Endo Pathology Flashcards
A 28 year old woman delivers a baby girl at 9 months (full term). There are no major complications at delivery, but the following abnormality is noted in her genital region. What is her potential diagnosis, prognosis and treatment?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia:
- 90% due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency leading to impaired cortisol production.
- 5% due to 11-beta hydroxylase–> decreased cortisol, virilization, Na retention, HTN due to mineralocorticoid activity of 11-deoxycortisol
- See impaired cortisol production–> excess androgen production–> virilization of females, infertility in males and females. Adrenal hyperplasia (below)
Variants:
- Hypoaldosteronism (salt wasting)–> hyponatremia, hypotension, hyperkalemia, elevated renin (due to low aldosterone secretion)
Prognosis: premature closure of epiphysis (short stature), infertility
Treatment: Glucocorticoids, mineralicorticoids, reconstructive surgery
A 35 year old man comes to your office complaining of fainting spells that are occuring with increasing regularity. He also reports some GI upset with diarrhea and pain. Upon examination you notice that he appears quite tan, and you ask him if he has been traveling in a warmer climate or using tanning beds, which he denies- he says he’s just darker skinned than his relatives. Based on his symptoms and the hisotological sample below, what is his potential diagnosis?
Primary adrenal cortical insufficiency due to Addison Disease:
- Etiology: TB most common cause (worldwide), Autoimmune disorders most common in USA (50% polyglandular autoimmune disorders. Chronic (can take a while for symptoms to arise)
- Histo: adrenal destruction, atrophy, lymphocytic infiltration
Symptoms and Signs:
- weakness, anorexia, skin pigmentation (elevated MSH), hypotension– (failure of adrenals–> increased ACTH–> increased MSH)
- gastrointestinal - vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain
personality changes, organic brain syndrome
Labs: serum Na low, potassium elevated, lymphocytosis and elevated eosinophil count
Treatment: glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
*Other causes of adrenal insufficiency:
Tumor, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemorrhage, infections
An 18 year old girl arrives in the Emergency Room after her first week at college. She has been living in a dorm and awoke reporting a severe headache, stiffness in her neck and sensitivity to light (photophobia). By the afternoon she developed a fever and her roommate was having trouble rousing her, and called the ambulance. You have diagnosed her with bacterial meningitis and have begun treatment with antibiotics. Within a few hours of seeming to have recovered, her stats suddenly begin to slide (bradycardia, decreased respiration) and she slips out of conciousness. After trying to revive her she utimately succumbs to her illness. Upon autopsy, the following discovery is made. What is her diagnois?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome: meningiococcal or pseudomonal septicemia with adrenal hemorrhage leading to acute adrenal insufficiency
Acute adrenal insufficiency can also be caused by:
- Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy (adrenal glands get “lazy” during therapy, don’t respond quickly enough to withdrawal
- Excessive stress (infection/surgery) on borderline functioning glands (may have had underlying adrenal insufficiency due to Addison’s for example)
Symptoms: hypotension, shock, abdominal/back pain- life threatening
Treatment: Emergent hormone replacement therapy (steroids)
A man comes to the office complaining of frequent episodes of anxiety and hyperventilation. While he states he is not currently having an episode, you measure his BP at 155/100 which is markedly higher than his previous BP measurements. What is his possible diagnosis and treatment based on the histologic sample below?
Pheochromocytoma= tumor of adrenal medulla (below)
Symptoms: episodic or sustained HTN/ malignant HTN (can lead to MI, aortic dissection); encephalopathy, papilledema, paroxysms of anxiety, hyperventilation/ convulsions, heat intolerance, mimics hyperthyroidism.
* Histo: neurosecretory granules
* Sporadic or as part of MEN2, NF1 (neurofibro), vHL (von Hippel Landau)
Testing:
- 24-hour urine catecholamines (NE, epi, DA) AND their metabolites (metanephrines)
- Catecholamines= 2X upper limit
- Metanephrines= above upper limit - Plasma free metanephrines= newer test, not specific, but sensitive
Diagnosis: MRI or CT; 123-MIBG scan (uptake of epinephrine by tumor)
Treatment:
Surgical
- be careful in prepping patient to avoid hypertensive crises in surgery:
- start with alpha-blocker (phenoxybenzamine) to control BP, paroxysms (2 weeks pre-op)
- If patient becomes tachycardic–> add beta-blockers (propanolol)
*NEVER add beta before alpha (could have unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation) - Can also use Metyrosine= inhibits catecholamine synthesis–> better perioperative course
- AEs: sedation, depression, anxiety, urea elevation
- Therefore, used when resection difficult or radiofrequency destruction being used - Two weeks post-op, re-check 24 hour catecholamines, metanephrines (yearly for 5 years)
- 30% may remain hypertensive despite ressection
Neuroblastoma:
General Features:
- originates in adrenal medulla or sympathetic chain
- 10% of all childhood cancer and 15% of cancer deaths
peak incidence in first three years
- May be congenital- child born with tumor, can also be metastatic
- presumably derived from persistent fetal neuroblasts- don’t involute, die off
Genetics: may be associated with NF-1
Poor prognosis=
- HSR on Chom 2, double minutes–> N-myc amplification (30%)
- Presence of TRKB (nerve growth factor receptor)
Good prognosis: TRKA presence
- Age < 1 year, extra-adrenal, stage IV-S (widely disseminated but NO chromosomal changes- eventually they undergo apoptosis)
Histology: edges blurred like neural tissue (vs adrenal), small round ‘blue’ cells, Homer Wright rosettes
A 45-year old woman came to her doctor after noticing increasing fatigue, coldness, and hair loss (her main reason for coming). She said she noticed that there seems to be a lump on her neck and she’s concerned she could have cancer. Upon physical exam, you note a diffuse goiter and areas of alopecia. The labs show elevated TSH and TSH-receptor antibodies and a biopsy of the thyroid reveals the following. What is her diagnosis and treatment?
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: both cell mediated (CD8+ cells) and humoral
- circulating antibodies directed against thyroid microsomal
peroxidase, thyroglobulin, TSH receptor (antagonist)
- genetic predisposition
- may be associated other systemic autoimmune disease
Histology
- lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate
- destruction and atrophy of follicles
- Hurthle (Askanazy) cell metaplasia
Treatment: thyroid hormone replacement
A 35 year old woman comes to your clinic with a persistant sore throat and neck after a cold she got a couple of weeks ago. Recently she has had severe pain in the front of her neck (“right over her adam’s apple”) and has felt like her heart is racing and is concerned she might have some sort of infection or cancer. A biopsy of her thyroid reveals the following. What is her diagnosis, prognosis and treatment?
DeQuervain Thyroiditis= subacute thyroiditis
- follows URI, caused by viral infection (influenza, adenovirus,
echo, coxsackie, possibly mumps) - granulomatous inflammation
- transient hyperthyroidism with destruction of follicles
- euthyroid state restored upon recovery
Treatment: treat symptoms (hyperthyroid, pain)- generally recovers euthyroid state within a few months
A 50 year old woman with a 10 year history of lupus comes to the clinic after having issues with swallowing over the past few weeks. She denies any URIs or sore throats. Upon physical exam there is a hard lump noted over her thyroid that does not move when she is asked to swallow. A biopsy is taken- what is the diagnosis, etiology, and prognosis?
Riedel Thyroiditis
- dense fibrosis of thyroid
- associated with extrathyroidal fibrosis including: retroperitoneum, mediastinum
- not related to other thyroiditides
Histology
- dense hyalinized tissue with chronic inflammatory infiltrate
Etiology= history of inflammatory/autoimmune disorder–> inflammation of thyroid with hyaline tissue–> hard thyroid
Prognosis: needs to be surgically removed to relieve issues with swallowing
This thyroid gland was removed from a 65 year old woman at autopsy; the patient had no history of hyper or hypothyroidism. What is the diagnosis?
Nontoxic multinodular goiter= more common form of nontoxic goiter in older women (vs diffuse goiter). No funcitonal, inflammatory, neoplastic alterations
Your patient comes to your office for her annual physical and you note some changes in her appearance since you saw her two years ago. Her eyes show exopthalmos and proptosis, and there is a diffuse goiter on her neck. She reports feeling “just fine” since you saw her last- in fact, she has lost weight and has more energy. How would you diagnose and treat her condition?
Hyperthyroidism caused by Grave’s disease:
Symptoms:
- Diffuse goiter with bruit
- Opthalmopathy (non-specific): grittiness, photophobia, lid lag & retration
- Specific opthalmopathy: proptosis (see upper AND lower sclera), exopthalmos, (diagnose with Moebius sign), ophthalmoplegia
- Dermopathy: acropachy (clubbing)
Testing: Elevated T3, T4, increased radioactive iodide uptake (vs thyroiditis- no changes in uptake, just increased output of thyroid hormone)
Treatment:
- Thionamides= methimazole (MMI) and propylthiouracyl (PTU)- block activity of TPO, block iodotyrosine coupling
- Iodides (potassium iodide solution)= large doses inhibit TH release (TBG proteolysis inhibition)
- Radioactive iodide (kill Thyroid gland- NOT for use in pregnancy)
Sample of thyroid biopsy:
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
- *FIRST AID**:
- Mos common
- Excellent prognsosis
- Empty appearing nuclei “Orphan Annie’s eyes”
- Psammoma bodies
- Nuclear grooves
- Increased risk after childhood radiation
Pathogenesis: mostly sporadic, but is associated with:
- Iodine excess (animal model)
- in regions endemic for goiter, addition of iodine to diet (increases the proportion of papillary to follicular carcinoma)
- Radiation (atomic bomb survivors, Chernobyl)
- Radiolabeled iodine does not increase the risk of PTC (insufficient dose)
*most common variant of thyroid carcinoma
Histology: variable morphology with some papillary areas, pseudonuclear inclusions (clear nuclei), nuclear groove, psammoma bodies (calcospherites)
- Variants: Pure papillary, Follicular variant (still has nuclear features of papillary CA)
*spreads predominately by lymphatics
Genetics:
- Increased risk among first degree relatives: MEN2
- RET oncogene rearrangement (also mutated in MEN2)
Prognosis= excellent, relatively normal life expectancy even with lymph node metastases at the time of initial surgery. Overall > 90% survival
- *Thyroid follicular carcinoma**:
- good prognosis, uniform follicules
- capsular/vascular invasion–> poor prognosis
No papillary carcinoma features
Ressembles follicular adenoma except for capsular invasion.
- HEMATOGENOUS spread
- Minimal invasion (not through capsule)= good prognosis (90% survivorship at 10 years)
- Widely invasive= through capsule/vascular/bone invasion (50% survivorship at 10 years)
Treatment: surgery, radioactive iodine
A patient with high serum calcitonin had the following biopsied from his thyroid gland. What is his diagnosis and prognosis?
- *Thyroid Medullary Carcinoma**
- parafolliular C cells–> calcitonin
- Sheets in amyloid stroma
- associated with Men 2A, Men 2B, familial medullary thyroid carcinoma
- derived from C cells, C cell hyperplasia is precursor lesion
- 20% are familial and associated with MEN 2
- RET oncogene mutations
- composed of solid sheets of polygonal granular cells with amyloid deposition (procalcitonin)–> produces calcitonin
- may also produce ACTH, glucagon, insulin, HCG, VIP, serotonin
*Invasive and metastatic-
60-70% 5 year survival
A 32 year old woman presents to your clinic concerned that she may be pregnant as she has not menstruated in 3 months and has begun to notice some milky discharge from her nipples. She reports using birth control pills and condoms and wonders how this could have happen. You perform a urine beta-hCG test, which is negative. Upon blood testing you notice elevated prolactin levels. A biopsy is taken from her pituitary gland- what is the probable diagnosis?
- *Prolactinoma** (lactotrope adenoma)= most common type of pituitary adenoma. Can see amyloid deposition and psammona bodies
- *Symptoms:**
- amenorrhea, galactorrhea (proliactin), low libido, infertility: increased prolactin–> decreased GnRH
- bitemporal hemianopia (impinge on optic chiasm)
- Treatment: dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline)
(spherical, calcified structures seen in tumors throughout body- papillary thyroid cancer, meningiomas, serous ovarian carcinoma). Conversely, can see absence of cell type differentiation (previous image)
Symptoms:
- Females: galactorrhea, infertility, amenorrhea
- males: decreased libido, erectile dysfunction
Normal islet of langerhaans tissue
Below is a histologic sample from the pancreas of an obese 55 year old African American woman. She was reporting increasing thirst and urination over the past several months and her doctor performed a fasting blood sugar which was measured at 150 mg/dL. What is her diagnosis and what is notable in the histologic sample?
Type 2 Diabete Mellitus
Histology: no reduction in islet cell number, but distinct fibrosis and amyloid deposition in islets of Langerhaans. Additionally, there is hyaline arteriosclerosis in pancreatic tissue
A six year old boy was brought to his pediatrician by his mother after she noticed he seemed to be eating more while losing weight over the past two months. Additionally he was always drinking water and on longer car rides they had to stop so he could use the restroom. Based on the hisotologic sample below, what is his diagnosis?
Type 1 DM: see lymphocytic infiltrate leading to destruction of beta cells in islets of Langerhaans
A 65 year old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his physician for testing. After measuring high levels of protein in his urine, the physician orders a biopsy of his kidney tissue and the following is note. What is his diagnosis?
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: consistently elevated glucose (uncontrolled DM) causes glucose spillage in kidneys. Glucose–> cross-linking of proteins–> basement membrane thickening in arterioles. Eventually leads to breakdown of arterioles–> proteinuria (kidney damage)
A 55 year old man presents to his physician complaining of gradually worsening feelings of light-headedness, lethargy, insatiable hunger, and sweating. The physician takes blood panels which are notable for elevated insulin, proinsulin, c-peptide, and decreased beta-OHB. Based on the specimen below, what is the patient’s diagnosis?
Insulinoma: most common endocrine pancreatic tumor. Only 5-10% malignant (vs. highly malignant exocrine pancreatic tumor).
Symptoms= related to hypoglycemia from excess insulin production; sweating, nervousness, hunger, lethargy, coma
Histology__: amyloid deposition, insulin-producing tissue (stain) seen outside of islets of Langerhaans (below)
A 45 year old man presents to the emergency room after vomiting blood. He reports that he’s been taking tums and prilosec for the past few months because of recurrent GERD, but he’s never experienced any bloody vomit before. What is his diagnosis, and based on the histologic sample of his pancreas (below), what could be causing this?
Diagnosis: peptic ulcer disease caused by gastrinoma= ~25% of islet cell tumors, sporadic (some seen in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1). Gastrin-producing cells are NOT native to endocrine pancreas (normally found in duodenal mucosa)
- 70-90% malignant
- Seen in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: intractable gastric acid hypersecretion, severe peptic ulcers in duodenum/jejunem, high serum gastrin levels, thickened gastric folds