Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrine SAM > Endocrine > Flashcards

Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Euthyroid presents with ______FT4 and ______TSH and ______TT4

A

normal ; normal; low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypothyroid presents with _____FT4 and ______TSH and _____TT4

A

low; high; low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bilateral alopecia, obesity and lethargy are characteristic of what endocrine disorder?

A

Hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Beagles, toy fox terrier and Giant Schnauzer are prone to what disease?

A

Hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rhodesian ridgeback, english setters and dobermans are prone to this type of hypothyroid?

A

primary thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a screening test for hypo-T?

A

TT4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the best stand alone test to confirm hypo-T?

A

FT4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the test with the best sensitivity for diagnosing?

A

TT4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the best test for specificity?

A

T4/TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F Anti-thyroid Ab (ATA) interferes with assay thus increasing TT4

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F Anti-thyroid Ab (ATA) will interfere with FT4

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F Obesity, alopecia, hypotrichosis + low T4 + high TSH is a clinical diagnosis of hypo-T?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hypo-T?

A

synthetic T4, Levothyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F Hyper-T is common in Siamese

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F Hyper-T is more common in older cats

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of hyper-T in cats?

A

functional tumor = benign/adenoma

70% are bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Polyphagia, vomiting, wt loss, PU/PD, scraggly coat and pot belly are all clinical signs of what endocrine disorder?

A

Hyper-T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What test is a definitive diagnosis for hyper-T?

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A cat with normal TT4, wt loss with poor appetite, decrease activity and lethargy is presenting with what form of hyper-T?

A

Apathetic hyper-T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the DOC to treat hyper-T?

A

Methimazole ; BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F I-131 radio-iodine is a better option for tx than methimazole

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F I-131 radio-iodine + methimazole offers the best prognosis

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F Azotemia is a positive prognosticator for the outcome (mortality) in cats treated for hyper-T

A

FALSE; negative prognosticator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the outcome of hyper-T + concurrent renal dz/

A

Really bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F Hyper-T in dogs is rare; malignant functional tumors are the main cause

A

False; malignant non functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Are most hyperadreno tumors pit or adrenal dependent?

A

Pituitary (85%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most important prognosticator in adrenal tumors?

A

metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bilateral alopecia, PU/PD, polyphagia with weight gain and lethargy are common signs of what endocrine disorder?

A

Hyperadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What will an urinalysis look like with a hyperadreno patient?

A

low SG, proteinuria, UTI, glucosuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most sensitive test for hyperadreno?

A

urinary cortisol: creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F ACTH stimulation test is a differentiating test for hyperadreno

A

FALSE; is NOT a differentiating test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A diagnosis of hyperadreno can be made with this test. It is also used to monitor therapeutic response.

A

ACTH stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosing and confirming HAC?

A

LDDST; look at 8 hr first if increase then HAC then look at 4 hr…if increased then PDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F LDDST has a better sensitivity for cushings than ACTH stimulation test

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F ACTH concentration, LDDST, U/S, CT of head can be used as differentiating tests for hyper adreno

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If conducting an ACTH assay an increase in ACTH mean the tumor is located _____whereas a low ACTH means the tumor is located ______

A

Pituitary; adrenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The common drug to treat hyperadreno is what?

A

Trilostane SID; monitor with ACTH stimulation test; want cortisol in 20-120 range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If your patient is on Trilostane but there is no improvement in clinical signs but cortisol levels are 20-120 what is your next step?

A

BID dosing and lower overall dose; SID just wasn’t lasting long enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Trilostane, mitotane, ketoconazole, I-deprenul, hypophysectomy/bilateral adrenalecotomy are all option to treat what endocrine disorder?

A

hyerpadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HAC is rare in cats but what is the most common form being 85%?

A

PDH; trilostane not registered for cats but they respond to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most likely cause of hypoadreno?

A

immune mediated destruction

Other causes: mitotane/trilostane induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the typical signalment of hypoadreno?

A

young middle aged females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F > 85% of destruction must be seen before clinical signs appear

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What causes the iatrogenic form of hypoadreno?

A

chronic use of glucs: suppressing ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Deficiency of glucs and aldosterone is primary or secondary adrenal failure?

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F Primary adrenal failure is classified as pituitary dysfunction so absent ACTH

A

FALSE; this is secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Absence of a stress leukogram is characteristic for which endocrine disorder?

A

Hypoadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Destruction of the adrenal occurs with what layer first in hypoadreno?

A

Zona reticularis progressing outwards to zona glomerulosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The standard poodle, collie, portuguese water dog, nova scotia duck retriever can inherit what endocrine disorder?

A

Hypoadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

There exists a chronic and addisonian crisis forms of hypoadreno…which one has wax & wane signs and is triggered by a stressful event along with episodic GI dz?

A

Chronic; this form is rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Addisonian crisis is characterized by what clinical signs?

A

hypovolemic shock, vomiting, dehydration, bradycardia, pale MM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F Anemia being regenerative is characteristic of hypoadreno

A

False anemia with NON REGENERATIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Serum e-lytes consist of _____levels of Na and ______of K

A

low Na; high K

Na:K = sensitive but not specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

With hypoadreno GFR will be ______leading to azotemia; USG will be _______

A

decreased; decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Other e-lyte abnormalities with hypoadreno consist of ______Ca, _____ALT/ALP, ______glucose/albumin/cholesterol/pH

A

increase Ca and ALT/ALP

decrease glucose/albumin/cholesterol/pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a main differential for hypoadreno?

A

Acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T/F Na and K levels are both increase with acute renal failure and hypoadreno

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T/F Acute renal failure also lacks a stress leukogram

A

False; acute failure shows a stress leukogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F Anemia is present with hypoadreno and is not present with acute renal failure

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When comparing acute renal failure and hypoadreno which dz cannot concentrate its urine?

A

Hypoadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Is Ca increased with acute renal failure?

A

NO it would be rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

T/F Microcardia and reversible megaesophagus could be seen on thoracic radiographs in a hypoadreno patient

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Would a hypoadreno patient have an increase or decrease in adrenal size on an U/S?

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What would an ECG with hypoadreno show with a K > 5.5? 6.5? 7? 8.5?

A

Tall T wave; prolonged QRS; P wave increased; absent P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Acute renal failure, GI hemorrhage, pancreatitis, pulmonary thromboemolism and DIC are complications of what endocrine disorder?

A

hypoadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the screening test for hypoadreno?

A

Resting basal cortisol

>2 = no hypoadreno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

T/F All dogs with a resting basal cortisol of

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What test is used to confirm hypoadreno?

A

ACTH stimulation test; perform prior to starting therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T/F The ACTH stimulation test can distinguish primary hypoadreno from iatrogenic or from a recent steroid admin

A

False; it cannot distinguish between these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

To treat acute addisonian crisis you should first restore blood volume then treat the hyperkalemia (fluids or Ca gluconate) then give Glucs and then mineralocorticoids. What type of glucs and mineralocorticoids should be given?

A 
Glucs = dexmethasome or hydrocortisone (hydro has good mineral function too)
Mineral = DOCP or fludrocortisone
DOCP = mineral only; monthly injection; usually need pred too
71
Q

What is the main drug given for short term treatment of hypoadreno?

A

Hydrocortisone sodium succinate
This is a mineral + gluc and is given IV every 6-12 hrs
Methylpred and Dexmethasone can also be used;
Methyl and hydro cross react with cortisol so do the ACTH stim test prior to to administration

72
Q

What is the main drug used for long term treatment of hypoadreno?

A

Fludrocortisone; it is 75% mineral and 25% gluc so you must monitor K levels
May or may not have to give Pred as well

73
Q

T/F Atypical addisons is characterized by a loss of glucs only and hypoalbuminemia, anemia and hypocholesterolemia

A

TRUE

74
Q

Immune mediated destruction is common with what type of DM and is common in what species?

A

Type 1; canine

75
Q

Amyloidosis deposition is common with what type of DM and is common in what species?

A

Type II; felines

76
Q

What is the signalment for DM?

A

older females; terrier, min schnauzers, collies

77
Q

T/F PU/PD, polyphagia, wt loss, weakness, neuropathies and dermatopathies are signs associated with DM

A

TRUE

78
Q

Polyphgia and wt loss are common in what 2 endocrine disorders?

A

DM and hyper-T

79
Q

T/F Urinalysis and biochem panel are used to diagnose DM

A

TRUE

80
Q

T/F Glucosuria, cystitis and ketosis are common finding in a urinalysis with DM

A

TRUE

81
Q

T/F hyperglycemia, increased liver enzymes and bile salts, decrease cholesterol and glycated blood proteins are biochem findings with DM

A

FALSE; normal bile salts and increase cholesterol

82
Q

What are the insulin types that can be used in Dogs?

A

Lente (vetsulin or caninsulin)
NPH (humalin N)
Determir (?????)

83
Q

What insulin types can be used in cats?

A

Glargine or determir

PZI

84
Q

Which insulin has the longest duration of action?

A

Glargine

85
Q

Which insulin has the highest remission rates in cats?

A

Glargine

86
Q

T/F Insulin for dogs and cats are dosed SID

A

FALSE; BID

87
Q

What is the ideal range for BG in diabetic dog on insulin?

A

100-250 mg/dl

88
Q

While monitoring patient on insulin when should they be rechecked?

A

In 1 week and if adjustments are made then recheck again in 1 week
Long term rechecks are every 3-6 months

89
Q

T/F You want to see at least 1+ glucose in urine

A

TRUE; if it is negative then you are giving too much insulin

90
Q

T/F PZI/Glarginine/Determir BID along with feeding 2X day is a good stabilization plan for a cat

A

TRUE

91
Q

On the blood glucose curve at how many hours should you see the nadir?

A

6-8 hrs post insulin

92
Q

In what range do you want the nadir on a blood glucose curve?

A

5.5-12 over a period of time

93
Q

T/F A blood fructosamine level of 350-400 is good control

A

FALSE; 400-450 is good control and 350-400 is excellent control

94
Q

If a diabetic dog is not eating but it is happy what adjustments should you make to the insulin dose?

A

decrease insulin by 50% and if patient eats then give the remaining dose

95
Q

If diabetic dog has surgery what type of infusion should be given?

A

Dextrose infusion; give 1/2 insulin and no food the day of surgery

96
Q

Nutritional recommendations for a diabetic dogs include what?

A

soluble fiber and 30% fat

97
Q

The most important nutritional recommendation for a diabetic cat is what?

A

High protein > 40% ME

98
Q

What is the least likely reason for insulin resistance?

A

anti insulin Abs

99
Q

What endocrine disorder occurs when there is deficiency of insulin and excess of glucagon and other regulatory hormones?

A

DKA

100
Q

T/F Dehydration, tachycardia, vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea, poor perfusion are sings associated with DKA

A

TRUE

101
Q

What is the main cause of DKA and what 3 dz’s can be associated with it?

A

Diabetic patient with anorexia and stress; pancreatitis, cushings, UTI

102
Q

T/F Urinalysis is used to confirm DKA and consists of glucosuria, ketonuria, UTI with renal casts

A

TRUE

103
Q

T/F Hyperkalemia and hyperphos is common in DKA

A

FALSE; hypokalemia and hypophos

104
Q

What type of fluids are not a good choice if patient is hypophosph?

A

LRS due to Ca amount

105
Q

T/F Increased liver enzymes resulting from hepatic lipidosis, necrosis and reversible liver damage is common with DKA

A

TRUE

106
Q

What is the recommended fluid therapy for DKA patients?

A

High fluid rate, supplemented with K and phosph

0.45% saline or Dextrose 2.5 -5%

107
Q

Should insulin be given to DKA patients as part of a tx plan?

A

Yes; little and often

A separate IV cannula should be placed in patient for insulin CRI

108
Q

T/F Hyperosmolar non ketotic syndrome has increase plasma osmolarity with water loss along with depression and weakness with vomiting less likely compared to DM

A

TRUE

109
Q

What test would you not recommend in a dog presenting with DKA?

A

LDDST and US

110
Q

What ketones are measured to confirm a DKA patient?

A

acetone and acetoacetone; does not react with beta hydroxybutyrate
B:A ratio decreases with treatment

111
Q

What is the most common pancreatic tumor in dogs?

A

insulinoma

112
Q

T/F Most insulinomas are benign

A

FALSE; malignant

113
Q

T/F Hypoglycemia causing neuroglycopenic signs, seizures, icterus and +/- sympathetic response is a common sign with insulinomas

A

TRUE

114
Q

T/F A puppy with hypoglycemia will most likely have an insulinoma

A

FALSE; puppies most likely have immature glycolytic and gluconeogenic enzymes

115
Q

T/F Older dogs with signs are more common to present with insulinoma than puppies

A

TRUE

116
Q

The best diagnostic test (highest senstivity) to confirm the presence of a pancreatic mass in a dog with high insulin and low glucose is what?

A

Palpation during coelitotomy

117
Q

Following a surgery for insulinoma what is the most important prognosticator?

A

Post op hypoglycemia

118
Q

T/F US can be used as an initial evaluation of the pancreas in dogs with hypoglycemia

A

TRUE

119
Q

T/F CT identifies most primary tumors but intra op palpation of pancreas is still superior

A

TRUE

120
Q

What is the recommended tx for acute hypoglycemia in a patient with insulinoma?

A

2.5% Dextrose IV bolus followed with CRI; bolus acts as secretagogue increasing insulin

121
Q

T/F Medical therapy for insulinomas consists of feeding small meals frequently of complex CHOs

A

TRUE

122
Q

What is the DOC for chronic medical management of insulinomas?

A

Diazoxide (inhibits insulin secretion)

123
Q

What is the dose limiting side effect of the chemotherapy drug Streptozocin?

A

azotemia

124
Q

Another option for tx of insulinoma is Octreotide…how does it work?

A

Somatostatin analogue

125
Q

How does the administration of glucs work in insulinomas?

A

Increase gluconeogenesis and antagonize insulin

126
Q

T/F surgery + medical therapy have the longest survival rate followed by partial pancreatoectomy

A

TRUE

127
Q

What are 3 classes of drugs that will decrease T4 levels?

A

Glucs; phenobarb; sulfonamides

128
Q

What is the average range for Ca?

A

8.5-11.7 mg/dL

129
Q

T/F most Ca in the blood is ionized Ca

A

TRUE; iCa = 50% and protein bound Ca = 40%

130
Q

Describe the sequence of events following a decrease in serum Ca

A

Decrease Ca = increase PTH = PTH acts on bone to increase resorption (osteoclast breaking down bone), acts on kidney to increase Ca reabsorption and increase phosphate excretion, kidney also releases 1,25 Vit D which acts on SI to increase Ca absorption

131
Q

An increase in Ca causes levels of PTH to _____ and causes ______to be released from thyroid

A

decrease; calcintonin

132
Q

What are clinical signs associated with hypercalcemia?

A

PU/PD = nephrogenic DI = impaired renal tubular response to ADH
weakness, lethargy, v/d, inappatence

133
Q

T/F Nephrogenic PU/PD is a common sign associated with hypercalcemia

A

TRUE

134
Q

What is the mnemonic for hypercalcemia DDx?

A

HARD IONS

135
Q

If total Ca is high what should be checked next?

A

iCa

136
Q

What are follow up tests to be performed once hypercalcemia is confirmed?

A

History of Vit D exposure
PE: LN, bone pain/lameness, fundic-PNS
Lab: PO4
L-asparaginase chemotherapy trial to rule out lymphosarcoma –> if Ca levels return to normal in

137
Q

T/F Dehydration, azotemia, weakness, CaXPO4 > 70 are all signs of a SICK hypercalcemia patient

A

TRUE

138
Q

What is the tx for a sick hypercalcemic patient?

A

Address primary cause first then saline diuresis, furosemide, gluc, calcintonin, biphosphonates

139
Q

T/F Hypercalcemia in cats is COMMON

A

FALSE; if diagnosed it is idiopathic

140
Q

What are the DDx of a suspected cat with hypercalcemia?

A

renal, FIP, PNS (FeLV/FIV negative)

141
Q

What is the tx for a cat if diagnosed with hypercalcemia?

A

high fiber diet and prednisolone

142
Q

What is the primary cause of hyperPTH?

A

hyperplasia, adenoma

carcinoma = rare

143
Q

What is the recommended tx for primary hyper PTH?

A

surgery and has an excellent prognosis

144
Q

T/F Primary HyperPTH is associated with high iCa

A

TRUE

145
Q

What is the cause for 2ndary hyperPTH?

A

renal dz, nutritional

146
Q

T/F 2ndary hyperPTH is associated with low or normal iCa

A

TRUE

147
Q

What is the typical signalment for hyperPTH?

A

middle to older; either sex

Keeshond, retreivers, poodle, GSD

148
Q

What is the most common presenting problem in hyper PTH?

A

urocystolithiasis

149
Q

T/F clinical signs with hyper PTH consist of muscle wasting, weakness, obesity

A

TRUE

150
Q

Lab work with hyperPTH shows TCa >12mg/dl with iCa mostly increased, BUN-creat is ______, PO4 is ______ and USG is ______

A

BUN-Creat = normal
PO4 = low
USG =

151
Q

What does the P-R, Q-T and S-T segments look like on a ECG of a patient diagnosed with hyperPTH?

A 
P-R = prolonged
Q-T = shortened
S-T = shortened
152
Q

When TCa increases then PTH should ______; if PTH is w/in reference range then this is an ________response

A

decrease; inappropriate

153
Q

What is the most reliable assay

A

“sandwhich”

154
Q

What are the 2 most common tumors in dogs associated with hypercalcemia?

A

Lymphosarcoma and anal apocrine gland adenocarcinoma

155
Q

What are the 2 most common tumors in cats associated with hypercalcemia?

A

LSA and squamous cell carcinoma

156
Q

What are 2 non medical tx’s for hyperPTH?

A

Surgery and percutaneous U/S guided radiorfrequency ablation

157
Q

What are the side effects associated with the U/S ablation for hyperPTH?

A

Dysphonia and horners syndrome

158
Q

T/F Patients with high pre op Ca levels > or = to 14 mg/dL will be at risk for post op iatrogenic hypocalcemia

A

TRUE; due to post op iatrogenic decrease PTH so on day of surgery give prophylactic calcitriol

159
Q

A minor decrease in Ca causes PTH levels to ______and a more severe decrease in Ca causes PTH levels to ______ along with Vit D

A

increase; increase

160
Q

Clinical signs of hypocalcemia are seen when levels drop below 6…what 2 conditions cause these clinical signs?

A

Primary hypoPTH and eclampsia

161
Q

T/F HypoPTH and eclampsia are 2 main etiologies for hypocalcemia

A

TRUE

162
Q

Primary hypoPTH can be caused by 2 ways…what are they?

A

Idiopathic; rare

Iatrogenic: post thyroidectomy or parathyroidectomy

163
Q

Idiopathic primary hypoPTH is common in what breeds?

A

Small breed dogs; min schnauzers; females about 5 years old

164
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Similar to milk fever; life threatening; excessive loss of Ca in milk; most often small breed dogs

165
Q

How is a diagnosis of hypocalcemia made?

A

Serum iCa = ideal

Total Ca = 2nd choice

166
Q

T/F Phosphorus will be high in hypoPTH

A

TRUE

167
Q

What test is done to confirm hypoPTH?

A

PTH concentrations

with primary hypoPTH: will have low iCa and PTH will be inappropriately w/in the normal to low reference range

168
Q

An ECG should be used to assessed what 2 endocrine disorders?

A

Hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia

169
Q

On an ECG the T waves will be deep and wide and the Q-T and S-T intervals will be______

A

prolonged

170
Q

What is the emergency tx for hypocalcemia?

A

10% Ca gluconate IV slow over 10-30 min; continue with supportive IV or SC Ca therapy
Risks = hypercalcemia and nephrotoxicity

171
Q

What should be done for cases of eclampsia?

A

wean puppies from mom and supplement her with Ca

172
Q

What is maintenance therapy for primary hypoPTH?

A

oral Ca - eventually wean off

oral Vit D - continue life long (allows absorption of Ca from intestines)

173
Q

What is the goal reference range to maintain Ca in a patient with primary hypoPTH?

A

8-10 mg/dL

recheck levels weekly at first and once stable check Q 2-3 months

Endocrine SAM (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions