EMT244 Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
What pathogens lead to bacterial meningitis?
A
Neisseria meningitidis (n. meningitis)
2
Q
How is bacterial meningitis spread?
A
Airborne pathogens
3
Q
What organs are responsible for increase in WBCs?
A
Lymph glands and bone marrow
Thymus
Spleen
4
Q
What is the most common sign of infection?
A
Fever
5
Q
Body system affected by tetanus?
A
CNS
6
Q
Rabies virus carried by?
A
Saliva
7
Q
Complications of hemodialysis?
A
Vascular access Hemorrhage Hypotension Chest pain Hyperkalemia Disequilibrium syndrome and more
8
Q
S/S of CO poisoning?
A
Headache
Nausea/vomiting
Cherry red skin
Lethargy
9
Q
Indicator of meningitis?
A
Stiff neck
10
Q
Cells that HIV destroys?
A
T cells with CD4 on its surface
11
Q
An illness caused by a specific germ is called ___?
A
Infectious
12
Q
Disease passed from one person to another is ___?
A
Communicable
13
Q
Most accidental poisonings in children from 1 to 3 years of age occur by means of:
A
Ingestion
14
Q
The most common cardiovascular complications of poisoning by ingestion is:
A
Rhythm disturbances
15
Q
Activated charcoal is most effective when the:
A
Poison was ingested less than an hour before the administration of charcoal
16
Q
A contraindication to gastric lavage is:
A
Ingestion of gasoline or kerosene
17
Q
You are called to treat a 2 y/o child who has just ingested lye. The child is conscious and cooperative. The poison control center may advise you to administer what oral solution?
A
Milk
18
Q
Most pediatric lead poisonings occur as a result of:
A
Ingestion of paint chips
19
Q
The most common route of mercury poisoning is:
A
Inhalation
20
Q
You are called to a local park where several people attending a family reunion report stomach pain, nausea, and vomiting. Patients report that lunch was served 2 hours ago. This time frame would lead you to suspect that the cause of the food poisoning was:
A
Bacterial toxin
21
Q
If the stinger is left in the wound after a honey bee sting, you should:
A
Scrape the stinger from the wound
22
Q
What specific skills are typically required to prevent the escalation of a behavioral or psychiatric emergency?
A
Communication and support
23
Q
A behavioral emergency is best defined as a:
A
Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others
24
Q
In the U.S., mental health problems:
A
Affect 20% of the population
25
Typical causes of behavioral emergencies include:
Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors
26
Your pt is a 15 y/o male who has been described as exhibiting bizarre behavior lately. The pt tells you that he hears voices. He is exhibiting delusional thinking and is extremely paranoid. You suspect:
Schizophrenia
27
Which of the following is true regarding schizophrenic patients' ability to function in society?
If they are compliant with their medications, schizophrenics may function quite well
28
Your pt is a 28 y/o male complaining of severe panic attack. When you arrive, he informs you that he has a hx of panic attacks, and is currently experiencing chest pain and a feeling of doom. The most appropriate action is to:
Assess the pt for signs of myocardial infarction and transport him to the ED
29
28 y/o male, welfare check. When you arrive, pt states he has been depressed since the loss of his fiancee in an MVA that occurred while the pt was driving. Pt informs you he hasn't slept well in weeks, expresses remorse and responsibility over the loss of his fiancee, saying it should have been he who died. He is suffering from:
Posttraumatic syndrome
30
Depression is characterized by an impairment of normal function and:
Is episodic, usually lasting longer than 1 month, with periods of remission
31
Your crew is called to a pt threatening suicide. Law enforcement on scene, pt is sitting on the hood of his car. During your interview with this pt, you should:
Try to ascertain whether the pt has a specific plan for the way he intends to commit suicide.
32
Your pt is a 43 y/o female who is despondent. Her coworkers inform you that she is normally a "bizarre" person and has acted out inappropriately in the past. They further inform you that the pt has been muttering to herself all morning, and shouting at inanimate objects. Pt does not respond to questioning, you should:
Speak in a quiet voice and allow her extra time to answer your questions
33
Any substance that produces harmful physiological or psychological effects is called a(n):
Poison
34
The absorption of toxins takes place primarily in the:
Small intestine
35
The preferred method of keeping a poison from entering the small intestine is:
Use of activated charcoal
36
The dosage of activated charcoal in a child is:
15-30 g
37
The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
Flumazenil
38
The mnemonic SLUDGE helps you to remember the:
Signs of organophosphate poisoning
39
Drug therapy for patients with organophosphate poisoning should be administered when?
If the patient has 2+ symptoms of respiratory distress
40
The drug of choice for carbamate poisonings is:
Atropine
41
An employee in a pest-control business is found unconscious on a garage floor. He is drooling and diaphoretic. The most appropriate medication for this pt is:
Atropine
42
The drug of choice to treat an overdose of opiates is:
Naloxone (narcan)
43
Sedative-hypnotic drugs include:
Benzodiazepines and barbiturates
44
Cocaine is a(n):
CNS stimulant
45
Which of the following is an early sign of toxicity in reaction to a tricyclic antidepressant?
Blurred vision
46
The pharmacological management of choice for a symptomatic overdose of a TCA is:
Sodium bicarbonate
47
Among a patient's prescription medications, you find a bottle of lithium, leading you to suspect that the patient has:
Bipolar disorder
48
The most commonly ingested NSAID in overdose is:
Ibuprofen
49
Acetaminophen overdose leads to toxicity of the:
Liver
50
What medication can you use to prevent exacerbation of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Thiamine
51
Disulfiram is a medication taken by alcoholics to prevent:
Alcoholic intake
52
A "wet" patient presentation that includes tearing, emesis, and salivation would lead you to suspect what kind of toxicological syndrome?
Cholinergic
53
Thermoregulatory center in the body?
Hypothalamus
54
Poison absorption occurs mostly where?
Small intestine
55
Most common adverse drug reaction in the elderly is what?
Digitalis toxicity
56
What is a sign of a cocaine OD?
Dilated pupils
57
All types of blood cells are formed where?
Bone marrow
58
Codeine is what type of drug?
Narcotic
59
What occurs during the incubation period?
Pt is exposed to disease and has signs and symptoms
60
What organs are responsible for EPO production?
Kidneys
61
Coumadin blocks what?
Vitamin K production
62
What virus causes mono?
Epstein-Barre
63
Schizophrenia medication blocks what?
Action of dopamine
64
In what stage does chancre of syphilis develop?
Primary stage
65
A substance capable of producing an allergic reaction is a what?
Antigen
66
What three drugs are in the cyanide antidote kit?
Amyl nitrite
Sodium nitrite
Sodium thiosulfate
67
What is a crucial part of the inflammatory process?
Increased capillary permeability
68
Another name for multiple personality disorder?
Dissociative identity disorder
69
Scabies is caused by what?
Parasite
70
What is the universal blood recipient?
AB
71
What is an indicator of an early stage of Lyme disease?
Painless flat red lesions
72
Anemia is what?
A deficiency in RBC production
73
What is the best thing to do after a pt finishes seizing?
Roll pt on side
74
What system is affected by tetanus?
CNS
75
What organ will most likely show effects of poisoning first?
Heart
76
What is responsible for the blood clotting process?
Fibrinogen
77
How is Hepatitis C transferred to EMS providers?
Blood
78
What is the most common symptom of tetanus?
Trismus (stiff jaw)
79
What type of cells are destroyed by HIV?
T cell lymphocytes
80
What is an indication of Hodgkins' disease?
Swollen lymph nodes
81
What happens in a heroine overdose?
Respiratory depression caused by the brain's decreased response to CO2
82
What happens in fibrinolysis?
Plasmin dismantles blood clot
83
What is the normal hematocrit for a male?
35
84
CHAMP is used for?
Which hydrocarbons may benefit from gastric lavage
85
Hypothermic patients present with what?
Visible Osborne wave
86
What would we give for an aspirin OD?
Sodium bicarb and activated charcoal
87
Where does the majority of absorption take place in the body?
Small intestine
88
Most common overdose in the elderly population?
Digitalis toxicity
89
WBC responsible for body defense mechanisms, humoral, cell-mediated immunity?
Leukocytes
90
WBC responsible for phagocytosis, antibody-mediated defense against parasites?
Eosinophils
91
WBC responsible for phagocytosis, particularly during early phase of inflammation?
Neutrophils
92
WBC associated with allergic reactions and trauma?
Basophils
93
A compulsive, uncontrollable dependence on a substance, habit or practice to such a degree that cessation causes severe emotional, mental, or physiological reactions is called ___.
Addiction
94
A physiological response that requires that a drug overdose be increased to produce the same effect formerly produced by a smaller dose is ___.
Tolerance
95
A predictable set of signs and symptoms that occurs after a decrease in the usual dose of a drug or its sudden cessation is ___.
Withdrawal syndrome
96
Self-medication or self-administration of a drug in excessive amounts, resulting in physiological or physical dependence, functional impairment and deviation from approved social norms is ___.
Drug abuse
97
What type of antidysrhythmic is lidocaine?
Sodium channel blocker
98
What is the adult dose of thiamine?
100 mg slow IV or IM
99
What is the adult dose of D50?
12.5-50 g slow IV
100
What does marijuana affect?
Brain
Lungs
Respiratory system
101
What makes up the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
102
What organ produces erythropoietin (EPO)?
Kidneys
103
What 2 drugs are given for an organophosphate overdose?
2-PAM chloride and atropine
104
What is the most common tick-borne disease?
Lyme disease
105
Lyme disease caused by what?
Ixodes tick
106
Lyme disease treated how?
Removing tick (without squeezing body) and washing with soapy water
107
Four routes of exposure?
Inhalation, ingestion, injection, absorption
108
What is a virus transmitted by inhalation of rat urine and feces?
Hantavirus
109
How strong is the bonding of CO to hemoglobin?
240 times stronger than oxygen
110
Define trismus
Stiffness of the jaw caused by tetanus
111
Proteins that cause the formation of an antibody and react specifically to that antibody are called ___.
Antigens
112
Substances that can produce hypersensitivity reactions in the body are called ___.
Allergens
113
Substances produced by the body that destroy or inactivate a specific antigen are called ___.
Antibodies
114
How long do red blood cells live?
80-120 days
115
Maladaptive behavior involving major distortions with reality is the definition of ___.
Psychosis
116
What is easily confused with multiple personality disorder?
Schizophrenia
117
What is the most severe type of high-altitude sickness?
High altitude cerebral edema
118
What causes scabies?
Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis
119
What is the universal blood donor?
Type O negative
120
What is the universal recipient?
Type AB
121
Which medication blocks H1 and H2 receptors?
Benadryl
122
What is phenobarbital used for?
CNS depression and anticonvulsive
123
What causes the SLUDGE symptoms?
Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, resulting in buildup of acetylcholine and overstimulation of receptors
124
Which organ causes an increase in RBC production?
Kidneys secrete EPO which stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow
125
What are the components of TB testing?
A positive skin test indicates past exposure and reaction of antibodies
Requires chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm
126
Difference between dementia and delirium?
Dementia pts will not have hallucinations
127
Latent period is...?
Begins with invasion, ends when the agent can be shed
128
Incubation period is...?
Begins with invasion, ends when the disease process begins
129
Communicability period is...?
Begins at end of latent period, continues as long as agent is present and can spread to others
130
Disease period is...?
Follows incubation period, variable duration
131
How long can HIV survive outside the body?
Minutes to hours
132
How long can HCV survive outside the body?
16 hours - 4 days
133
How long can HPV survive outside the body?
7 days
134
Difference between bacterial and viral infection?
```
Bacterial = doesn't need a cell for host
Viral = needs a cell for host
```
135
Strains involve?
Tendons
136
Sprains involve?
Ligaments
137
What is kyphosis?
Hunchback
138
What is scoleosis?
Lateral curvature
139
What is lordosis?
Lumbar curvature
140
Which hemophilia is also known as Christmas disease?
B
141
Hemophilia A clotting factor?
8
142
Hemophilia B clotting factor?
9
143
Leukopenia is?
Low WBC count
144
Thrombocytopenia is?
Low platelet count
145
92% of plasma is ___.
Water
146
Hemophilia affects which gender more?
Males
147
What is the most plentiful plasma protein?
Albumin
148
Methemoglobinemia is?
Elevated serum hemoglobin level
149
What are the 4 stages of alcohol dependence?
```
1 = tolerance
2 = memory lapses
3 = lack of control over alcohol
4 = prolonged binges of intoxication
```
150
What % of alcohol is absorbed within 30 min?
80-90%
151
What % of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine?
20%
152
What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Reduction of intestinal and thiamine absorption
153
What are the 2 stages of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Wernicke's encephalopathy
| Korsakoff's psychosis
154
Signs and symptoms of Wernicke's encepalopathy?
Ataxia, nystagmus, poor speech/gait, neurophathy, stupor
155
Signs and symptoms of Korsakoff's psychosis?
Apathy, memory loss, retrograde amnesia, confabulation, and dementia
156
What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?
Accumulation of toxic waste that's normally detoxified by a healthy liver
157
Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions start when?
6-12 hours after cessation
158
Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions peak when?
24-36 hours
159
Alcohol withdrawal: minor reactions may last how long?
10-14 days
160
Alcohol withdrawal: hallucinations start when?
12-24 hours after cessation
161
Alcohol withdrawal: withdrawal seizures start when?
24-48 hours
162
What are withdrawal seizures also known as?
Rum fits
163
What are withdrawal seizures?
Grand mal seizures of short duration
164
Alcohol withdrawal: when do delirium tremens start?
48-72 hours, though can be delayed up to 14 days
165
Alcohol withdrawal: delirium tremens last how long?
1-3 days
166
Medications that can treat withdrawal symptoms?
Benzodiazepines
167
Why is disulfiram prescribe to alcoholics?
Keeps them from drinking by inhibiting ethanol metabolism
168
How is a behavioral emergency best defined?
Change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the involved person or others
169
A dual diagnosis means a pt has a mental illness and which other condition?
Substance-related disorder
170
What is the definition of maladaptive behavior?
Actions that interfere with well-being and ability to function
171
What are typical causes of behavioral emergencies?
Biological, psychosocial, and sociocultural behaviors
172
Schizophrenia is often confused with ___.
Multiple personality disorder
173
What is the DSM-IV?
Classification system for psychiatric disorders
174
Delirium and dementia are classified as which type of disorder?
Cognitive
175
Unlike dementia, delirium possesses which characteristic?
Is often associated with delusions and hallucinations
176
While EMS is gathering a medical history, the patient reports that she takes Zoloft, leading the paramedic to consider which condition?
Depression
177
Paramedics are called to the home of a 67 year-old male. The patient's wife tells EMS that her husband has progressively lost awareness of his surroundings and cannot recall events such as breakfast. These findings are indicative that this patient may be suffering from which condition?
Dementia
178
Paramedics are called to assess a 15 year-old male who has been described as exhibiting bizarre behavior lately. The patient tells EMS that he "hears voices." He is exhibiting delusional thinking and is extremely paranoid. What is likely occurring?
Schizophrenia
179
Medication designed to treat schizophrenia includes antipsychotic drugs and agents that block the action of which brain chemical?
Dopamine
180
Can schizophrenics function in society?
Yes, if they are compliant with their medications
181
Paramedics are called to the home of a 27 year-old male who refuses to come out of his bathroom. Through the door, he explains that he saw a large spider on the wall of his bedroom and is deathly afraid of spiders. He ran in the bathroom, stuffed a towel under the door, and got in the bathtub. This is a classic demonstration of which disorder?
Phobia
182
A person who washes her hands five times after every patient contact, even though she realizes that once is sufficient, is an example of what disorder?
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
183
One particular manifestation of depression is the inability to derive pleasure from events or experiences that ordinarily are pleasurable. This is what?
Anhedonia
184
The mania phase of bipolar disorder is characterized by ___.
Perceived personal grandeur
185
The first step in assessing a behavioral emergency is assessing which portion?
Scene for hazards
186
Paramedics are called to the home of a 34 year-old female for a nonspecific abdominal complaint. She informs them that she has had many abdominal surgeries that have not resolved her complaints. Which of the following disorders is a condition in which an individual has complaints (lasting several years) of various physical problems for which no physical cause can be found?
Somatization
187
A factitious disorder in which the patient makes habitual pleas for treatment and hospitalization for a symptomatic but imaginary acute illness is known as which condition?
Munchausen syndrome
188
What is another term for multiple personality disorder?
Dissociative identity disorder
189
What substance is most commonly used by patients with a substance-abuse disorder?
Alcohol
190
What is the minimum number of capable individuals necessary to restrain a physically violent patient?
Four
191
Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for chemically restraining a violent patient in the prehospital setting?
Lorazepam
192
Lithium is commonly taken by patients with which disorder?
Bipolar disorder
193
When the decision has been made to restrain a patient, which force should be implemented?
Reasonable
194
When paramedics arrive on the scene, police have physically subdued a 27 year-old patient. He has a history of schizophrenia and became violent in a restaurant after screaming about the voices that were commanding him to destroy the world. He is struggling and shouting profanity. His vital signs are within expected values for his agitated state. Which intervention would be most appropriate for this patient?
Administer lorazepam 2 mg IM before moving him to the cot
