Endocrine and Reproductive systems Flashcards

1
Q

Name some examples of bisphosphonates

A

Alendronic acid, disodium pamidronate, zoledronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are bisphosphonates indicated for?

A
  1. Alendronic acid is used as the first-line drug treatment option for patients at risk of osteoporotic fragility fractures
  2. Pamidronate and zoledronic acid are used in the treatment of severe hypercalcaemia of malignancy after appropriate IV rehydration
  3. For patients with myeloma and breast cancer with bone metastases, pamidronate and zoledronic acid reduce the risk of pathological fractures, cord compression and the need for radiotherapy or surgery
  4. Bisphosphonates are used as first-line treatment of metabolically active Paget’s disease, with the aim of reducing bone turnover and pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A

They reduce bone turnover by inhibiting the action of osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption
As bone is resorbed, bisphosphonates accumulate in osteoclasts, where they inhibit activity and promote apoptosis
The net effect is reduction in bone loss and improvement in bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the important adverse effects of bisphosphonates?

A

Common side effects include oesophagitis (when taken orally) and hypophosphataemia
A rare but serious adverse effect is osteonecrosis of the jaw, which is more likely with high-dose IV therapy
Another rare AE is atypical femoral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the warnings for bisphosphonate prescription?

A

They are renally excreted and should be avoided in severe renal impairment. They are contraindicated in the context of hypocalcaemia.
Oral administration is contraindicated in patients with active upper GI disorders. Because of the risk of jaw osteonecrosis, care should be exercised in prescribing bisphosphonates for smokers and dental disease patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the important interactions with bisphosphonates?

A

They bind with calcium, therefore their absorption is reduced if taken with calcium (inc milk), as well as antacids and iron salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are bisphosphonates prescribed?

A

For osteoporosis, alendrinic acid is prescribed orally, 70mg once weekly
For severe hypercalaemia and bone mets, pamidronate or zoledronic acid are prescribed as slow IV infusions, in single or divided doses. Calcium-lowering effects may not become apparent for 3-4 days and are maximal at 7-10 days, so re-prescription should not be considered before 1 week
For Paget’s disease, risedronate is given orally and pamidronate as an IV infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are bisphosphonates administered?

A

Alendronic acid tablets should be swallowed whole at least 30 mins before breakfast or other medications, and taken with plenty of water (it is poorly absorbed)
The patient should remain upright after taking to reduce oesophageal irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are bisphosphonate medications monitored?

A

In osteoporosis, check and replace calcium and vit D before treatment. Monitor efficacy using DEXA scans every 1-3 years to check whether bone density is stable or increasing

For hypercalcaemia, monitor efficacy by symptom enquiry and reduction in calcium levels

In the treatment of myeloma, bone metastases and Paget’s disease, enquire about symptoms e.g. bone pain and bone complications e.g. pathological fracture

Be alert for symptoms of oesophagitis, osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical fractures, and monitor CA and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the bisphosphonates is the cheapest?

A
Alendronic acid (£1 a month)
Others are around £200 a month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Can bisphosphonates be prescribed without a DEXA scan?

A

Yes, you can assume a diagnosis of OP in women aged >75 who have had a fragility fracture
Bisphosphonates reduce recurrent fracture by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name some examples of systemic corticosteroids

A

Prednisolone, hydrocortisone, dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are systemic corticosteroids indicated for?

A
  1. To treat allergic or inflammatory disorders e.g. anaphylaxis, asthma
  2. Suppression of autoimmune disease e.g. IBD, inflammatory arthritis
  3. In the treatment of some cancers as part of chemotherapy or to reduce tumour-associated swelling
  4. Hormone replacement in adrenal insufficiency or hypopituitarism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do systemic steroids work?

A

They exert mainly glucocorticoid effects, and are commonly prescribed to modify the immune response
They upregulate anti-inflammatory genes and downregulate pro-inflammatory genes e.g. cytokines, TNF-a). Direct actions on inflammatory cells include suppression of circulating monocytes and eosinophils.

Their metabolic effects include increased gluconeogenesis from increased circulating amino and fatty acids, released by calabolism (breakdown) of muscle and fat. These drugs also have mineralocorticoid effects, stimulating Na- and water retention K+ excretion in the renal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the important adverse effects of steroids?

A
  • Infection risk from immunosuppression
  • Metabolic effects include diabetes mellitus and osteoporosis
  • Increased catabolism causes proximal muscle weakness, skin thinning with easy bruising and gastritis
  • Mood and behavioural changes include insomnia, confusion, psychosis and suicidal ideas
  • Hypertension, hypokalaemia and oedema can result from mineralocorticoid actions
  • Steroid treatment suppresses ACTH secretion, which can cause adrenal atrophy in prolonged treatment. If treatment is stopped suddenly, an acute Addisonian crisis with CV collapse may occur.
  • Symptoms of chronic glucocorticoid deficiency that occur during treatment withdrawal include fatigue, weight loss and arthralgia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the warnings for prescribing systemic steroids?

A

They should be prescribed in caution in people with infection and in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the important interactions for steroid treatment?

A

They increase the risk of peptic ulceration and GI bleeding when used with NSAIDs and enhance hypokalaemia in patients taking B2-agonists, theophylline, loop or thiazide diuretics

Their efficacy may be reduced by cytochrome P450 inducers e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampicin

Corticosteroids reduce the immune response to vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are the potencies different for systemic steroids?

A

They have different potencies-
Dexamethasone is the most potent- with a dose of 750mcg being equivalent to prednisolone 5mg and hydrocortisone 20mg
Systemic corticosteroid treatment can be given orally or by IV or IM injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are steroids prescribed in emergencies/ short-term treatment?

A

In emergencies (e.g. treatment of the vasogenic oedema that may surround brain tumours), dexamethasone is prescribed at a high dose e.g. 8mg BD orally or IV), then weaned slowly as symptoms improve

In acute asthma, prednisolone is usually prescribed at a dose of 40mg orally daily

When oral administration is appropriate (e.g. IBD flares, anaphylaxis), IV hydrocortisone may be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are steroid prescribed in long-term treatment?

A

In inflammatory arthritis, use the lowest dose or oral prednisolone that control disease while limiting adverse effects. This may require co-prescription of a steroid-sparing agent (e.g. azathioprine methotrexate)

Consider bisphosphonates and PPIs to mitigate adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should systemic corticosteroids be administered?

A

Once-daily corticosteroid treatment should be taken in the morning, to mimic the natural circadian rhythm and reduce insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should steroids be monitored?

A

Depends on the condition being treated e.g. peak flow in asthma, blood inflammatory markers for RA

Monitor for adverse effects in prolonged treatment by HBA1C and glucose, and a DEXA scan (to measure bone density)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should steroid treatment be changed in acute illness?

A

Dose should be doubled, as atrophic adrenal glands may be unable to increase cortisol secretion in response to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name some examples of Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors

A

Sitagliptan, linagliptan, saxagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are DPP-4 inhibitors used for?

A

T2DM
Used in combination with metformin (and/or other hypoglycaemic agents) where blood glucose is not adequately controlled on a single agent
OR as a single agent to control BG and reduce complication where metformin is CI’d or not tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do DPP4 inhibitors work?

A
The incretins (GLP1 and GIP) are released by the intestine throughout the day, but particularly in response to food. They promote insulin secretion and suppress glucagon release, lowering blood glucose. 
They are rapidly inactivated by the enzyme DPP4. DPP4-inhibitors (the 'gliptins') therefore lower blood glucuse by preventing integrin degredation. 

The actions of integrins are glucose dependent, so they do not stimulate insulin secretion at normal blood glucose conc or suppress glucagon release in response to hypoglycaemia, therefore they are less likely to cause hypos than sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion irrespective of blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the important adverse effects of DPP4 inhibitors?

A

Generally well tolerated. Patients may experience GI upset, headache, nasopharyngitis, or peripheral oedema

Hypoglycaemia can occur, particularly where DPP4 inhibitors are prescribed in combination with sulphonlyureas and insulin

There is a small risk of acute pancreatits, affecting 0.1-1% patients. This should be suspected in patients experiencing persistent abdo pain and ususally resolves on stopping the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the warnings for DPP4 inhibitors?

A

They are contraindicated in people with a history of hypersensitivity to the drug class and should not be used in the treatment of T1DM or ketoacidosis

They should not be used pregnancy or breastfeeding

Use with caution in over 80s and people with a history of pancreatitis

As they are renally excreted, a dose reduction may be required for patients with moderate-to-severe renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the important interaction for DPP4 inhibitors?

A

Risk of hypoglycaemia increased by co-prescription of other anti-diabetic drugs e.g. sulphonylureas and insulin and by alcohol
(beta blockers may mask symptoms of hypoglycaemia)

The efficacy of DPP4 inhibitors is reduced by drugs that elevate blood glucose e.g. prednisolone, thiazide and loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How are DPP4 inhibitors prescribed?

A

Orally, usually OD, with or without food
e.g. sitagliptin 100mg daily, linagliptin 5mg daily, saxabliptin 5mg daily
They are also formulated in fixed-dose combinations with metformin
As metformin needs to be taken 2-3 times daily, these fixed dose combinations contain half the daily dose of the DPP4 inhibitor (e.g. sitagliptin 50mg with metformin 1g) and are prescribed twice-daily

+ves- combined preparations include reduced tablet burden and improved treatment adherence
-ves- limited dose options, culprit of AEs more difficult to identify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is DPP4 inhibitor treatment monitored?

A

HBA1C
When a DPP4 inhibitor is used as a monotherpy, the target HBA1C is <48mmol/mol
When used as a combination therapy, the target is <53mmol/mol

An HBA1C >58mmol/mol is generally a trigger to intensify therapy with another agent

Measure renal function before treatment

32
Q

What are SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

e.g. dapaglifozin, empagliflozin
They are an up-and-coming drug that can reduce risk of vascular complications without causing significant risk of hypos, whereas DPP4 inhibitors don’t

They work by interfering with resorption of glucose from the renal tubule, increasing urinary glucose loss

33
Q

What is insulin indicated for?

A
  1. For insulin replacement in people with T1DM and control of blood glucose in people with T2DM where oral hypoglycaemic treatment is inadequately or poorly tolerated
  2. Given IV, in the treatment of diabetic emergencies such as diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar syndrome, and for perioperative glycaemic control in selected diabetic patients
  3. Alongside glucose to treat hyperkalaemia
34
Q

How does insulin therapy work?

A

It stimulates glucose uptake from the circulation into tissues, including skeletal muscle and fat, and increases the use of glucose as an energy source
It stimulates glycogen, lipid and protein synthesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis

For the treatment of hyperkalaemia, insulin drives K+ into the cells, reducing serum K+ concentrations

35
Q

What are the different types of insulin therapy?

A

Rapid acting- NovoRapid
Short acting- Actrapid
Intermediate acting- Humlin I
Long-acting- Lantus, Levimir

Biphasic insulin preparations contain a mixture of rapid and intermediate acting insulins e.g. NovoMix 30

Where IV insulin is required (e.g. hyperkalaemia, diabetic emergencies, peri-operative glucose control) Actrapid is used

36
Q

What are the important adverse effects of insulin?

A

Hypoglycaemia, which can be severe enough to lead to coma and death
Can cause lipohypertrophy where SC insulin is used (fat overgrowth)

37
Q

What are the warnings with insulin therapy?

A

In patients with renal impairment, insulin clearance is reduced, so there is an increased risk of hypoglycaemia

38
Q

What are the important interactions with insulin?

A

Combining insulin with other hypoglycaemic agents increases the risk of hypoglycaemia

Concurrent therapy with systemic steroids increases insulin requirements

39
Q

What is a basal-bolus regime and twice-daily regime in insulin therapy?

A

Basal-bolus e.g. Lantus (long acting) OD, NovoRapid with snacks and meals

Twice-daily- Novomix 30 BD

Insulin is prescribed in units, and a typical daily requirement is 30-50 units

40
Q

How is insulin prescribed in diabetic emergencies?

A

1 unit/mL IV solution which is made up by diluting Actrapin 50 units in 0.9% NaCl 50ml
Glucose and potassium are also infused

41
Q

How is insulin prescribed in hyperkalaemia?

A

Must be prescribed with glucose to avoid hypos e.g. Actrapid 10 units in 20% glucose 100ml, infused over 15 mins

42
Q

How is insulin administered?

A

It is often administered using ‘pens’ containing insulin in solution (100units/ml). These allow patients to ‘dial-up’ the number of units required and administer insulin discretely

43
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

What is the advice to a patient if hypoglycaemia develops?

A

Dizziness, agitation, nausea, sweating and confusion

Have something sugary then something starchy e.g. a sandwich

44
Q

How is insulin therapy monitored?

A

capillary blood glucose regularly
HBA1C at least annually
Measure serum K+ at least every 4 hours when insulin is given as a continuous IV infusion

45
Q

What is metformin prescribed for?

A

T2DM, as a 1st choice medication

46
Q

How does metformin work?

A

It is a biguanide, lowering blood glucose primarily be reducing hepatic glucose output (glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) and to a lesser extent, increasing glucose uptake and utilisation by skeletal muscle
It does not stimulate insulin secretion and therefore does not cause hypoglycaemia

It can also cause weight loss, which can be a desirable side effect

47
Q

What are the important adverse effects of metformin?

A

Can cause GI upset- N&V, taste disturbance, anorexia and diarrhoea
Lactic acidosis has been associated very rarely with metformin use

48
Q

What are the warnings surrounding metformin use?

A

It must be used with caution in renal impairment, with dose reduction required if the eGFR is <45ml/min and stopped if it falls below 30

It should be withheld acutely where there is AKI or severe tissue hypoxia e.g. sepsis, cardiac or resp failure, MI
It should be withheld during acute alcohol intoxication and be used with caution in chronic alcohol abuse ,where there is a risk of hypos

49
Q

What are the important interactions with metformin?

A

It must be withheld before and for 48 hours after injection of IV contrast media e.g. for CT scans, coronary angiography, when there is an increased risk of renal impairment, metformin accumulation and lactic acidosis

Other drugs (e.g. ACEi, NSAIDs, diuretics) with potential to impair renal function should also be used with caution e.g. renal function monitoring

Prednisolone, thiazide and loop diuretics elevate blood glucose, hence oppose the actions and reduce efficacy of metformin

50
Q

How is metformin prescribed?

A

Orally
GI adverse effects of metformin are usually transient and are best tolerated if metformin is started at a low dose and increased gradually
A common regimen is to start metformin 500mg OD with breakfast, increasing the dose by 500mg weekly to 500-800mg 3x daily with meals

51
Q

How should metformin be administered?

A

It should be swallowed with a glass of water with or after food to minimise GI side effects

52
Q

How is metformin prescription monitored?

A

Assess control with HBA1C
target is initially <48mmol/mol. Treatment is intensified by adding a second agent if the HBA1C is >58, and a new target of <53 is set (balancing the risks of hyperglycaemia with hypos from the Rx)

For safety, measure renal function before starting treatment, then at least annually during therapy

53
Q

What are oestrogens and progestogens prescribed for?

A
  1. Hormonal contraception

2. HRT

54
Q

How do oestrogens and progestogens work?

A

FSH and LH control ovulation and ovarian production of oestrogen and progesterone. In turn, O+P exert predominantly -ve feedback on LH and FSH release.
In hormonal contraception, oestrogens (e.g. ethinylestradiol) and/or progestogens (e.g. desogestrel) are given to suppress LH/FSH and hence ovulation

There are other additional benefits as well as contraception- reduced menstrual pain and bleeding, and improvements in acne
At menopause, a fall in oestrogen and progesterone cause symptoms of hot flushing and dryness, oestrogen replacement (usually combined with a progestogen) alleviates these

55
Q

What are the important adverse effects of oestrogens and progestogens?

A

They may cause irregular bleeding and mood changes
The oestrogens in COCP double the risk of VTE, but the absolute risk is still low
They also increase the risk of CV disease and stroke, breast and cervical cancer (for breast cancer it stops after stopping the pill)
Progestogen-only pills do not increase the risk of VTE or CV disease

The AEs for HRT are similar but as baseline rates are higher, the relative risks have more sigf events

56
Q

What are the warnings for taking oestrogens and progestogens?

A

They are CI’d in patients with breast cancer
They should be avoided in patients at increased risk for VTE (CI’d if personal history or known thrombogenic mutation, warned if FH)
Also warned in CV disease (e.g. age >35, risk factors, migraine with aura, heavy smoking history)

57
Q

What are the important interactions with oestrogens and progestogens?

A

Cytochrome P450 inducers e.g. rifampicin, carbamazepine may reduce contraceptive efficacy, particularly of progestogen-only forms

Absorption of lamotrigine may be reduces, potentially impairing seizure threshold

58
Q

How are oestrogens and progestogens prescribed?

A

COC- 30 or 35mcg ethinylestradiol
POP- where COC is contraindicated
For HRT, combined O-P therapy is preferred, although women who have had a hysterectomy may receive oestrogen alone

59
Q

How is the COC pill administered?

A

If a COC pill is started within the first 6 days of the woman’s cycle, no additional contraception is needed
If started from day 7 onwards, a barrier method should be used or sex avoided for the first 7 days

Missing 2 or more pills necessitates additional contraception for 7 days

60
Q

What should be monitored during prescription of a contraceptive pill?

A

Baseline assessments should include a relevant history, BP check and BMI
A woman starting a COC pill should be seen again at 3 months for a BP check and to discuss any issues
She should then be seen again yearly to discuss health changes and for BP and BMI checks

61
Q

Name an example of an sulphonylurea?

A

Gliclazide

62
Q

Name the common indications for sulphonylureas?

A

In T2DM:

  1. In combination with metformin where blood glucose is not adequately controlled by a single agent
  2. As a single agent to control blood glucose and reduce complications where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated
63
Q

How do sulphonylureas work?

A

They lower blood glucose by stimulating pancreatic insulin secretion. As insulin is an anabolic hormone, it can cause weight gain

64
Q

What are the important adverse effects of sulphonylureas?

A

GI upset- N&V, diarrhoea and constipation
Hypoglycaemia is a potentially serious adverse effect, which is more likely with high doses
Rare hypersensitivity reactions include hepatic toxicity (e.g. cholestatic jaundice,) drug hypersensitivity syndrome (rash, fever, internal organ involvement), and haematological abnormalities (e.g. agranulocytosis)

65
Q

What are the warnings for sulphonylureas?

A

It is metabolised in the liver, therefore a dose reduction may be needed in patients with hepatic impairment and blood glucose should be monitored in patients with renal impairment
They should be prescribed with caution in people at increased risk of hypoglycaemia including those with hepatic impairment, malnutrition, adrenal or pituitary insufficiency

66
Q

What are the important interactions with sulphonylureas?

A

Risk of hypoglycaemia is increased by co-prescription of other anti-diabetic drugs, including metformin, DPP-4 inhibitors e.g. sitagliptin, insulin and alcohol

Beta blockers may mask the symptoms of hypoglycaemia

They become less effective with acute illness- insulin treatment may be required temporarily

The efficacy is reduced by drugs that elevate blood glucose e.g. prednisolone, thiazide and loop diuretics

67
Q

How are sulphonylureas prescribed?

A

Gliclazide (standard release) is usually started at a dosage of 40-80mg OD. It is increased gradually until blood glucose is controlled, with higher doses (160mg-320mg daily) being given as 2 divided doses

It is also available as a MR form. 30mg MR has an equivalent glucose-lowering effect to 80mg standard release tablets

68
Q

When should sulphonylureas be taken?

A

Taken with meals- either once daily with breakfast or twice daily with breakfast and tea

69
Q

How are sulphonylureas monitored?

A

HBA1C, same targets as metformin

70
Q

Name some examples of thyroid hormones?

A

Levothyroxine, liothyronine

71
Q

What are thyroid hormones indicated for?

A
  1. Primary hypothyroidism

2. Hypothyroidism secondary to hypopituitarism

72
Q

How do thyroid hormones work?

A

The thyroid gland produces throxine (T4) which is converted to the more active form (T3) in target tissues. Thyroid hormones regulate metabolism and growth. Deficiency of these hormones causes hypothyroidism, with clinical features including lethargy, weight gain, constipation, and slowing of mental processes
It is treated with long-term replacement of thyroid hormones, most usually as levothyroxine (synthetic T4). Liothyronine (synthetic T3) has a shorter half-life and a quicker onset and offset, so it is reserved for emergency treatment of severe or acute hypothyroidism

73
Q

What are the important adverse effects of thyroid hormones?

A

Symptoms similar to hyperthyroidism- GI (diarrhoea, vomiting, weight loss), cardiac (palpitations, arrhythmias, angina) and neurological (tremor, restlessness, insomnia)

74
Q

What are the warnings for prescribing thyroid hormones?

A

As they increase heart rate and metabolism, they can precipitate ischaemia in people with CAD, in whom replacement should be started cautiously at a low dose with monitoring.
In hypopituitarism, corticosteroid therapy must be initiated before thyroid hormone replacement to avoid precipitating an Addisonian crisis.

75
Q

What are the important interactions with thyroid hormones?

A

As GI absorption of levothyroxine is reduced by antacids, calcium and iron salts, administration of these drugs needs to be separated by about 4 hours

An increase in levothyroxine dose may be required in patients taking cytochrome P450 inducers e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine.

Levothyroxine-induced changes in metabolism can increase insulin or oral hypoglycaemic requirements and enhance the effects of warfarin

76
Q

How are thyroid hormones prescribed?

A

Levothyroxine-oral
Starting dose of 50-100mcg daily, except in the elderly or people with cardiac disease, who should start on 25mcg daily
The dose is adjusted monthly in 25-50mcg increments to a usual maintenance dose of 50-200mcg OD

Liothyronine may be prescribed for IV administration in emergency care

If patients take calcium or iron replacement, advise them to leave a gap of about 4 hours between these treatments and levothyroxine

77
Q

How are thyroid hormone prescriptions monitored?

A

Initially review the patient monthly
TFTs should be measured 3 months after starting treatment or a change in dose
In primary hypothyroidism, TSH is the main guide to dosing. It is elevated due to loss of negative feedback of T4 on the pituitary. It should return to normal concentrations.
Stable patients should have annual clinical review and thyroid function tests