Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SURGERY_LANGE > Endocrine, Head, and Neck > Flashcards

Endocrine, Head, and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Which vein CROSSES THE MIDLINE overlying the proximal trachea and is at risk in a tracheotomy?

A

anterior jugular vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the innervation of the lower lip?

A

The cervical branch of the facial nerve through the marginal mandibular branch. Ipsilateral dysfunction (since no cross innervation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the phrenic nerve–the only part of the cervical plexus not sacrificed in radical nerve dissection–located?

A

superficial to the anterior scalene. Phrenic nerve can be damaged in this procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Trumpet player complains of sudden onset nonproductive cough and hoarseness of voice:

A

prolapse of mucosa overlying the true vocal cords (ventricle of Morgagni)=supraglottic prolapse. Treatment is surgical excision of the tissue via direct laryngoscopy. Occurs in people who routinely elevate the pressure in their pharynx and chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What may cause sudden onset hoarseness of voice in a person who strains their voice (lecturers etc)?

A

spasmodic dysphonia. ***Fluctuation with normal speech can occur. Temporary improvement with botox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Difficulty breathing after being held in chokehold:

A

unilateral vocal cord paralysis due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve with compression of the cricothyoid joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dysphagia and aspiration can occur following injury to the ___________ nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the larynx.

A

internal branch of the superior laryngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Warthin’s tumor?

A

papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. Epithelial component interspersed with lymphoid tissue showing germinal centers. More common in men. Benign (?); second most common tumor of the parotid gland (following pleiomorphic adenomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common cause of primary mediastinal tumors?

A

neurogenic tumors (followed, in frequency, by thymoma, congenital cysts, lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The thymus gland arises from which branchial arches?

A

3rd and 4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It is the (absence/presence) of calcium that is more indicative of malignancy.

A

absence! <–really

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a bronchopulmonary sequestration? Where in the lung would you think about it?

A

A pulmonary sequestration (also known as a bronchopulmonary sequestration or cystic lung lesion), is a piece of tissue that ultimately develops into lung tissue that is not attached to the pulmonary arterial blood supply. Remains sequestered and does not contribute to breathing. It has a separate arterial supply

Posterior aspect of inferior lobe of lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the structures most likely to be affected initially when an apical tumor penetrates out of the thoracic inlet?

A

The first thoracic nerve and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a lung tumor has expanded to the chest wall or has metastasized, how is it treated?

A

Radiotherapy first, before resection.

In small cell, combo chemo, THEN radiotherapy, then resection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Patients with an FEV < _____ or a FVC < ______ are unlikely to tolerate a pneumonectomy well.

Neither are patients with maximal voluntary ventilation under ___%

A

FEV <50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Metastatic lung cancer tends to be in the (upper/lower) lungs.

A

Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The presence of multiple lesions on CXR should alert the physician to which diagnoses?

A

1) AV fistulas

2) metastatic lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for a single AV fistula? For multiple AV fistulas?

A

single: resection
multiple: therapeutic embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment of ARDS features PEEP and the smallest FiO2 to keep oxygen over 60 along with what kind of tidal volumes?

A

smaller (5-7) to avoid volutrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are bronchogenic cysts most commonly located?

A

behind the carina

21
Q

There are three major openings of structures that penetrate the diaphragm at different levels. What are they?

A

T8: IVC (to right of midline)
T10: esophagus (to left of midline)
T12: aorta (midline)

22
Q

How is tracheal stenosis treated? (for example, following intubation)

A

resected

23
Q

The presence of subperiosteal resorption of bone of the phalanges and lamina dura of the teeth are fairly diagnostic of:

A

hyperparathyroidism –> osteitis fibrosa cystica

24
Q

Chondromas account for 20% of benign tumors of the rib and occur where?

A

costochondral junction

25
Q

What is essential to perform in an unexplained lung abscess?

A

Bronchoscopy to rule out foreign body or malignancy that may be causing bronchial obstruction

26
Q

________ may become evident after an URI and present as a mass anterior to the SCM

A

Branchial cleft cysts

27
Q

These are usually found in the posterior triangle of the neck but can be found in the mediastinum, axilla, or groin _______ What is their origin? WHat is a useful sign to diagnose them?

A

Cystic hygromas! Represent persistent primary lymphatic buds. Transillumination

c
b?
e
a
?
28
Q

T/F: Lip SCC usually occurs beyond the vermillion border.

A

true

29
Q

What is ameloblastoma and how is it treated?

A

Benign tumor occurring at the junction of the body and ramus of the mandible. Will recur if not adequately excised; radioresistant. Odontogenic epithelium seen in connective tissue stroma with extensive areas of cystic degeneration.

30
Q

Injury to the submandibular gland may injure which nerves?

A

Lingual nerve (from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve); mandibular branch of the facial nerve

31
Q

Carcinoma of the posterior third of the tongue carries a (better/worse) prognosis

A

worse. Lymph gland spread is often encountered.

32
Q

Malignant hard palate tumors are usually what kind of cancers?

A

adenocarcinomas (arise from salivary glands)

33
Q

What is the first cranial nerve to be affected in nasopharyngeal carcinoma? What does it indicate?

A

abducens nerve (causing lateral rectus palsy); indicates cranial extension

34
Q

________ is a low grade malignancy seen more frequently in the soutehrn part of the US and found most commonly on the gingival-buccal junction in tobacco chewers.

A

Verrucous carcinoma

35
Q

A neck gland tumor is more likely to be (metastatic/primary)

A

metastatic (and most from structures above the clavicle)

36
Q

Which structures are in the classic complete neck dissection for palpable adenopathy in the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

SCM, external and internal jugular veins, spinal accessory nerve, submandibular gland, lymphatic tissue of the lateral compartment of the neck

37
Q

What is the chorda tympani?

A

a branch of the facial nerve that supplies the anterior 2/3 of the tongue with taste and which contains the secretory parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands

38
Q

What is the origin of the thymus?

A

3rd and 4th branchial arches

39
Q

What is the most common source of epistaxis?

A

Kisselbach’s vascular plexus on the anterior nasal septum

40
Q

The carotid bodies detect changes in (blood volume/PO2).

A

PO2

41
Q

Bell’s palsy is attributed to an inflammatory condition of the facial nerve at what site?

A

where it exits the stylomastoid foramen

42
Q

What is the most common complication of thyroid and parathyroid surgery?

A

iatrogenic injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

43
Q

How can an NGT lead to sinusitis?

A

NGT causes swelling and irritation of the nasal mucosa, which may occlude drainage of the sinus into the meatus

44
Q

This appears as a black crusting in the nose and sinuses of diabetics and can spread rapidly to involve the cerebrum. Biopsy reveals nonseptate hyphae.

A

Mucor –> opportunistic mold causing mucormycosis

45
Q

Which nerve is responsible for tensing the vocal cords?

A

the external laryngeal nerve (a division of the superior laryngeal nerve)

46
Q

If the thyroid gland is missing from the neck, where might it be?

A

the lingual position at the foramen cecum. Excision of this lesion from the tongue will require thyroid hormone replacement.

47
Q

The tip of the tongue drains into which lymph nodes? The side of the tongue?

A

tip: submental
side: submandibular

48
Q

What type of tumor develops along lines of embryological fusion, in the floor of the mouth and in the neck causing a “double chin” appearance?

A

dermoid cyst

49
Q

What is the major contraindication to pneumonectomy?

A

uncorrected hypercarbia (PCO2 > 60)

SURGERY_LANGE (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions