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PGY 412 > Endocrine > Flashcards

Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Endocrine system

A

the body’s communication system: achieves its role via hormones, chemicals that carry messages

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2
Q

The endocrine system controls, regulates, or modulates….

A

the function or activity of all other bodily systems to maintain the body’s homeostasis, to adapt to changes, and to coordinate body’s complex processes

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3
Q

The body relies on TWO communication systems to regulate bodily processes:

A
  1. The nervous system

2. the endocrine system

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4
Q

functional unit of nervous system

A

neuron

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5
Q

functional unit of endocrine system

A

gland cell

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6
Q

chemical messenger of nervous system

A

neurotransmitter

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7
Q

chemical messenger of endocrine system

A

hormone

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8
Q

mode of transmission for nervous system

A

action potentials

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9
Q

mode of transmission for endocrine system

A

circulation (blood)

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10
Q

reaction time for endocrine system

A

minutes to days

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11
Q

reaction time for nervous system

A

miliseconds to seconds

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12
Q

the nervous system is….

A

point to point, min to min, and rapid but short lived controls using neurotransmitters

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13
Q

the endocrine system….

A

broadcasting (blood vessels reaching every corner of the body), and slow, but sustained control using hormones

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14
Q

hormones…

A
  • chemical messengers from ductless glands

- a hormone may function as an autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine agent

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15
Q

Autocrine

A

a cell targets itself

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16
Q

Paracrine

A

they act on nearby cells

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17
Q

Endocrine

A

a cell targets a distance cell through the blood stream

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18
Q

hormone effect

A

is determined by the hormone’s binding and activating its specific receptors in the target cell

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19
Q

hormones may be removed or cleared by

A
  • metabolism and degradation
  • binding their receptors in target cells
  • excretion by the kidneys
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20
Q

hydroPHILIC hormones

A
  1. catecholamines

2. peptide hormones

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21
Q

hydroPHOBIC hormones

A
  1. thyroid hormones
  2. steroid hormones
  3. vitamin D
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22
Q

HydroPHILIc hormones (catecholamines and peptide hormones)

A
  • almost all of hydrophilic hormones travel free of protein in the plasma
  • hydrophilic hormones bind and activate specific trans-membrane (integral) receptor proteins
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23
Q

CATECHOLAMINES

A
  • made in the neurons and adrenal medulla
  • synthesized via enzymatic reactions:

tyrosine -> DOPA -> DA -> NE -> Epi

  • TYROSINE HYDROXYLASE for tyrosine to dopa is RATE LIMITING enzyme
  • PNMT is required for the reaction of NE to Epi
  • polar, circulate free in plasma, short half-life in plasma, and bind and activate membrane receptors (GPCRs)
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24
Q

Catecholamines bind and activate..

A
  • different GPCRs (alpha and beta adrenergic receptors) that activate different second messenger systems and can alter different cellular functions
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25
Q

Peptide hormones

A 
GH: growth hormone
IGF: insulin like growth factor 
FSH: follicle stimulating hormone 
LH: luteinizing hormone
TSH: thyroid stimulating hormone 
hCG: human chronic gondaotropin
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26
Q

Peptide/protein hormones

A
  • chains of AMINO ACIDS
  • Made via transcription (nucleus) then translation in ribosomes located in cytosol then further processing in ER and golgi and then are stored in secretory vesicle and secreted in response to stimuli
  • circulate free in plasma (except GH, IGF circulate bound to proteins)
  • short half life, ~minutes
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27
Q

Insulin is example for peptide hormone

A

insulin secreted along with C-peptide

  • insulin is secreted in response to HIGH plasma glucose
  • hyperglycemia is high risk for oral disease
  • insulin and C-peptide levels would be low by hyperglycemic insulin deficiency
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28
Q

Peptide hormones bind to SPECIFIC trans-membrane receptor proteins and change cellular functions of their target cells

A
  1. Glucagon-R, GHRH-R, Adrenergic-R bind to GCPR (only one with 2nd messengers)
  2. IGF-R, Insulin-R bind to tyrosine kinase receptors
  3. GH-R, Leptin-R, PRL-R bind to JAK STAT receptors
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29
Q

Catecholamines

A
  • synthesized through enzymatic reactions from tyrosine
  • stored in secretory vesicles
  • secreted in response to sectretagogue
  • bind and activate G-protein coupled receptors
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30
Q

Protein hormones

A
  • synthesized through transcription-translation
  • stored in secretory vesicles
  • secreted in response to secretagogue
  • binding and activating transmembrane receptors
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31
Q

HydroPHOBIC hormones (thyroid hormones, steroid hormones, vitamin D)

A
  • made on demand/not stored

- circulate protein bound in plasma

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32
Q

Thyroid hormones, T3 & T4

A
  • secreted by the thyroid gland
  • made by enzymatic reactions from tyrosine, requires iodine ingestion
  • in plasma, hydrophobic T3 & T4 bind liver produced proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin, albumin) -> long half life in plasma
  • in target cells, free T3 & T4 bind to intracellular thyroid hormone receptors (T3R) and alter transcription
  • in liver, thyroid hormones are modified -> become hydrophilic and excreted
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33
Q

STEROID HORMONES

A
  • Secreted by : ADRENAL GLANDS (aldosterone, cortisol), OVARIES (progesterone, estradiol), and TESTES (testosterone)
  • made from cholesterol via enzymatic reactions
  • rate limiting step is: P450 scc (P450 side chain cleavage enzyme) in the mitochondria
  • upon synthesis hydrophobic steriod diffuse out of the plasma
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34
Q

C27 COMPOUNDS

A

CHOLESTEROL (PRECURSOR)

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35
Q

C21 COMPOUNDS

A
  • MINERALOCORTICOIDS (E.G. ALDOSTERONE)
  • GLUCOCORTICOIDS (E.G. CORTISOL)
  • PROGESTINS (E.G. PROGESTERONE)
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36
Q

C19 COMPOUNDS

A

ANDROGENS (E.G. TESTOSTERONE)

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37
Q

C18 COMPOUNDS

A

ESTROGENS (E.G. ESTRADIOL)

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38
Q

1,25-(OH)2-VITAMIN D (calcitriol)

A
  • supply of precursor vitamin D
    diest: vitamin D2 or vitamin D3
    de novo synthesis in skin from UV
  • 2 step activation:
    LIVER (vit-D -> 25-(OH) vit-D (biologically inactive)

KIDNEYS with 1-hydroxylase
25-(OH) vit D -> 1,25-(OH)2 vit-D (biologically active calcitriol)

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39
Q

MITOSIS

A
  • 1 diploid parent cell (2n) creates 2 diploid daughter cells (2n)!
  • cellular process used by somatic (non germ) cells during duplication
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40
Q

MEIOSIS

A
  • 1 diploid parent cell (2n) creates 4 haploid daughter cells!
  • cellular process used by germ cells for gametogenesis
  • meiosis comprised of MEIOSIS 1 during which homologous chromosomes are separated and MEIOSIS during which sister chromatids are separated
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41
Q

Genetic sex determination

A
  1. genetic sex is determined by genetic inheritance of two chromosomes known as the sex chromosome X and one Y.
  2. males possess one X and one Y
  3. females possess two X
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42
Q

Males: testes:

A
  1. epididymis
  2. vas deferens
  3. seminal vesicle
  4. scrotum
  5. prostate
  6. penis
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43
Q

Female: ovaries

A
  1. fallopian tube
  2. uterus
  3. upper vagina
  4. labia
  5. clitoris
  6. lower vagina
  7. cervix
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44
Q

Every embryo (XX or Xy) is bi-potential with:

A
  • bipotential gonads
  • mullerian ducts
  • wolffian ducts
  • bi potential urogenital
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45
Q

bi-potential gonads

A

may become female ovaries or male testes

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46
Q

mullerian ducts

A

can develop into FEMALE internal genitalia

47
Q

wolffian ducts

A

can develop into MALE internal genitalia

48
Q

bi-potential urogenital

A

may become female or male external genitalia and urethra

49
Q

The default pathway for an 46, XX embryo during 4 to 12 weeks

A
  1. bipotential gonads differentiate into ovaries
  2. mullerian dicts differentiate into FEMALE internal genitalia
  3. WOLFFIAN ducts REGRESS
  4. Bipotential urogential sinus differentiate into female external genitalia and urethra
50
Q

An 46, XY embryo develop male primary sex characteristics during 4 to 12 weeks

A
  1. about 4 weeks: the SRY (sex determining region on the Y chromosome) gene is ON !!!
    - SRY causes bipotential gonads to become testes (testes secrete 2 hormones: Mullerian inhibiting hormone MIH and testosterone T)
    MIH causes regression of mullerian ducts, T causes WOLLFIAN DUCTS to be male internal gentalia
  2. about 8 weeks: T is converted to DHT in urogential sinus: DHT causes bipotential urogential sinus to become external genitalia and prostate along with urethra
  3. 3rd trimester birth: T causes testes to decend into scrotum
51
Q

Some hormones are transported in plasma bound proteins. These proteins function to increase:

A

the half life of hormones in plasma

b/c: the binding globulin (from the liver) that is associated with hydrophobic hormone increase the half-life of the hormone by decreasing destruction and clearance of the hormone

52
Q

when a decrease in sensitivity to thyroid hormones (TH) occurs in the absence of changes in the number of available TH receptors,

A

an increased concentration of TH is required to elicit the half maximal response

53
Q

Thyroid hormone (TH) itself has no effect on release of fatty acids from adipose cells. In the absence of TH, epinephrine (E) stimulates release of small amount of fatty acids from adipose cells. In the presence of TH, epinephrine would cause a more substantial release of fatty acids because:

A

TH increases beta-receptors in adipose cells

54
Q

The precursor for cortisol is _______ which is enzymatically derived from _______. Cortisol is secreted by the ________ when stimulated by the hormone ________ from the anterior pituitary.

A
  1. progesterone
  2. cholesterol
  3. adrenal cortex
  4. ACTH
55
Q

the posterior pituitary is a tissue composed of __________ that secretes ADH or oxytocin into the _______ when stimulated by ______ generated in the hypothalamus

A
  1. axons/terminals
  2. general circulation
  3. action potentials
56
Q

Which of the following hormones has the slowest metabolic clearance rate (longest half life)?

A

thyroxine

  • hydrophobic hormones (thyroid and steroid hormones) have the longest half lives in the plasma, slowest clearance rate
57
Q

Hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex could result from the following

A
  1. excessively rapid clearance of cortisol from the circulation
  2. a tumor of the pituitary gland that secretes excessive amounts of ACTH
  3. inactivation of enzymes that are required to synthesize corticosteroids
  4. excessively rapid clearance of cortisol from the circulation and a tumor of the pituitary gland that secretes excessive amounts of ACTH
58
Q

a subject consuming a diet deficient in iodine is likely to have

A

low plasma thyroxine, high plasma TSH, goiter

59
Q

a blood clot that blocked the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system would cause a decrease in

A

ACTH secretion and atrophy of the adrenal cortex

60
Q

which of the following does NOT produce hormones that affect long-bone growth?

A

Uterus

Graafian follicles - estrogen
zona fasciculate - cortisol
anterior pituitary gland - GH

61
Q

A subject with type II diabetes would have elevated plasma:

A

All of the above

  • glucose
  • fatty acids
  • amino acids

b/c: Type II diabetes = insulin insensitivity, insulin does not function normally, almost like fasting period with high levels of glucose (less glucose uptake and increase gluconeogenesis), fatty acid from increased lipolysis, amino acids from increase protolysis

62
Q

Which of the following does not produce hormones that by themselves or together stimulate lipolysis within adipocytes?

A

UTERUS

Zona fasciculata - cortisol 
pancreatic alpha cells - glucagon 
andrenal medulla - epinephrine 
anterior pituitary gland - GH 
These four hormones that counteract insulin's metabolic effects their plasma leveks increase during fasting
63
Q

Which of the following statements do BEST characterize intermediate metabolism in an individual who has NOT eaten for two days?

A

Lipolysis in adpiocytes is an important energy source for non-CNS cells

Fasting for more than 2 days…
glycogen storage is just for one day worth of energy requirement for a person
proteins are spared until later
brain does not take up fatty acids due to the fact fatty acids cannot cross blood brain barrier
glucagon sitmulates lipolysis
lipolysis is the main source for fatty acids-used by NON-CNS cells, there will be ketones which are converted from fatty acids by the liver are also used by non cns cells

64
Q

Pubertal growth spurt in male requires the enzyme_______ that converts testosterone to estradiol

A

Aromatase

65
Q

Bilateral ovariectomy (removal of both ovaries) during the luteal phase in a woman would result in:

A

elevated LH levels, compared to those observed during the luteal phase prior to the surgery

66
Q

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A

fallopian tube

67
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the generation of the midcycle LH surge?

A

Estradiol from the dominant follicle

68
Q

Inhibin inibits secretion of

A

FSH only from the anterior pituitary

69
Q

According to the two cell mechanism of follicular estradiol synthesis

A

theca cells synthesize testosterone which granulosa cells convert to estradiol

70
Q

The dominant follicle

A

produces copious amount of 17beta-estradiol

  • the dominant follicle is the mature, graafian follicle that is formed at the midpoint of the follicular phase. It is the follicular structure that contains the prophase I primary oocyte and secretes a copious amount of estrogen.
71
Q

The ovulated oocyte is meiotically arrested at

A

Metaphase II

72
Q

Thyroid hormones increase metabolic activities by stimulating

A

the Na/K ATPase

73
Q

The C18 compound from the ovaries

A

stimulates myometrial contractions

74
Q

A polypeptide that is secreted from the posterior pituitary in response to suckling

A

Is made and released primarily by a neuron

75
Q

When taken orally, which of the following hormone should have biological effects on their usual target tissues

A

Thyroxin

76
Q

which of the following are found in the hypothalamus-pituitary portal vessel

A

DA and CRH

77
Q

Activity of which of the following is elevated 1 hour post eating?

A

Glycogen synthase

78
Q

the immune response to viral infections depends on the following

A

antigen presentation by class I MHC in infected cells, and cytokines

79
Q

which of the follwoing statement about immunoglobulins?

A

their constant ends are antigen binding sites

80
Q

An oposnin is a substance that _________. One example of an opsonin _________

A
  1. creates a channel in bacteria

2. interferon-gamma

81
Q

which of the following is not a characteristic of the innate immune system?

A

it is a specific response against microbial antigens

82
Q

the secondary lymphoid organs are important because:

A

that is where clonal expansion of lymphocytes

83
Q

the innate immune system relies on pattern recognition receptors to:

A

identify some non-specific microbial markers

84
Q

type 1 interferons limit viral infections by:

A

inhibiting viral replication

85
Q

one difference between lymphoctes and neutrophils is that

A

some lymphocytes re-enter the circulation

86
Q

the development of immune tolerance includes a mechanism late fetal and early postnatal development called:

A

clonal deletion

87
Q

the immeadiate hypersensittvity response is triggered by:

A

antigen binding to IgE on the surface of mast cells

88
Q

the response of natural killer cells is non-specific, except in the case of:

A

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity

89
Q

which of the following cells is not of lymphoid origin?

A

mast cells

90
Q

which of the following is a shared characteristic of the innate and adaptive immune systems?

A

immunologic tolerance to avoid damage to normal tissues

91
Q

the main difference between innate and adaptive immunity is:

A

all answers given are correct

  • the specificity of the immune response
  • development of immunological memory
  • the timing of the immune response
92
Q

A friend comes back from a month-long trip central Asia. two weeks later, he complains of chills, weakness, and loss appetite. A quick…..

A

it may be severe viral infection

93
Q

Neutrophils are leukocytes that are important for the innate immune defenses. What would be a likely consequence of a congenital neutrophil deficiency?

A

higher risk of bacterial infections

94
Q

Mice are resistant to typhoid fever, an infectious disease that can be quite deadly to humans. We
know that resistance to typhoid fever is due to the innate immune system. What is a likely
mechanism of resistance in mice?

A

The pattern-recognition receptors in mouse phagocytes.

95
Q

How does complement kill microorganisms directly?

A

By producing the membrane attack complex.

96
Q

What is a key difference between cytotoxic and NK cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells are antigen-specific.

97
Q

Which of the following is a stage of an adaptive immune response?

A

Specific cytotoxic responses.

98
Q

Which of the following steps is important for the response of the adaptive immune system to viral
infections?

A

All the answers are incorrect.

  • binding of type I interferon to cell membrane receptors
  • antigens presentation by class I MHC to CD4+ cells
  • activation and clonal expansion of natural killer cells
99
Q

The process of antigen presentation by class I MHC involves:

A

interaction with antigen-specific T lymphocytes.

100
Q

Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is correct?

A

IgA is found in secretions.

101
Q

The Center for Disease Control and Prevention recommends to get the flu shot no later than mid-
October. One reason for this is to:

A

achieve high levels of neutralizing antibodies.

102
Q

this modified amino acid is an example of catecholamine

A

epinephrine

103
Q

this hormone is carried plasma by liver produced binding globulin

A

thyroid hormone

104
Q

this hormone’s receptor is a transcription factor

A

cortisol

105
Q

this hormone is synthesized by transcription translation processess

A

insulin

106
Q

a patient with a lower sensitivity to insulin would require ______ insulin for the same response

A

more

107
Q

receptors for all hromones are proteins

A

true

108
Q

all diabetic patients suffer insluin deficiency

A

false

109
Q

glucose is the main source of energy for peripheral tissues during fasting

A

false

110
Q

triglycerides are broken down at adipocyte capillary beds during fasting

A

false

111
Q

gluconeogensis is stimulated by insulin

A

false

112
Q

glocuse effectively released from skeletal muscle during fasting

A

false

113
Q

insulin causes GLUT4 translocation of to the plasma membrane in liver and skeletal muscle

A

false

114
Q

the brain can only use glocuse for energy production

A

false

PGY 412 (1 decks)

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