End Game Flashcards

1
Q

Do officers need a warrant to make an arrest? If not, what do they need?

A

Police officers may make an arrest without a warrant if the officers have probable cause to believe the person had committed a crime.

The inquiry considers the totality of the circumstances and probable cause exists if the officer has knowledge that would warrant a reasonably prudent person to believe that the person has committed or is committing a crime.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does PMSI get super-priority?

A

Where the collateral is inventory, a PMSI will have super priority only if the creditor, before handing over possession of the inventory to the debtor

(1) sends a special written notice to other security interest holders, and

(2) takes steps to assure that its PMSI will be perfected at the time the debtor receives possession.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s an exception to the general validity of after-acquired collateral clauses?

A

Under Virginia law an after-acquired collateral clause is ineffective as to consumer goods acquired more than 10 days after the creditor has given value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s the test for supplemental jurisdiction?

A

Common nucleus of operative fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s the only way a case can be remanded to state court?

A

The only way that a case could be sent to state court is (1) if the case originated in state court, (2) had been removed to U.S. District Court, and (3) was then remanded because of some defect in the removal process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In federal court, when can a party move to dismiss for failure to join an indispensable party? Can that failure be waived?

A

Under Rule 12, a motion to dismiss for failure to raise an indispensable party is not waivable and can be raised at any time up until and including the trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s the test for concurrent conflicts of interest?

A

Significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the lawyer’s responsibilities to another client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s a wrinkle lawyers need to keep in mind when considering joint representation of multiple plaintiffs?

A

Even if informed consent can be, and is, obtained at the outset of the joint representation, one or both jointly represented clients may later withdraw this consent. If the client does withdraw consent, then the lawyer must evaluate whether the joint representation can continue and must secure a new informed consent from each client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who are the beneficiaries of a wrongful death action?

A

First class is surviving spouse, children, and children of decesased children; also parents if parents have been dependent on decedent for support during the past year

Second class (if no SS or children) is parents and siblings, and anyone else dependent on decedent for support

If no children but surviving spouse and parents, goes to surviving spouse and parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s the test for negligent entrustment of a vehicle?

A

Owner of the vehicle knew, or had reason to know, she was entrusting her vehicle to an unfit driver, likely to cause injury to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What presumptions apply for contributory negligence for children?

A

A child between the ages of 7 and 14 is presumed not to have the capacity to understand and appreciate the peril and dangers of his acts and is legally incapable of committing acts of negligence.

The defendant can rebut this presumption by showing that the plaintiff child did have the capacity to understand the peril and dangers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s the juvenile and domestic relations court’s jurisdiction over custody and child support orders?

A

The Juvenile & Domestic Relations District Court and Circuit Court have concurrent jurisdiction over custody and child support orders.

After a Juvenile Court issues a custody or support, it is divested of jurisdiction when a party files a suit for divorce asking for custody and support to be decided but only after a hearing is set by the circuit court for a date certain or the matter is on the motions docket to be heard within 21 days of filing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is contempt of court defined?

A

“Contempt is defined as an act in disrespect of the court or its process, or which obstructs the administration of justice.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What’s the test for desertion?

A

Desertion is a breach of matrimonial duty that requires a showing of the actual breaking off of the matrimonial cohabitation coupled with an intent to desert in the mind of the deserting party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What’s the interplay between desertion and denial of sexual intercourse?

A

The Supreme Court explained that desertion could be established where there was willful withdrawal of the privilege of sexual intercourse, without just cause or excuse when such withdrawal is accompanied with willful breach and neglect of other marital duties as to practically destroy home life in every true sense and to render the marriage intolerable and impossible to be endured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens if the JDR Court makes a custody order, and then a parent requests a new order in a divorce proceeding in the Circuit Court?

A

Where a Juvenile Court has properly issued a custody order, a subsequent request for a custody order accompanying a suit for divorce in Circuit Court should be treated as a modification rather than a de novo review of a custody determination.

If the court determines there is a change of circumstances, it should apply the best interests factors set forth in the statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What’s the deadline for an opening brief in the VA Court of Appeals?

A

If a transcript is to be filed it must be filed with the trial court within 60 days. Once the trial record has been received by the Court of Appeals of Virginia, Bob will have 40 days to submit his opening brief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the elements for an inverse condemnation claim?

A

To prevail on a claim for inverse condemnation, the plaintiff must establish that:

(i) the property owner owns private property or has some private property right,

(ii) the property or a right connected to that property has been taken or damaged by the government,

(iii) the taking or damaging was for “public use,” and,

(iv) The government or condemning authority failed to pay just compensation to the property owner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does a PI plaintiff have a duty to mitigate damages? If so, how?

A

Virginia law recognizes a plaintiff’s duty to mitigate damages in a personal injury action by submitting to reasonable medical treatment.

20
Q

What’s the key element for entrapment?

A

Entrapment is all about PREDISPOSITION to commit the crime. If the defendant had no predisposition, and the police tricked him into committing a crime, he’s been entrapped.

21
Q

What’s the test for determining whether to sever a trial/try defendants separately?

A

It is within the court’s discretion whether to sever a trial. In doing so, the court would consider whether either defendant would be prejudiced by the joint trial.

22
Q

What’s the definition of an express warranty?

A

“An affirmation of fact or promise made by the seller to the buyer which relates to the goods and becomes part of the basis of the bargain”

23
Q

What’s the test for former client conflicts of interest?

A

“A lawyer who has formerly represented a client in a matter shall not thereafter represent another person in the same or a substantially related matter in which that person’s interests are materially adverse to the interests of the former client unless both the present and former client consent after consultation.” 


24
Q

What do you need to enforce an oral contract against a dead person?

A

to enforce an oral contact against someone now deceased, your testimony would require corroboration from a source other than you and not in your control.

Need to establish offer, acceptance and consideration by clear and convincing evidence

25
Q

What’s VFOIA’s definition of a meeting?

What are the requirements of those meetings?

A

VFOIA defines a “meeting” to include an informal assemblage of (i) as many as three members or (ii) a quorum, if less than three, of the constituent membership, wherever held, with or without minutes being taken, whether or not votes are cast, of any “public body.”

Public bodies shall: (a) have all meetings open to the public, unless a specific exemption for a closed meeting applies; (b) give notice of the date, time, and location of its meetings by posting on its website, posting area, and at the office of the clerk or chief administrator; (c) allow their meetings to be filmed; and, (d) shall keep proper minutes of their meetings. 


26
Q

When can a locality temporarily close its streets?

A

Basically whenever. A locality may permit the temporary use of public rights-of-way for other than public purposes and close the rights-of-way for public use and travel during temporary use.

27
Q

What does it take for a locality to be able to sell a public place? What IS a public place?

A

It takes an ordinance passed by a recorded affirmative vote of three-fourths of all the members elected to the council.

A “public place” is an area that has been devoted to the use of the public at large or by the municipality itself in carrying out its governmental functions (e.g., a school building, a public office building, etc.).

28
Q

When must process be served (vis a vis filing the complaint)?

A

Within one year of filing

29
Q

Where is venue proper for Category B cases (e.g. personal injury)?

A

In this case venue would be proper where either of the defendants resides, or where a defendant has appointed a registered agent to receive process, or where the cause of action arose.

30
Q

What do you do if you believe you’ve been improperly joined to a case?

A

File a plea of misjoinder. If granted, you’ll be dropped from the case.

31
Q

What’s the presumption for joint ownership of an account?

A

There is a presumption that when an account is owned by a husband and wife, they own it equally

32
Q

What happens when a general partner dies?

A

A partner is dissociated from the partnership upon death. However, the dissociation of a partner by death from a partnership at will does not trigger dissolution and winding up of the partnership.

33
Q

What must a partnership do when a partner dissociates?

A

The partnership must buy out the dissociated partner’s interest when the partnership continues after the partner’s dissociation.

34
Q

How is a partnership’s buyout price determined?

A

The buy-out price is greater of the partnership’s (1) liquidation value or (2) going concern value, on the date of dissociation.

If a partner dissociates, his buyout is the amount that would have been distributable to the dissociating partner based on that criteria

35
Q

When is a partner liable to third parties after dissociation?

A

Although a dissociated partner generally is not liable for partnership obligations incurred after dissociation, the dissociated partner will be liable to a third party who transacted business with the partnership within one year of the dissociation and who reasonably believed that the dissociated partner was still a partner without notice or knowledge otherwise.

36
Q

Can an at-will employee sue for termination?

A

Although employment-at-will is the law in Virginia, there are exceptions to the doctrine for at-will employees who are discharged in violation of an established public policy.

37
Q

What’s the deal with conspiracy to breach a contract?

A

Requires plaintiff to show conspiracy to procure the breach of contract and that pursuant to such conspiracy the contract was breached.

However, a conspiracy requires two persons, and a corporation, like an individual, cannot conspire with itself.

38
Q

What do plaintiff shareholders need to prove to obtain judicial dissolution of a corporation?

A

Either (1) deadlock in the management of the corporation, (2) oppressive or illegal conduct by the majority or (3) waste of corporate assets.

39
Q

May the donor of an inter vivos gift retain possession of the gift?

A

If the donor has present donative intent, the donor may reserve a right of possession (a gift in praesenti with a postponed right of enjoyment).

“A formal delivery of a deed or gift is not essential where the acts of the grantor or donor manifest an intent that as to him the transaction is complete.”

40
Q

At what point can a state court suit be removed to federal court on diversity grounds?

A

In cases removed to Federal Court based on diversity, the case can be removed if there’s a later change in the case (such as a defendant being dismissed) so long as the change/and removal occur within one year from commencement of the action.

41
Q

How long does a defendant have to remove a case after removal becomes possible?

A

defendant Firebox had 30 days from receipt of the order showing the change in the status of the case to remove it by filing a notice of removal.

42
Q

What’s the rule regarding how much attorneys can charge in fees?

A

Fees must be reasonable

43
Q

What does a plaintiff need to file to obtain injunctive relief?

A

To secure injunctive relief, in addition to a complaint, a plaintiff must file a motion for a temporary injunction

Also the Court, as a condition of granting any temporary injunction is likely to require the Plaintiff to post a bond to protect the Defendant if, on a trial on the merits, the Court determines that the injunction should not have been granted.

44
Q

What does a shareholder need to do to file a derivative action?

A

To have standing to bring a derivative suit, the shareholder must have owned stock at the time of the alleged wrongdoing and he or she must fairly and adequately represent the interests of the corporation.

Additionally, the shareholder must make written demand on the corporation prior to bringing the suit.

After making demand, the shareholder must wait until the demand is rejected or until 90 days pass, unless he or she can show irreparable injury to the corporation.

If the demand is rejected, the shareholder may file the suit only if he or she alleges that the demand was not properly rejected by a disinterested decision-maker.

45
Q

What is needed to get a child support or visitation order modified?

A

Modification of child custody OR visitation orders requires that the movant show a material change in circumstances, AND that modification would be in the best interests of the child

46
Q

What does a deed need to be valid?

A

In order for a deed to be valid, it must: (1) meet certain formalities; (2) be delivered by the grantor; and (3) be accepted by the grantee.

That’s it! No recording needed.

47
Q

Can a party in a divorce proceeding make an oral motion at trial to amend the complaint to change the grounds for divorce?

A

A party in a divorce proceeding CAN make an oral motion at trial to amend complaint to change the grounds of divorce