Neuroblastoma

A
  • a neuroendocrine tumor that can occur anywhere along the sympathetic chain
  • most common presentation is as an adrenal medulla tumor in children under 4
  • the most common extra-cranial solid tumor in children
  • derived from post-ganglionic sympathetic nervous system and of neural crest cell origin
  • associated with N-myc oncogene over expression (more copies predict worse outcome) but hyperdiploid tumors with over expression of TKA do well
  • presents with abdominal distension and a firm, irregular mass that can cross the midline
  • this distinguishes it from a Wilms tumor which is smooth and unilateral
  • less likely to develop hypertension that with a pheochromocytoma but may present with opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome (“dancing eyes and dancing feet”)
  • unique in that they can mature to ganglioneuroblastoma or ganglioneuromas or even spontaneously regress
  • catecholamine metabolites HVA and VMA are elevated in urine
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14
Q

Describe the histology of a neuroblastoma.

A
  • prominent mitotic activity, karyorrhexis, and pleomorphism
  • faintly eosinophilic fibrillary material called neuropil in the background
  • form rosettes with tumor cells arranged around a central space filled with this eosinophilic material
  • cells contain catecholamine secretory granules
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15
Q

Neuroblastomas are associated with what genetic change?

A

amplification of N-myc

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16
Q

Carcinoid Tumor

A
  • a neuroendocrine tumor most commonly arising in the GI tract or in association with the bronchial tree
  • most are asymptomatic unless they cause angulation or obstruction of the small intestine; may cause respiratory obstruction and hemoptysis if found in the lungs
  • some patients develop carcinoid syndrome, thought to arise from excess serotonin
  • this can be a helpful diagnostic markers if elevated in the serum or if the inactive metabolite 5-HIAA is
  • excess serotonin produced by these tumors is usually metabolized by the liver, so carcinoid syndrome doesn’t arise until the liver parenchyma has been destroyed by a metastasis or the tumor has metastasized outside the GI tract
  • prognosis is good unless there there are disseminated metastases
  • treatment is primarily surgical but anti-serotonergics and anti-histamines can be used to control symptoms
  • follows the rule of 1/3s such that ⅓ metastasize, present with 2nd malignancy, and are multiple
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17
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome

A
  • a syndrome that arises in associate with a carcinoid tumor
  • typically not until that tumor has spread beyond the GI tract or destroyed the liver
  • mediated by excess serotonin
  • most patients present with vasomotor disturbances in the form of cutaneous flushes and apparent cyanosis as well as intestinal hypermotility causing diarrhea, cramps, and n/v
  • other symptoms include asthmatic bronchoconstrictive attacks, hepatomegaly, or systemic fibrosis with cardiac involvement
  • an increase in 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) is detectable in urine
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18
Q

VIPoma

A
  • an endocrine tumor that secretes vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
  • presents with watery diarrhea
  • any tumor of neural crest cell origin can also be associated with secretion of VIP
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19
Q

Any tumor of neural crest cell origin can be associated with secretion of what endocrine hormone?

A

vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

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20
Q

The thyroid is in close proximity to which nerves?

A

the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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21
Q

How does the parathyroid gland of a young individual compare to that of an older individual?

A

as we age, much of the cellular parenchyma is replaced with fat

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22
Q

How does hypoparathyroidism typically present?

A
  • hypocalcemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
  • neuromuscular irritability (tetany) including laryngospasms, twitching, and convulsions
  • positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign
23
Q

What is the most common cause of a congenitally absent parathyroid?

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

24
Q

What is Chvostek sign?

A

a twitch that is elicited by tapping on the facial nerve indicating hypocalcemia

25
Q

What is Trousseau sign?

A

a twitch elicited by pumping up a blood pressure cuff, indicating hypocalcemia

26
Q

How does hyperparathyroidism present?

A
  • hypercalcemia (stones, moans, groans, thrones, and psych overtones)
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • coma
  • resorption of bone (osteitis fibrosa cystica)
  • kidney stones
  • metastatic calcification
27
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

solitary parathyroid adenoma

28
Q

Hyperparathyroidism induces what state of serum calcium?

A

hypercalcemia

29
Q

How does the histology of a parathyroid adenoma compare to that of a normal gland?

A

adipose tissue is largely absent or pushed aside in the presence of an adenoma

30
Q

What is osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A
  • a change in bone seen in those with hyperparathyroidism
  • histology reveals numerous osteoclasts with elevated activity, widely spaced trabecular separated by fibrous tissue, and foci of hemorrhage and cyst formation
31
Q

Renal failure will cause what parathyroid dysfunction?

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism: renal insufficiency leads to a decrease in phosphate excretion, which lowers free calcium, and triggers excess PTH release

32
Q

How can primary hyperparathyroidism be differentiated from secondary?

A
  • primary typically will involve one lesion, while secondary results in hyperplasia of all four glands
  • furthermore, primary is associated with hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia while secondary is associated with hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
33
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

renal insufficiency leading to a decrease in phosphate excretion, which lowers free calcium, and triggers excess PTH release

34
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • a state of excess PTH seen long after a secondary hyperparathyroidism has been corrected
  • potentially after hypocalcemia is rapidly corrected by kidney transplant for instance
  • typically requires parathyroidectomy to control
35
Q

How does the prognosis of pancreatic endocrine tumors compare to exocrine tumors of the pancreas?

A

endocrine have relatively good prognoses

36
Q

Pancreatic endocrine neoplasms account for what percentage of all pancreatic neoplasms?

A

only 2%

37
Q

Pancreatic endocrine tumors resemble what other tumor?

A

carcinoid tumors

38
Q

How are endocrine tumors determined to be malignant?

A
  • only once evidence of metastasis is found; there are no markers for identification before
  • in other words, it is a biologic diagnosis
39
Q

What are the three most common clinical syndromes associated with functional pancreatic endocrine neoplasms?

A
  • hyperinsulinism
  • hypergastrinemia and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
  • MEN
40
Q

What is the most common functional endocrine tumor of the pancreas?

A

insulinomas

41
Q

Insulinoma

A
  • the most common pancreatic endocrine tumor
  • typically benign
  • symptoms arise from the elevated insulin levels and hypoglycemia, including sweating, fainting, weakness, and confusion, which are promptly relieved by food
  • most patients, however, are asymptomatic and the only signs are an elevated glucose-to-insulin ratio and mild hypoglycemia
  • infrequently arise in ectopic pancreatic tissue, most commonly in a Meckle’s diverticulum
  • histology reveals architecture that resembles giant islets without anaplasia; deposition of eosinophilic amyloid is common
42
Q

Gastrinoma

A
  • an endocrine tumor of the pancreas
  • gastrin secretion leads to hypertrophy of parietal cells, an excess of gastric acid, and ulcers throughout the GI tract
  • presenting syndrome is usually duodenal ulcer or chronic diarrhea
  • commonly arise from the duodenum and peri-pancreatic soft tissue in addition to within the pancreas (this is referred to as the gastrinoma triangle)
  • endoscopy will show hypertrophy of gastric mucosa, serum gastrin level is virtually diagnostic, and imaging may locate the tumor
  • more than half are locally invasive or have metastasized at the time of diagnosis
  • histology is typically bland and shows no evidence of anaplasia
  • often arise in the setting of MEN1
  • initial treatment is surgical, but PPIs and somatostatin analogs can help
43
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A
  • a syndrome of hyper secretion of gastric acid, severe peptic ulceration, and pancreatic islet cell lesions
  • commonly associated with and reminiscent of the pathophysiology of gastrinomas
44
Q

Glucagonomas

A
  • an endocrine neoplasm of the pancreas
  • presents with mild diabetes, a characteristic skin rash known as necrolytic migratory erythema, and anemia
  • occurs most frequently in peri- and post-menopausal women
  • plasma glucagon levels are extremely high
45
Q

Somatostatinomas

A
  • delta cell tumors of the pancreas
  • present with mild diabetes, cholelithiasis, steatorrhea, and hypochlorhydria
  • difficult to localize preoperatively
  • high plasma somatostatin is used for diagnosis
46
Q

Ppomas

A
  • pancreatic polypeptide-secreting endocrine tumors
  • a pancreatic carcinoid tumor producing serotonin and an atypical carcinoid tumor
  • these are endocrinological asymptomatic despite high hormone levels in plasma
47
Q

What are indicators that may suggest a diagnosis of MEN?

A
  • tumors occurring at a younger than usual age
  • tumors arising in multiple endocrine organs at the same or different times
  • multifocal tumors within a single organ
48
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndromes

A

a familial neoplastic disorder characterized by early, multifocal endocrine tumors, typically preceded by an asymptomatic stage of endocrine hyperplasia involving the cell of origin

49
Q

MEN, Type 1

A
  • also known as Wermer syndrome, it is a familial neoplastic disorder characterized by early, multifocal endocrine tumors
  • due to a germline mutation in the MEN1 tumor suppressor gene
  • most commonly the three Ps: parathyroid, pancreas, pituitary
  • but not restricted to these
  • parathyroid adenomas are the most common
  • pancreatic micro-adenomas like gastrinomas and insulinomas are responsible for most mortality
  • pancreatic polypeptide is the most commonly secreted product, so these may not be accompanied by a hyper secretion syndrome
  • prolactinomas are the most common pituitary manifestation
50
Q

MEN, Type 2A

A
  • also known as Sipple Syndrome, it is a familial neoplastic disorder characterized by early, multifocal endocrine tumors
  • due to an autosomal dominant RET oncogene mutation
  • associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma (life-threatening), pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid hyperplasia
  • screening the family and performing prophylactic thyroidectomy is advised as soon as the diagnosis is made
51
Q

MEN, Type 2B

A
  • a familial neoplastic disorder characterized by early, multifocal endocrine tumors
  • due to an autosomal dominant RET oncogene mutation
  • associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma (life-threatening), pheochromocytoma, ganglioneuromas of the oral mucosa, and marfanoid habits
  • screening the family and performing prophylactic thyroidectomy is advised as soon as the diagnosis is made
52
Q

What is the most common origin of pineal gland tumors?

A

germ cells

53
Q

What is the principal secretory product of the pineal gland?

A

melatonin

54
Q

Primary Brain Germ Cell Tumors

A
  • tumors of germ cell origin, most commonly arising in the pineal and the suprasellar regions
  • CSF levels of alpha-fetoprotein and B-hCG are important markers
  • histology reveals, large, round-to-polyhedral cells with a clear or watery-appearing cytoplasm and large, central nucleus with prominent nucleoli