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Advanced Pharmacology > Endocrine > Flashcards

Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

onset 5-15 min

A

Rapid Acting Insulin

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2
Q

peak 45 min - 3 hrs

A

Rapid Acting Insulin

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3
Q

duration 3-5 hrs

A

Rapid Acting Insulin

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4
Q

onset 15-30 min

A

Short Acting Insulin

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5
Q

peak 2-4 hrs

A

Short Acting Insulin

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6
Q

duration 5-8 hrs

A

Short Acting Insulin

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7
Q

onset 1-2 hrs

A

Intermediate Acting Insulin

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8
Q

peak 4-12 hrs

A

Intermediate Acting Insulin

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9
Q

duration 18-24 hrs

A

Intermediate Acting Insulin

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10
Q

onset 1-2 hrs

A

Long Acting Insulin

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11
Q

peak 0-4 hrs (Levemir)

A

Long Acting Insulin

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12
Q

duration 24 hrs

A

Long Acting Insulin

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13
Q

onset 30 min

A

Intermediate Acting/ Combination Insulin

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14
Q

peak 30 min-12 hrs

A

Intermediate Acting/ Combination Insulin

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15
Q

duration up to 24 hrs

A

Intermediate Acting/ Combination Insulin

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16
Q

Rapid Acting Insulins

“Rapid HANs”

A

lispro (-H-umalog)
glulisine (-A-pidra)
aspart (-N-ovoLog)

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17
Q

Short Acting Insulins

“Short Regular NOVice HUMans”

A

Regular = Humulin R and Novolin R

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18
Q

Intermediate Acting Insulins

“Intermediate Not so PHast Novice Humans”

A

NPH = Humulin N and Novolin N

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19
Q

long acting insulin that does not have a peak and is NEVER MIXED with other insulins

A

Lantus

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20
Q

this type of insulin is usually given QD but can be given BID if glucose levels are difficult to control

A

Long Acting Insulin

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21
Q

Long Acting Insulins

“Long-Acting will always LANd LEVEl”

A

glargine (Lantus)

detemir (Levemir)

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22
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Insulins:
Humalog Mix 50/50
Humalog Mix 75/25
Novolog Mix 70/30
Humulin 70/30
Novolin 70/30
A

Intermediate Acting/ Combination

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23
Q

type of insulin most often used in pumps

A

rapid-acting

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24
Q

insulin pump absorption onset, peak, and duration

A

onset 30 to 60 minutes
peak 1 to 5 hours
duration up to 10 hours

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25
Q

Advantages of __________:
Eliminates multiple injections
Delivers greater accuracy
Improves HgA1c
Results in fewer large swings both up and down in blood glucose level
Allows the patient to exercise without having to eat large amounts of carbohydrates

A

Insulin Pump

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26
Q

Disadvantages of ___________:
Can cause weight gain
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) if the catheter comes out
Can be expensive/needs insurance approval

A

Insulin Pump

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27
Q

type of insuline that has a faster peak concentration in serum and more rapid metabolism than injectables

A

Insulin Inhaler

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28
Q

start treatment with _____________ when oral agent & a GLP1-receptor agonist are unable to keep the A1C <9%.

A

insulin

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29
Q

________ is not bioavailable when given orally (broken down by stomach acids)

A

insulin

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30
Q

Complications of __________:
HYPO-glycemia
HYPO-kalemia
Lipohypertrophy (accumulation of SQ fat)

A

Insulin

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31
Q

SE of ____________:
weight gain
intense well-controlled BS may increase risk for low BS and mortality

A

Insulin

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32
Q

D2D Interactions of ___________:
Hypoglycemic agents
Hyperglycemic agents (oral steroids, sympathomimetics, thiazides)
Beta Blockers: can delay drug awareness & response to hypoglycemia by masking the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system that hypoglycemia causes (ex. tachycardia, palpitations, shaking).

A

Insulin

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33
Q

Indications for ___________:
Type 2DM
Off-label: PCOS, GDM, antipsychotic-induced wt. gain
Type 2DM prevention

A

Metformin

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34
Q

MOA of ____________:
hepatic glucose production
🠉 insulin sensitivity in target tissues (skeletal muscles & fat) thus 🠉 glucose uptake
🠋intestinal absorption of carbohydrates

A

Metformin

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35
Q

Contraindications for ____________:
severe renal dysfunction (eGFR<30)
acute/chronic metabolic acidosis including DKA w/ or w/o coma
Hypersensitivity

A

Metformin

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36
Q 
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
diarrhea
flatulence
N/V,
metallic taste in mouth 
(GI-related, subside over time)
HYPER-glycemia if combined with a Sulfonylurea
B12 Deficiency w/ long term use
A

Metformin

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37
Q

Good things about __________:
🠋CV & microvascular complications
🠋triglycerides, free fatty acid concentrations, LDL levels 🠉HDL
May help w/ weight loss (weight neutral drug)

A

Metformin

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38
Q

Education for __________:
SE resolve but may return w/ dose adjustment
Take with meals

A

Metformin

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39
Q

Metformin is excreted by the:

A

kidneys

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40
Q

BBW for __________:

May cause Lactic Acidosis (“MET me in LA”)

A

Metformin

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41
Q 
S/S of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
malaise
myalgias
N/V
severe abdominal pain
respiratory distress/SOB
somnolence
mental status changes
tachypnea
tachycardia
abnormal heartbeat
severe loss of strength and energy
severe dizziness
feeling cold
low BG?
HA
shaking
confusion
increased hunger
sweating
---If left untreated:
wheezing
chest tightness
fever
itching, bad cough, blue skin color, seizures, or swelling of face, lips, tongue, or throat
hypothermia
persistent bradyarrhythmias
hypotension
death
A

Lactic Acidosis

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42
Q

Treatment for Lactic Acidosis caused by Metformin use

A

D/C Metformin and Hemodialysis

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43
Q 
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
HF
renal impairment
ETOH abuse
age >65yrs old
use of contrast dye
surgery
hepatic impairment
hypoxic states
serious acute illness
Hx of condition
severe infection with decreased tissue perfusion
A

Lactic Acidosis

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44
Q

D2D Interactions of __________:
Tagamet: 🠉 in metformin blood levels = 🠉 risk of hypoglycemia & LA
ETOH: 🠉 risk of LA

A

Metformin

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45
Q

Sulfonylureas

A

Glyburide

Glipizide

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46
Q

Sulfonylureas:
____ Generation are safe in pregnancy
____ Generation NOT safe in pregnancy

A 
2nd = safe
1st = NOT safe
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47
Q

MOA of ____________:
bind to K+ channels in B-cells
stimulate release of insulin
🠉 insulin sensitivity in target tissues (1st & 2nd Gen)
2nd Gen: greater potency + less D2D interactions

A

Sulfonylureas

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48
Q 
SE of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
*usually well tolerated*
*loses effectiveness over time*
HYPO-glycemia=most common
nausea
skin reaction
weight gain
abnormal LFTs
A

Sulfonylureas

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49
Q

Sulfonylureas are most effective in patients with __________ weight or __________ weight

A

normal or increased

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50
Q

Sulfonylureas with longer ½ lives can be dosed _______ but are higher in risk for HYPO-glycemia

A

daily

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51
Q

________ Sulfonylureas are best for the elderly due to decreased HYPO glycemia risk

A

Short Acting

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52
Q 
D2D Interactions of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Tagamet
NSAIDs
ETOH
Beta-adrenergic blockers: can 🠋 efficacy
Sulfonamide ABX (try to avoid)
A

Sulfonylureas

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53
Q

MOA of _________:
acts on incretin system and stimulates insulin release
inhibits glucagon release resulting in a 🠋 of the BG

A

Glucagon-Like Peptide (GLP)-1 Receptor Agonist:
exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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54
Q

Caution: in cases of acute pancreatitis

A

Glucagon-Like Peptide (GLP)-1 Receptor Agonist:
exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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55
Q

BBW: possible risk of thyroid tumors, seen in animal studies

A

Glucagon-Like Peptide (GLP)-1 Receptor Agonist:
exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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56
Q

MOA:
lowers BS by improving insulin sensitivity w/o 🠉 insulin production by the pancreas
needs insulin to work

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZDs):

pioglitazone (Actos)

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57
Q

Contraindications: symptomatic HF or Class 3 and 4 HF

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZDs):

pioglitazone (Actos)

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58
Q

Caution: Risk for Hepatocellular Injury!
*Report abd pain, N/V, anorexia, jaundice, or dark urine. Check LFTs prior to initiation & monitor if concerned about liver disease

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZDs):

pioglitazone (Actos)

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59
Q

BBW: Heart Failure - may cause or exacerbate HF (due to fluid retention
**Educate: report ANY weight gain (rapid or not)
and any dyspnea

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZDs):

pioglitazone (Actos)

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60
Q

MOA: inhibits degradation of incretins causing:
🠉 insulin secretion
🠋 glucagon secretion
Leads to 🠋 in hepatic glucose production

A

Dipeptidyl Peptidase (DPP-4) Inhibitor “Gliptins”
“Incretin Enhancers”:
Saxagliptin (Onglyza)

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61
Q

Contraindications: Pancreatitis Hx

A

Dipeptidyl Peptidase (DPP-4) Inhibitor “Gliptins”
“Incretin Enhancers”:
Saxagliptin (Onglyza)

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62
Q

Caution: impaired renal function

A

Dipeptidyl Peptidase (DPP-4) Inhibitor “Gliptins”
“Incretin Enhancers”:
Saxagliptin (Onglyza)

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63
Q

Can 🠋 appetite and may help w/ weight loss (or weight neutral)

A

Dipeptidyl Peptidase (DPP-4) Inhibitor “Gliptins”
“Incretin Enhancers”:
Saxagliptin (Onglyza)

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64
Q

MOA: inhibits SGLT2 preventing kidneys from reabsorbing glucose
results in 🠉 urinary excretion of glucose
(newest drug available)

A

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors - gliflozins

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65
Q

BBW: increased risk of limb amputation (possibly due to vasoconstriction)
“Saying Goodbye To my Limbs”

A

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors - gliflozins

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66
Q

Rationale for _____________:

Glucose becomes glycogen, amino acids assemble into proteins, fatty acids are incorporated into triglycerides

A

Insulin

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67
Q 
Rationale for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Lowers fasting Bgl by 20%
Lowers Triglycerides, fatty acids, and LDL;
Raises HDL;
↓ microvascular complications;
Helps with weight regulation
A

Biguanides: Metformin (Glucophage)

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68
Q

Rationale for _____________:
Lowers BG by 20%
Best for normal or slightly overweight.
Short-acting in elderly

A

Sulfonyureas

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69
Q

Rationale for __________:
Weight neutral
Third-line therapy in patients with A1C >9%

A

DPP-4 Inhibitors “-gliptins”
Saxagliptin
(Onglyza)

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70
Q

Rationale for ___________:

Redistributes fat from visceral to SubQ; visceral fat is associated with insulin resistance

A

Thiazo-lidinediones “-glitazones”
Pioglitazone (Actos)
Rosiglitazone (Avandia)

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71
Q

Safety for __________:
Liver damage is reversible if stopped.
Newer meds have lower incidence

A

Thiazo-lidinediones “-glitazones”
Pioglitazone (Actos)
Rosiglitazone (Avandia)

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72
Q

MOA: Stimulate pancreas to release insulin from beta cells

  • often used with Metformin
  • Weight neutral/possible gain
  • 3rd line med
A

Meglitinides:

Repaglinide (Prandin)

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73
Q

Rationale for_____________:

Good for erratic meal schedules, patient w/ normal fasting BG and high postprandial (after meal) BG

A

Meglitinides:

Repaglinide (Prandin)

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74
Q

Safety: Rapid onset and short half-life

Low risk of hypoglycemia

A

Meglitinides:

Repaglinide (Prandin)

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75
Q

SE: bloating, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, gas

A

Meglitinides:

Repaglinide (Prandin)

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76
Q

MOA: Inhibit alpha-glucosidase which converts dietary starch and carbs into simple sugars
Causes a decrease in intestinal secretion of glucose

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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77
Q

Rationale:
Slows absorption of glucose after meals
Works in the gut so little risk of hypoglycemia
**Rarely used due to intolerable S/E

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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78
Q

Safety: Take with first bite of meal TID to decrease postprandial BG

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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79
Q

Education:
Better tolerated if client also decreases sugar intake
May cause gas and diarrhea

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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80
Q

Drugs not often used for DM due to _________________________________:
Bile acid sequestrant colesevelam (Welchol)
Dopamine Agonists bromocriptine (Cycloset)

A

SE and lack of efficacy

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81
Q

MOA: Mimic hormones that help regulate BG
Stimulates GLP-a receptors which stimulate insulin release-
Inhibiting postprandial glucagon release
Slows gastric emptying

A

GLP-1 Agonists/ Incretin Mimetics
Exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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82
Q

SE: nausea, hypoglycemia, and possible weight loss

A

GLP-1 Agonists/ Incretin Mimetics
Exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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83
Q

MOA: Slows gastric emptying leading to feeling of early satiety
Decreases postprandial glucagon secretion

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

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84
Q

Rationale for ____________:
Non-injectable hypoglycemic agent
Used as adjunct to insulin

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

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85
Q

Safety: Can cause hypoglycemia, weight loss, and nausea

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

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86
Q

Education: May promote weight loss

**3rd line therapy due to lack of efficacy in lowering BG

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

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87
Q

Rationale:
Slows absorption of glucose after meals
Works in the gut so little risk of hypoglycemia
**Rarely used due to intolerable S/E

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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88
Q

Safety: Take with first bite of meal TID to decrease postprandial BG

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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89
Q

Education:
Better tolerated if client also decreases sugar intake
May cause gas and diarrhea

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors:
Acarbose (Precose)
Miglitol (Glyset)

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90
Q

Drugs not often used for DM due to _________________________________:
Bile acid sequestrant colesevelam (Welchol)
Dopamine Agonists bromocriptine (Cycloset)

A

SE and lack of efficacy

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91
Q

MOA: Mimic hormones that help regulate BG
Stimulates GLP-a receptors which stimulate insulin release-
Inhibiting postprandial glucagon release
Slows gastric emptying

A

GLP-1 Agonists/ Incretin Mimetics
Exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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92
Q

SE: nausea, hypoglycemia, and possible weight loss

A

GLP-1 Agonists/ Incretin Mimetics
Exenatide (Byetta)
Liraglutide (Victoza)

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93
Q

MOA: Slows gastric emptying leading to feeling of early satiety
Decreases postprandial glucagon secretion

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

94
Q

Sulfonyurea with cimetidine (Tagamet) =

intensifies ___________ response

A

hypoglycemic

95
Q

Safety: Can cause hypoglycemia, weight loss, and nausea

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

96
Q

Education: May promote weight loss

**3rd line therapy due to lack of efficacy in lowering BG

A

Amylin Analog:

Pramlintide (Symlin)

97
Q

Weight Neutral DM Drugs

“no GAIM or loss”

A 
Metformin
GLP-1 agonists/Incretin Mimetics
Amylin Analogs
DPP-4 Inhibitors (Gliptins) 
G: gliptins, A: Amylin Analogs, I: Incretin Mimetics, M: Metformin)
98
Q

Weight Gain DM Drugs

“gain SIM weight”

A

Sulfonylureas
Insulin
Meglitinides

99
Q

Metformin with ETOH = increased risk of __________

A

lactic acidosis

100
Q

Metformin with cimetidine (Tagamet) =
increases level of ________
increased risk of _________

A

Metformin

Hypoglycemia

101
Q

Metformin with Sulfonyurea or Insulin =

increased risk of ___________ in patients w/ impaired renal function

A

lactic acidosis

102
Q

Sulfonyurea with ETOH = ___________ reaction

A

Disulfiram-Like Reaction
flushing, palpitations, nausea
**possible hypoglycemia

103
Q

Sulfonyurea with Beta Blocker =

decreases efficacy of ____________ because Beta Blockers suppresses insulin release

A

Sulfonyurea

104
Q

In CVD, decrease dose of _____________ as low as 12.5 mcg/day especially if patient is frail

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

105
Q

Production of __________ (hormone that promotes hyperglycemia) increases 3X in pregnancy

A

cortisol

106
Q

Teaching:
Take at the same time every day
Take after rising on empty stomach with full glass of water
Do not eat for at least 1 hour after taking
Or take 4 hours after eating and wait for 1 hour before eating again

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

107
Q

Levothyroxine is highly ____________

A

protein-bound

108
Q

converted to T3 in the body (so T3 supplementation is unnecessary)

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

109
Q

Dosing;

75-125 mcg (or about 1.6 mcg/kg/dl of ideal body weight)

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

110
Q

Adjust Levothyroxine (T4) ___ to ____ mcg/day every 4 to 8 weeks based on clinical response and serum TSH.

A

12 to 25

111
Q

elderly dose of Levothyroxine (T4) is ____% less than regular adult dose

A

75%

112
Q

Monitor: onset of cardiac sx (angina)

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

113
Q

In CVD, decrease dose of _____________ as low as 12.5 mcg/day especially if patient is frail

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

114
Q

Once TSH is stabilized on Levothyroxine (T4), check TSH on __ month intervals then ___ month intervals

A

6 then 12

115
Q

Drugs that reduce absorption of _____________:
PPIs
Calcium and Iron Supplements
Aluminum containing antacids
Histamine H2 receptor blockers -Cimetidine (Tagamet)

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

116
Q

Drugs that accelerate metabolism of ____________:
Warfarin: effects are increased
***accelerates the degradation of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

117
Q

If thyroid replacement is started when patient is taking _______, the dose of _______ may need to be reduced

A

warfarin

118
Q 
Meds that induce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dysfunction:
●	Lithium
●	Amiodarone
●	Interferon
"AILs the Thyroid"
A

Thyroid

119
Q

Insufficiency of thyroid hormone in pregnancy can lead to fetal __________

A

brain abnormalities

120
Q

If a pregnant patient is already taking _____________ in pregnancy, the dose needs to be increased significantly and TSH level monitoring is necessary

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

121
Q

has 5-6 drug half-lives, a recommended testing interval post adjustment change is 6-8 weeks

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

122
Q

may increase the requirements of Insulin & Digoxin

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

123
Q

Use: Treats symptoms of tachycardia, tremor, and anxiety until a euthyroid state is achieved.

A

Beta Blocker: propanolol (Inderal)

124
Q

AE of _____________:
BP increases = increase the risk of major adverse CV events
Serious pulmonary oil microembolism (POME) reactions

A

Testosterone

125
Q 
SE:
**Nonselective (blocks beta1 and beta2 receptors)
bradycardia
decreased AV conduction
reduced contractility
hypotension
reduced cardiac output
depression
insomnia
bizarre dreams
sexual dysfunction
bronchoconstriction
bronchospasm
A

Beta Blocker: propanolol (Inderal)

126
Q

One advantage of _________ for hyperthyroidism is that they work quickly, unlike PTU, methimazole, and 131I.

A

Beta Blockers

127
Q

In thyrotoxic crisis, in the absence of contraindications (e.g., asthma, heart failure), all patients should receive this immediately. Administration may be oral or IV.

A

Beta Blockers

128
Q

MOA: Emits a combination of beta particles and gamma rays
Destruction of thyroid tissue is produced primarily by emission of beta particles which do not travel outside of the thyroid d/t low ability to penetrate any type of physical barrier
Reduction of thyroid gland is gradual
Initial effects become apparent in days or weeks. Full effects develop in 2 to 3 months

A

Radioactive Iodine 131 “I”

129
Q

Indication: Graves Disease, Thyroid CA, hyperthyroidism, inadequate response to antithyroid drugs or subtotal thyroidectomy

A

Radioactive Iodine 131 “I”

130
Q

Contraindications: Pregnancy, Lactation, very young children (risk of CA)

A

Radioactive Iodine 131 “I”

131
Q

BBW: Secondary exposure (transdermal gel, transdermal solution): Virilization has been reported in children who were secondarily exposed to topical gel and solution. Children should avoid contact with unwashed or unclothed application sites in men using topical gel.

A

Testosterone

132
Q

Contraindications: Nitrates

A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

133
Q

Indication: Increase quality of life, increase libido, enhance mood, improve bone and muscle mass

A

Testosterone

134
Q

Precautions:
Prostate and breast CA are absolute contraindications!
Breast cancer: long term use (>10 yrs) for male hypogonadism may increase risk for BR CA
CVD: Should not be commenced or 3-6 months in patient with PMH of cardiovascular events
Dyslipidemia: may alter serum lipid profile; caution with Hx of MI or CAD
Increases risk of gynecomastia, BPH, prostate CA, VTE, DVT, PE

A

Testosterone

135
Q

Erectile Dysfunction is a risk marker for underlying _________________

A

CV disease

136
Q

Indications: BPH and ED (off-label - Raynaud’s)

A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

137
Q 
D2D Interactions of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_: 
Potentiate the hypotensive effects of:
Nitrates
Alpha blockers
Anti-hypertensives
A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

138
Q

Education:
Take PO ½ to 4 hours before sexual intercourse and no more than once daily
None of these are affected by alcohol ingestion, although alcohol ingestion is associated with erectile dysfunction

A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

139
Q

has a half-life that is three times the length of the other PDE 5 inhibitors with duration of effect up to 36 hours

A

Tadalafil (Cialis)

140
Q

Contraindications: Nitrates

A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

141
Q 
Precautions: 
Recent history of stroke/MI (MI - past 3 months) significantly low or uncontrolled high BP
active peptic ulcer
predisposed to priapism
unstable angina
cardiac failure
severe liver impairment
end-stage renal disease requiring dialysis
A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

142
Q 
SE:
HA
flushing
dyspepsia
dizziness
nausea
nasal congestion
rhinitis
altered vision
back pain
myalgia
A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

143
Q

Preventitive Strategies for ____________:
regular bone-strengthening exercise
calcium (1200-1500mg daily)
vitamin D (800-1000 IU daily) supplementation PRN
Reduction in modifiable risk factors such as: smoking, ETOH 2/day, high caffeine, low Ca+ and Vit D, physical inactivity

A

Osteoporosis

144
Q 
Causes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
chronic steroids
androgen deficiency
hypogonadism
anorexia
bulimia
gastric bypass
celiac disease
hyperthyroidism
ankylosing spondylitis
A

Secondary Osteoporosis

145
Q 
Drugs for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Bisphosphonates
hormone therapy (HT)
selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
rank ligand inhibitors
calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone is antiresorptive
A

Osteoporosis

146
Q

MOA: activation of osteoblasts

A

Osteoporosis Meds

147
Q

MOA: binds to RANK Ligand, inhibiting osteoclast formation, function & survival, preventing osteoclasts from resorbing bone

A

Rank Ligand Inhibitors: Denosumab (Prolia)

148
Q

Indication: Osteoporosis given via injection q6 months

A

Rank Ligand Inhibitors: Denosumab (Prolia)

149
Q

Contraindications: Low Ca+, Low GFR

A

Biophosphonates

150
Q 
Precautions: 
Recent history of stroke/MI (MI - past 3 months) significantly low or uncontrolled high BP
active peptic ulcer
predisposed to priapism
unstable angina
cardiac failure
severe liver impairment
end-stage renal disease requiring dialysis
A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

151
Q 
SE:
HA
flushing
dyspepsia
dizziness
nausea
nasal congestion
rhinitis
altered vision
back pain
myalgia
A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 Inhibitors: Tadalafil (Cialis)

152
Q

Preventitive Strategies for ____________:
regular bone-strengthening exercise
calcium (1200-1500mg daily)
vitamin D (800-1000 IU daily) supplementation PRN
Reduction in modifiable risk factors such as: smoking, ETOH 2/day, high caffeine, low Ca+ and Vit D, physical inactivity

A

Osteoporosis

153
Q

Short-term or intermittent exposure to ___________ (single SQ injection), leads to a predominance of osteoblast-mediated bone formation

A

PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo): Injectable

154
Q 
Drugs for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Bisphosphonates
hormone therapy (HT)
selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
rank ligand inhibitors
calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone is antiresorptive
A

Osteoporosis

155
Q

MOA: activation of osteoblasts

A

Osteoporosis Meds

156
Q 
Alendronate (Fosamax)
Risedronate (Actonel)
Ibandronate (Boniva) - not recommended to reduce nonvertebral or hip fracture risk
Zoledronic acid (Reclast) - annual IV
"FABZulous"
A

Biophosphonates

157
Q

Indications: First line for postmenopausal women with low bone mineral density, preventative and treatment for osteoporosis
Continue treatment for 3-5 yrs; stop by 5 yrs due to risk of atypical fractures. Positive benefits typically last longer

A

Biophosphonates

158
Q

Contraindications: Low Ca+, Low GFR

A

Biophosphonates

159
Q

Raloxifene (Evista) - Estrogen Agonist

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

160
Q

MOA: Binds to estrogen receptors, creates an agonist or antagonist effect at the site; exact MOA is unknown; reduce osteoclast activity while reducing estrogenic effect on breast and endometrial tissue (thereby reducing risk of breast CA); Prevents spine fractures

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

161
Q

Indication: Prevention/Treatment of osteoporosis

Risk reduction for invasive breast CA for women 50-60 yrs old with high risk (reduces risk if taken up to 5 years);

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

162
Q

SE: hot flashes, weight gain, flu-like s/s, arthralgias, infections

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

163
Q

BBW: Thromboembolic events!!!
Contraindicated with PMH of VTE, DVT, PE, Retinal vein thrombosis; risk vs. benefit analysis for women with PMH of heart failure or active malignancy; risk for DVT, PE, and superficial thrombophlebitis higher during first 4 months of treatment.

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

164
Q

MOA: binds to RANK Ligand, inhibiting osteoclast formation, function & survival, preventing osteoclasts from resorbing bone

A

Rank Ligand Inhibitors: Denosumab (Prolia)

165
Q

Indication: Osteoporosis given via injection q6 months

A

Rank Ligand Inhibitors: Denosumab (Prolia)

166
Q

SE:
Infections of the abdomen, urinary tract, and ear
atypical femur fractures have been seen
Risk of hypocalcemia (greatest w/ severe renal dysfunction)

A

Rank Ligand Inhibitors: Denosumab (Prolia)

167
Q

MOA: reduce risk of fractures and osteoporosis in specific populations of postmenopausal women

A

Hormone Therapy: Estrogen and Progestin

168
Q

Increases risk of heart disease, DVT, breast and endometrial CA

A

Hormone Therapy: Estrogen and Progestin

169
Q

MOA: promotes bone formation for men and women; decreases osteoporosis-related fractures; stimulates osteoblast function, increasing GI calcium absorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
**Approved for 48 months

A

PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo): Injectable “Forteo Fortifies”

170
Q

Short-term or intermittent exposure to ___________ (single SQ injection), leads to a predominance of osteoblast-mediated bone formation

A

PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo): Injectable

171
Q

While PTH analogs stimulate __________ bone formation, they also stimulate _______________ bone breakdown

A

osteoblast-mediated

osteoclast-dependent

172
Q

Ideal agent for treatment of ______________ would be purely anabolic, stimulating bone formation without stimulating resorption

A

osteoporosis

173
Q

Continuous or high _______________, leads to a predominance of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and consequent net bone loss

A

PTH (primary hyperparathyroidism)

174
Q

reserve this drug for extreme cases for high risk of fractures

A

PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo): Injectable

175
Q

BBW: Osteosarcoma

A

PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo): Injectable

176
Q

Education:
○ Take with full glass of water after rising
○ Do not lay down for at least 60 minutes after taking (can lead to esophageal ulceration)
○ Take on empty stomach or 4 hours after eating and do not eat or take other medications for at least 30-60 minutes after taking.

A

Biophosphonates

177
Q

Risks:
Possible damage to GI tract including throat, esophagus, and stomach
atypical fractures of the femur
esophageal cancer
osteonecrosis of the jaw d/t reduction in blood supply to the jaw (patients may be unable to have dental implants on this med and should tell their dentists about it)

A

Biophosphonates

178
Q

Education: Take with a full glass of water after food at same time per day and keep doses to 20 mg or less at a time. May need to dose more than two times per day to avoid GI upset.

A

Glucocorticoids

179
Q

Adverse Effects:
○ Altered Metabolism–may lead to hyperglycemia with short-term use, and protein wasting and increased lipid deposition with long-term use.
○ Altered immune response–this may be one of the medication goals, yet this effect will also mask signs of infection.
○ Impaired bone health–will cause calcium to leach out of the bones and could increase risk for osteoporosis with long-term use.
○ Skin–may thin (atrophy) skin with topical use on a daily basis. Chronic use may exacerbate acne.
○ Neurological impacts–cranial nerve palsy, mood instability–may cause tremor, hunger, and agitation, aggression.
○ Cardiac–may increase hypertension due to fluid retention associated with its impact on excretion of potassium and retention of sodium and water.
○ Ocular–angle-closure glaucoma and cataracts with long-term use, cataracts, exophthalmos, papilledema.
○ Chronic Use:
● Hypothalamic Pituitary Adrenal Axis (HPA) suppression
● Cushing’s syndrome
● Osteoporosis
● Immunosuppression
● Skin changes including atrophy, striae, telangiectasia, and acne

A

Glucocorticoids

180
Q

First-line for RA; Folic acid antagonist; affects leukocyte suppression, decreasing inflammation caused by by-products of cell degradation; highly effective, 70-75% improvement within 3-8 weeks. Contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding w/leukopenia

A 
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) and Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDS):
Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
181
Q

BBW: ■ Use Appropriately: Because of the possibility of serious toxic reactions, use only in life-threatening neoplastic diseases or in patients with severe psoriasis or RA.
Bone marrow suppression, Renal impairment (monitor for toxicity), Hepatotoxicity, Pneumonitis (evaluate for any coughing), Gastrointestinal toxicity, Secondary malignancy, Dermatologic toxicity, Opportunistic infections, Severe toxic reactions, including embryo-fetal toxicity.

A 
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) and Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDS):
Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
182
Q

Neurotransmitter that is the main satiety hormone

A

Serotonin

183
Q

SE: HA, hypoglycemia (monitor diabetics), back pain, URIs, abnormal lymphocytes. Can raise prolactin levels.
Contraindications/Warnings: Serotonin syndrome, CNS depression, Worsening depression. Contraindicated during pregnancy

A

Lorcaserin (Belviq)- Anorexiant, Serotonin Receptor Agonist (Controlled Substance IV)

184
Q

BBW: suicidal thinking
Caution: acute opioid withdrawal, can elevate the heart rate and blood pressure, can cause neuropsychiatric effects, hepatotoxicity, seizures, and hypoglycemia in diabetics from weight loss.

A

Naltrexone & Bupropion- Anorexiant, Antidepressant, Dopamine/Norepinephrine-Reuptake Inhibitor, Opioid Antagonist

185
Q

causes fat-soluble vitamin deficiency so take a MVI but separate from this drug by 2 hrs

A

Orlistat

186
Q

Contraindications: Pregnancy, chronic malabsorption syndrome, cholestasis; may increase risk for cholelithiasis, hepatotoxicity, and increased urinary oxalate levels may lead to kidney stones.

A

Orlistat

187
Q

SE: HA, N/V, confusion, dry mouth, and dizziness

A

Weight loss drugs that affect neurotransmitters, such as Lorcaserin and Bupropion/Naltrexone

188
Q

Warnings: Serotonin syndrome, CNS depression, worsening depression BUT No BBW.

A

Lorcaserin (Belviq)

189
Q

Calcium absorption is reduced after ________ surgery

A

bariatric

190
Q

__________ surgery could make oral contraceptive pills ineffective.

A

bariatric

191
Q

2nd gen sulfonylureas - maybe
propylthiouracil (PTU) - safest (Risk vs Benefit)
Synthroid
Betamethasone (24-36.6 weeks @ risk of PTL w/in 1 wk)
Topical corticosteroids (less than 2 weeks)
Prednisolone (severe PUPPS)
Insulin
Metformin

A

Safe in Pregnancy

192
Q 
●	1st Gen Sulfonylureas
●	Phentermine
●	Belviq
●	Orlistat
●	Methotrexate (w/ leukopenia)
●	Radioactive Iodine
A

Not Safe in Pregnancy

193
Q 
●	propylthiouracil (PTU) - safest
●	Methimazole
●	Synthroid
●	Prednisone
●	Topical low-dose steroids
●	NPH &amp; Regular Insulin- may help prevent T1DM
A

Safe in Breastfeeding

194
Q

Sulfonylureas
High potency topical steroid on nipple, face, genitals
Phentermine
Aspart, detemir, glargine, glulisine, lispro - caution
Methotrexate (w/leukopenia)
Radioactive Iodine

A

Not Safe in Breastfeeding

195
Q

in type ___ DM; these patients produce no endogenous insulin and are therefore very sensitive to dosing adjustments.

A

1

196
Q

“Have you MET my KIDS?”

A

METformin is a stressor to the KIDneys

197
Q

If there is cross-reactivity between sulfonamide antibiotics (sulfonylarlamines) and other non-arylamine sulfonamides (sulfonylureas) (there should not be…), it is due to the _______________ of the patient rather than a true cross-reactivity.

A

allergic susceptibility

198
Q

BBW: May cause or exacerbate heart failure

A

Thiazolidinediones

199
Q

drugs that promote insulin secretion

A

Meglitinides

200
Q

drugs that delay carbohydrate digestion and absorption

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

201
Q

drugs that are contraindicated during pregnancy due to fetal hyperinsulinemia

A

1st Generation Sulfonylureas

202
Q

NPH and regular human insulin are considered safe with ___________

A

breastfeeding

203
Q

There are no reported adverse reactions and newborn exposure to _______ in breast milk may help prevent type 1 diabetes in these infants

A

insulin

204
Q

Aspart, detemir, glargine, glulisine, lispro: While they are probably safe, caution is advised for the use of the newer biosynthetic insulins with breastfeeding due to limited studies

A

bf

205
Q

treatment for ___________________: surgical ablation of thyroid tissue, radioactive dye, or antithyroid medications to destroy the overactive thyroid tissue.

A

Hyperthyroidism

206
Q

clinical diagnosis of _________________ is only made when patients have low total levels combined with symptoms and/or signs

A

testosterone deficiency

207
Q

Men with _________________ who are interested in fertility should have a reproductive health evaluation performed prior to treatment.

A

testosterone deficiency

208
Q

Prior to offering ___________ therapy, clinicians should measure hemoglobin and hematocrit and inform patients regarding the increased risk of polycythemia.

A

testosterone

209
Q

clinicians should counsel patients that, at this time, it cannot be stated definitively whether ___________ therapy increases or decreases the risk of cardiovascular events (e.g., myocardial infarction, stroke, cardiovascular-related death, all-cause mortality)

A

testosterone

210
Q

propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole–both are category ____. Nonetheless, endocrinologists will prescribe ______ due to the client and the fetal risks associated with untreated hyperthyroidism.

A

D; PTU

211
Q

Zoledronic acid (Reclast) is given via:

A

IV annually

212
Q

“Likely effective” when treating type 2DM by lowering BS levels

A

Berberine

213
Q

When prescribing tx for ED, what condition is contraindicated with PDE 5 inhibitors

A

Nitrates

214
Q

Dosage for ____________:

Pregnancy - 1st trimester increased dose but lower in 2-3rd trimester, baby is dependent on it

A

Levothyroxine T4

215
Q

basal insulins

A

Lantus and Levemir

216
Q

basal insulin duration (Lantus and Levemir)

A

24hrs - long acting

217
Q

peak of basal insulins (Lantus and Levemir)

A

Lantus no peak

Levemir doesn’t have much of a peak (gradual)

218
Q

I stimulate insulin secretion, I require some beta cells to work, I can be tricky with antibiotics, I can cause weight gain, My effectiveness wears out.

A

Sulfonylureas

219
Q

I am often referred to as an Insulin Sensitizer, I have been known to cause or exacerbate heart failure, I might hurt your liver.

A

TZD

220
Q

I am often chosen first, I increase Insulin’s actions in the peripheral tissues, I inhibit glucose production from the liver, I can cause weight loss.

A

Biguanides- Metformin

221
Q
  • GI side effects (will go away after time)
  • MOA: they delay the absorption of carbohydrates
  • I only affect the postprandial glucose levels
  • I must be taken with the first bite of a meal.
A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor

222
Q

patients with DM actually have a change of their microbiome in their gut, causing _____________

A

GI SE

223
Q

a. BBW can cause virilization in kids (Use caution with contaminated clothing)
b. It can raise the blood pressure
c. Pulmonary micro-embolisms
d. Contraindicated in Prostate & Breast Cancer

A

Testosterone

224
Q

Why are nitrates with PD5 Inhibitors such a concern?

A

the vasodilatory effects are enhanced and prolonged

225
Q

Take these medications first thing in the morning 30-60min before food or other medications.

  • TAKE IT WITH A BIG GLASS OF WATER!
  • Do not lay down after taking (30-60min)
  • They are associated with the risk for atypical fractures after 5yrs, so stop taking them. Longer than 5yrs can cause atypical hip & femur fracture. The drug can continue to keep working for years after - effects are longer lasting (possibly decades)
  • Take calcium & Vitamin D to maximize their effectiveness
  • They can lead to osteonecrosis of the jaw.
A

Biphosphonate (Fosamax)

226
Q

I have a BBW for thromboembolic events, I can cause hot flashes, weight gain, and flu-like symptoms, I bind to the estrogen receptors and reduce the osteoclast activity

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMS)

227
Q

I inhibit the absorption of dietary fats by 30%; I am contraindicated in pregnancy, cholestasis, and malabsorption syndrome; Take me within 1 hour of a fatty meal; I AM:

A

Orlistat (Alli)

228
Q

DO NOT take this if you have NOT eaten a fatty meal! Take vitamins ADEK

A

Orlistat (Alli)

229
Q

_____________ patients need to take:

Vitamin B12, calcium, & ADEK; May also reduce effectiveness of oral contraceptives

A

Gastric bypass/surgery

230
Q

I am an opioid antagonist; I inhibit dopamine and norepinephrine; I can be associated with suicidal ideations; I can cause HA and sleep disorders; I AM

A

Naltrexone and Bupropion (Contrave)

Advanced Pharmacology (8 decks)

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