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EMT244 > EMT244 > Flashcards

EMT244 Flashcards

1
Q

What pathogens lead to bacterial meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis (n. meningitis)

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2
Q

How is bacterial meningitis spread?

A

Airborne pathogens

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3
Q

What organs are responsible for increase in WBCs?

A

Lymph glands and bone marrow
Thymus
Spleen

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4
Q

What is the most common sign of infection?

A

Fever

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5
Q

Body system affected by tetanus?

A

CNS

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6
Q

Rabies virus carried by?

A

Saliva

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7
Q

Complications of hemodialysis?

A 
Vascular access
Hemorrhage
Hypotension
Chest pain
Hyperkalemia
Disequilibrium syndrome
and more
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8
Q

S/S of CO poisoning?

A

Headache
Nausea/vomiting
Cherry red skin
Lethargy

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9
Q

Indicator of meningitis?

A

Stiff neck

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10
Q

Cells that HIV destroys?

A

T cells with CD4 on its surface

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11
Q

An illness caused by a specific germ is called ___?

A

Infectious

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12
Q

Disease passed from one person to another is ___?

A

Communicable

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13
Q

Most accidental poisonings in children from 1 to 3 years of age occur by means of:

A

Ingestion

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14
Q

The most common cardiovascular complications of poisoning by ingestion is:

A

Rhythm disturbances

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15
Q

Activated charcoal is most effective when the:

A

Poison was ingested less than an hour before the administration of charcoal

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16
Q

A contraindication to gastric lavage is:

A

Ingestion of gasoline or kerosene

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17
Q

You are called to treat a 2 y/o child who has just ingested lye. The child is conscious and cooperative. The poison control center may advise you to administer what oral solution?

A

Milk

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18
Q

Most pediatric lead poisonings occur as a result of:

A

Ingestion of paint chips

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19
Q

The most common route of mercury poisoning is:

A

Inhalation

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20
Q

You are called to a local park where several people attending a family reunion report stomach pain, nausea, and vomiting. Patients report that lunch was served 2 hours ago. This time frame would lead you to suspect that the cause of the food poisoning was:

A

Bacterial toxin

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21
Q

If the stinger is left in the wound after a honey bee sting, you should:

A

Scrape the stinger from the wound

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22
Q

What specific skills are typically required to prevent the escalation of a behavioral or psychiatric emergency?

A

Communication and support

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23
Q

A behavioral emergency is best defined as a:

A

Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others

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24
Q

In the U.S., mental health problems:

A

Affect 20% of the population

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25
Q

Typical causes of behavioral emergencies include:

A

Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors

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26
Q

Your pt is a 15 y/o male who has been described as exhibiting bizarre behavior lately. The pt tells you that he hears voices. He is exhibiting delusional thinking and is extremely paranoid. You suspect:

A

Schizophrenia

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27
Q

Which of the following is true regarding schizophrenic patients’ ability to function in society?

A

If they are compliant with their medications, schizophrenics may function quite well

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28
Q

Your pt is a 28 y/o male complaining of severe panic attack. When you arrive, he informs you that he has a hx of panic attacks, and is currently experiencing chest pain and a feeling of doom. The most appropriate action is to:

A

Assess the pt for signs of myocardial infarction and transport him to the ED

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29
Q

28 y/o male, welfare check. When you arrive, pt states he has been depressed since the loss of his fiancee in an MVA that occurred while the pt was driving. Pt informs you he hasn’t slept well in weeks, expresses remorse and responsibility over the loss of his fiancee, saying it should have been he who died. He is suffering from:

A

Posttraumatic syndrome

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30
Q

Depression is characterized by an impairment of normal function and:

A

Is episodic, usually lasting longer than 1 month, with periods of remission

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31
Q

Your crew is called to a pt threatening suicide. Law enforcement on scene, pt is sitting on the hood of his car. During your interview with this pt, you should:

A

Try to ascertain whether the pt has a specific plan for the way he intends to commit suicide.

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32
Q

Your pt is a 43 y/o female who is despondent. Her coworkers inform you that she is normally a “bizarre” person and has acted out inappropriately in the past. They further inform you that the pt has been muttering to herself all morning, and shouting at inanimate objects. Pt does not respond to questioning, you should:

A

Speak in a quiet voice and allow her extra time to answer your questions

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33
Q

Any substance that produces harmful physiological or psychological effects is called a(n):

A

Poison

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34
Q

The absorption of toxins takes place primarily in the:

A

Small intestine

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35
Q

The preferred method of keeping a poison from entering the small intestine is:

A

Use of activated charcoal

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36
Q

The dosage of activated charcoal in a child is:

A

15-30 g

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37
Q

The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:

A

Flumazenil

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38
Q

The mnemonic SLUDGE helps you to remember the:

A

Signs of organophosphate poisoning

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39
Q

Drug therapy for patients with organophosphate poisoning should be administered when?

A

If the patient has 2+ symptoms of respiratory distress

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40
Q

The drug of choice for carbamate poisonings is:

A

Atropine

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41
Q

An employee in a pest-control business is found unconscious on a garage floor. He is drooling and diaphoretic. The most appropriate medication for this pt is:

A

Atropine

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42
Q

The drug of choice to treat an overdose of opiates is:

A

Naloxone (narcan)

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43
Q

Sedative-hypnotic drugs include:

A

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates

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44
Q

Cocaine is a(n):

A

CNS stimulant

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45
Q

Which of the following is an early sign of toxicity in reaction to a tricyclic antidepressant?

A

Blurred vision

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46
Q

The pharmacological management of choice for a symptomatic overdose of a TCA is:

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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47
Q

Among a patient’s prescription medications, you find a bottle of lithium, leading you to suspect that the patient has:

A

Bipolar disorder

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48
Q

The most commonly ingested NSAID in overdose is:

A

Ibuprofen

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49
Q

Acetaminophen overdose leads to toxicity of the:

A

Liver

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50
Q

What medication can you use to prevent exacerbation of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thiamine

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51
Q

Disulfiram is a medication taken by alcoholics to prevent:

A

Alcoholic intake

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52
Q

A “wet” patient presentation that includes tearing, emesis, and salivation would lead you to suspect what kind of toxicological syndrome?

A

Cholinergic

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53
Q

Thermoregulatory center in the body?

A

Hypothalamus

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54
Q

Poison absorption occurs mostly where?

A

Small intestine

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55
Q

Most common adverse drug reaction in the elderly is what?

A

Digitalis toxicity

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56
Q

What is a sign of a cocaine OD?

A

Dilated pupils

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57
Q

All types of blood cells are formed where?

A

Bone marrow

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58
Q

Codeine is what type of drug?

A

Narcotic

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59
Q

What occurs during the incubation period?

A

Pt is exposed to disease and has signs and symptoms

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60
Q

What organs are responsible for EPO production?

A

Kidneys

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61
Q

Coumadin blocks what?

A

Vitamin K production

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62
Q

What virus causes mono?

A

Epstein-Barre

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63
Q

Schizophrenia medication blocks what?

A

Action of dopamine

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64
Q

In what stage does chancre of syphilis develop?

A

Primary stage

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65
Q

A substance capable of producing an allergic reaction is a what?

A

Antigen

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66
Q

What three drugs are in the cyanide antidote kit?

A

Amyl nitrite
Sodium nitrite
Sodium thiosulfate

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67
Q

What is a crucial part of the inflammatory process?

A

Increased capillary permeability

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68
Q

Another name for multiple personality disorder?

A

Dissociative identity disorder

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69
Q

Scabies is caused by what?

A

Parasite

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70
Q

What is the universal blood recipient?

A

AB

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71
Q

What is an indicator of an early stage of Lyme disease?

A

Painless flat red lesions

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72
Q

Anemia is what?

A

A deficiency in RBC production

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73
Q

What is the best thing to do after a pt finishes seizing?

A

Roll pt on side

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74
Q

What system is affected by tetanus?

A

CNS

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75
Q

What organ will most likely show effects of poisoning first?

A

Heart

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76
Q

What is responsible for the blood clotting process?

A

Fibrinogen

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77
Q

How is Hepatitis C transferred to EMS providers?

A

Blood

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78
Q

What is the most common symptom of tetanus?

A

Trismus (stiff jaw)

79
Q

What type of cells are destroyed by HIV?

A

T cell lymphocytes

80
Q

What is an indication of Hodgkins’ disease?

A

Swollen lymph nodes

81
Q

What happens in a heroine overdose?

A

Respiratory depression caused by the brain’s decreased response to CO2

82
Q

What happens in fibrinolysis?

A

Plasmin dismantles blood clot

83
Q

What is the normal hematocrit for a male?

A

35

84
Q

CHAMP is used for?

A

Which hydrocarbons may benefit from gastric lavage

85
Q

Hypothermic patients present with what?

A

Visible Osborne wave

86
Q

What would we give for an aspirin OD?

A

Sodium bicarb and activated charcoal

87
Q

Where does the majority of absorption take place in the body?

A

Small intestine

88
Q

Most common overdose in the elderly population?

A

Digitalis toxicity

89
Q

WBC responsible for body defense mechanisms, humoral, cell-mediated immunity?

A

Leukocytes

90
Q

WBC responsible for phagocytosis, antibody-mediated defense against parasites?

A

Eosinophils

91
Q

WBC responsible for phagocytosis, particularly during early phase of inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

92
Q

WBC associated with allergic reactions and trauma?

A

Basophils

93
Q

A compulsive, uncontrollable dependence on a substance, habit or practice to such a degree that cessation causes severe emotional, mental, or physiological reactions is called ___.

A

Addiction

94
Q

A physiological response that requires that a drug overdose be increased to produce the same effect formerly produced by a smaller dose is ___.

A

Tolerance

95
Q

A predictable set of signs and symptoms that occurs after a decrease in the usual dose of a drug or its sudden cessation is ___.

A

Withdrawal syndrome

96
Q

Self-medication or self-administration of a drug in excessive amounts, resulting in physiological or physical dependence, functional impairment and deviation from approved social norms is ___.

A

Drug abuse

97
Q

What type of antidysrhythmic is lidocaine?

A

Sodium channel blocker

98
Q

What is the adult dose of thiamine?

A

100 mg slow IV or IM

99
Q

What is the adult dose of D50?

A

12.5-50 g slow IV

100
Q

What does marijuana affect?

A

Brain
Lungs
Respiratory system

101
Q

What makes up the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

102
Q

What organ produces erythropoietin (EPO)?

A

Kidneys

103
Q

What 2 drugs are given for an organophosphate overdose?

A

2-PAM chloride and atropine

104
Q

What is the most common tick-borne disease?

A

Lyme disease

105
Q

Lyme disease caused by what?

A

Ixodes tick

106
Q

Lyme disease treated how?

A

Removing tick (without squeezing body) and washing with soapy water

107
Q

Four routes of exposure?

A

Inhalation, ingestion, injection, absorption

108
Q

What is a virus transmitted by inhalation of rat urine and feces?

A

Hantavirus

109
Q

How strong is the bonding of CO to hemoglobin?

A

240 times stronger than oxygen

110
Q

Define trismus

A

Stiffness of the jaw caused by tetanus

111
Q

Proteins that cause the formation of an antibody and react specifically to that antibody are called ___.

A

Antigens

112
Q

Substances that can produce hypersensitivity reactions in the body are called ___.

A

Allergens

113
Q

Substances produced by the body that destroy or inactivate a specific antigen are called ___.

A

Antibodies

114
Q

How long do red blood cells live?

A

80-120 days

115
Q

Maladaptive behavior involving major distortions with reality is the definition of ___.

A

Psychosis

116
Q

What is easily confused with multiple personality disorder?

A

Schizophrenia

117
Q

What is the most severe type of high-altitude sickness?

A

High altitude cerebral edema

118
Q

What causes scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis

119
Q

What is the universal blood donor?

A

Type O negative

120
Q

What is the universal recipient?

A

Type AB

121
Q

Which medication blocks H1 and H2 receptors?

A

Benadryl

122
Q

What is phenobarbital used for?

A

CNS depression and anticonvulsive

123
Q

What causes the SLUDGE symptoms?

A

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, resulting in buildup of acetylcholine and overstimulation of receptors

124
Q

Which organ causes an increase in RBC production?

A

Kidneys secrete EPO which stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow

125
Q

What are the components of TB testing?

A

A positive skin test indicates past exposure and reaction of antibodies
Requires chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm

126
Q

Difference between dementia and delirium?

A

Dementia pts will not have hallucinations

127
Q

Latent period is…?

A

Begins with invasion, ends when the agent can be shed

128
Q

Incubation period is…?

A

Begins with invasion, ends when the disease process begins

129
Q

Communicability period is…?

A

Begins at end of latent period, continues as long as agent is present and can spread to others

130
Q

Disease period is…?

A

Follows incubation period, variable duration

131
Q

How long can HIV survive outside the body?

A

Minutes to hours

132
Q

How long can HCV survive outside the body?

A

16 hours - 4 days

133
Q

How long can HPV survive outside the body?

A

7 days

134
Q

Difference between bacterial and viral infection?

A 
Bacterial = doesn't need a cell for host
Viral = needs a cell for host
135
Q

Strains involve?

A

Tendons

136
Q

Sprains involve?

A

Ligaments

137
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Hunchback

138
Q

What is scoleosis?

A

Lateral curvature

139
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Lumbar curvature

140
Q

Which hemophilia is also known as Christmas disease?

A

B

141
Q

Hemophilia A clotting factor?

A

8

142
Q

Hemophilia B clotting factor?

A

9

143
Q

Leukopenia is?

A

Low WBC count

144
Q

Thrombocytopenia is?

A

Low platelet count

145
Q

92% of plasma is ___.

A

Water

146
Q

Hemophilia affects which gender more?

A

Males

147
Q

What is the most plentiful plasma protein?

A

Albumin

148
Q

Methemoglobinemia is?

A

Elevated serum hemoglobin level

149
Q

What are the 4 stages of alcohol dependence?

A 
1 = tolerance
2 = memory lapses 
3 = lack of control over alcohol
4 = prolonged binges of intoxication
150
Q

What % of alcohol is absorbed within 30 min?

A

80-90%

151
Q

What % of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine?

A

20%

152
Q

What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Reduction of intestinal and thiamine absorption

153
Q

What are the 2 stages of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Korsakoff’s psychosis

154
Q

Signs and symptoms of Wernicke’s encepalopathy?

A

Ataxia, nystagmus, poor speech/gait, neurophathy, stupor

155
Q

Signs and symptoms of Korsakoff’s psychosis?

A

Apathy, memory loss, retrograde amnesia, confabulation, and dementia

156
Q

What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Accumulation of toxic waste that’s normally detoxified by a healthy liver

157
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions start when?

A

6-12 hours after cessation

158
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions peak when?

A

24-36 hours

159
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions may last how long?

A

10-14 days

160
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: hallucinations start when?

A

12-24 hours after cessation

161
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: withdrawal seizures start when?

A

24-48 hours

162
Q

What are withdrawal seizures also known as?

A

Rum fits

163
Q

What are withdrawal seizures?

A

Grand mal seizures of short duration

164
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: when do delirium tremens start?

A

48-72 hours, though can be delayed up to 14 days

165
Q

Alcohol withdrawal: delirium tremens last how long?

A

1-3 days

166
Q

Medications that can treat withdrawal symptoms?

A

Benzodiazepines

167
Q

Why is disulfiram prescribe to alcoholics?

A

Keeps them from drinking by inhibiting ethanol metabolism

168
Q

How is a behavioral emergency best defined?

A

Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others

169
Q

A dual diagnosis means a pt has a mental illness and which other condition?

A

Substance-related disorder

170
Q

What is the definition of maladaptive behavior?

A

Actions that interfere with well-being and ability to function

171
Q

What are typical causes of behavioral emergencies?

A

Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors

172
Q

Schizophrenia is often confused with ___.

A

Multiple personality disorder

173
Q

What is the DSM-IV?

A

Classification system for psychiatric disorders

174
Q

Delirium and dementia are classified as which type of disorder?

A

Cognitive

175
Q

Unlike dementia, delirium possesses which characteristic?

A

Is often associated with delusions and hallucinations

176
Q

While EMS is gathering a medical history, the patient reports that she takes Zoloft, leading the paramedic to consider which condition?

A

Depression

177
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 67 year-old male. The patient’s wife tells EMS that her husband has progressively lost awareness of his surroundings and cannot recall events such as breakfast. These findings are indicative that this patient may be suffering from which condition?

A

Dementia

178
Q

Paramedics are called to assess a 15 year-old male who has been described as exhibiting bizarre behavior lately. The patient tells EMS that he “hears voices.” He is exhibiting delusional thinking and is extremely paranoid. What is likely occurring?

A

Schizophrenia

179
Q

Medication designed to treat schizophrenia includes antipsychotic drugs and agents that block the action of which brain chemical?

A

Dopamine

180
Q

Can schizophrenics function in society?

A

Yes, if they are compliant with their medications

181
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 27 year-old male who refuses to come out of his bathroom. Through the door, he explains that he saw a large spider on the wall of his bedroom and is deathly afraid of spiders. He ran in the bathroom, stuffed a towel under the door, and got in the bathtub. This is a classic demonstration of which disorder?

A

Phobia

182
Q

A person who washes her hands five times after every patient contact, even though she realizes that once is sufficient, is an example of what disorder?

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

183
Q

One particular manifestation of depression is the inability to derive pleasure from events or experiences that ordinarily are pleasurable. This is what?

A

Anhedonia

184
Q

The mania phase of bipolar disorder is characterized by ___.

A

Perceived personal grandeur

185
Q

The first step in assessing a behavioral emergency is assessing which portion?

A

Scene for hazards

186
Q

Paramedics are called to the home of a 34 year-old female for a nonspecific abdominal complaint. She informs them that she has had many abdominal surgeries that have not resolved her complaints. Which of the following disorders is a condition in which an individual has complaints (lasting several years) of various physical problems for which no physical cause can be found?

A

Somatization

187
Q

A factitious disorder in which the patient makes habitual pleas for treatment and hospitalization for a symptomatic but imaginary acute illness is known as which condition?

A

Munchausen syndrome

188
Q

What is another term for multiple personality disorder?

A

Dissociative identity disorder

189
Q

What substance is most commonly used by patients with a substance-abuse disorder?

A

Alcohol

190
Q

What is the minimum number of capable individuals necessary to restrain a physically violent patient?

A

Four

191
Q

Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for chemically restraining a violent patient in the prehospital setting?

A

Lorazepam

192
Q

Lithium is commonly taken by patients with which disorder?

A

Bipolar disorder

193
Q

When the decision has been made to restrain a patient, which force should be implemented?

A

Reasonable

194
Q

When paramedics arrive on the scene, police have physically subdued a 27 year-old patient. He has a history of schizophrenia and became violent in a restaurant after screaming about the voices that were commanding him to destroy the world. He is struggling and shouting profanity. His vital signs are within expected values for his agitated state. Which intervention would be most appropriate for this patient?

A

Administer lorazepam 2 mg IM before moving him to the cot

EMT244 (1 decks)

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