EMT225 Flashcards
The ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus, and foramen ovale are structures unique to:
Fetal circulation
A normal reaction to a finger gently stroking the sole of a newborn’s foot is:
Toes spread outward and upward
At birth, the only hard bones in the infant’s body are in the:
Fingers
An infant usually begins to track objects and recognize familiar faces by:
2 months
Capillary beds become better developed during the toddler/preschool years, resulting in:
Better thermoregulation
A parent who lets her son ride his bike without a helmet and wherever he likes would expect what traits in her child?
Self-centeredness
Firstborn children tend to:
Be treated more strictly than younger siblings
Preschool children who watch violent TV programs are prone to:
Model the behavior
Children begin to develop a self-concept and self-esteem during:
School-age years
During the school-age years, the control of a child’s behavior begins to become centered around:
Internal control and justification of choices
A person’s physical peak is achieved during:
Early adulthood
“Terminal drop” refers to the hypothesis that in later years:
A decline in intelligence is caused by a perception of impending death
A newly fertilized ovum is called a:
Zygote
Oxygenated blood is delivered to the fetus via:
One umbilical vein
During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, the developing ovum is known as a(n):
Embryo
The term for a first-time pregnant patient is:
Primigravida
A pregnant patient can’t remember how many weeks she is into her pregnancy. On exam, you feel the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus, leading you to conclude that she has been pregnant for:
20 weeks
The best position in which to transport a pregnant patient with no traumatic injuries is:
Left lateral recumbent
The leading cause of maternal injury is:
Motor vehicle crashes
If a pregnant woman loses 30% of her blood volume, you would expect the mother:
May show minimal changes, but the fetus will be distressed
The best position in which to transport a pregnant trauma patient with possible spinal injury is with cervical spine immobilization and a long backboard:
Tilted to the left
Your pt is a 17 y/o at 36 weeks’ gestation. She complains of a headache, dizziness, states her doctor is upset with her for gaining too much weight. Her hands are puffy and her rings are cutting into her flesh. Vitals are BP 174/104, P 84, R 20. You suspect she has:
Preeclampsia
The classic presentation of preeclampsia are what? (3)
Hypertension
Excessive weight gain
Proteinuria
The patients most likely to experience this condition are:
First-time mothers
If this patient developed seizures or coma, the condition would be called:
Eclampsia
If the patient begins to seize, medical direction may order administration of:
Magnesium sulfate
Termination of a pregnancy by any cause prior to 20 weeks’ gestation is termed:
Abortion
The most common cause of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is:
Abortion
Painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is most likely related to:
Placenta previa
Stage II labor ends when the:
Baby is delivered
The term for infants in the first few hours of life is:
Newborn
A child younger than 28 days is:
Neonate
A child 28 days to 1 year of age is:
Infant
A full-term newborn normally weighs:
7 to 8 pounds
Fetal circulation typically closes when?
Within the first year of life
When does the posterior fontanelle close? Anterior fontanelle?
Posterior = 3 months Anterior = up to 18 months
A reflex where the toes spread outward and upward when the examiner strokes the sole of the foot is ___.
Babinski reflex
A reflex where the infant stretches the arms and legs, spreads the fingers, and hugs self in response to a loud noise is ___.
Moro reflex
The reflex of an infant to grasp an object put in the infant’s palm is ___.
Palmar grasp
The infant’s turning of it’s head toward stimulation, and puckering of the mouth in response to stimulation near the lips is ___.
Rooting reflex
Sunken fontanelles may indicate ___.
Dehydration
The immunity babies have at birth that is inherited from the mother is called ___.
Passive immunity (natural immunity)
Passive immunity lasts how long after birth?
6 months
The most critical stage of crisis in the development of a child occurs when? What is it?
Infancy (up to 1.5 years old)
It is the trust vs mistrust stage
A person’s style of behavior is known as ___.
Temperament
What are the 3 general types of temperament?
Easy children
Difficult children
Slow-to-warm-up children
A child’s temperament and the responses this temperament elicits from adults is known as ___.
Reciprocal socialization
Separation anxiety occurs around what age of development?
9 months
A child of 1 to 3 years is known as ___.
Toddler
A child of 3 to 5 years of age is known as ___.
Preschooler
By age 2, the brain weight is about ___ that of the adult brain.
90%
By what age have children developed unique personality traits and moods, as well as likes/dislikes?
2
The use of abdominal muscles to breathe continues until about ___.
Age 7
The Babinski reflex in an older child or adult can indicate ___.
Damage to the spinal cord
Children 6 to 12 years are considered ___.
School age
About 95% of the skull’s growth is complete by ___.
Age 10
The stage at which the reproductive system becomes active is known as ___.
Puberty
Age of puberty for boys? Girls?
Boys = 13 to 15 Girls = 8 to 13
An individual 13 to 19 years old is a(n):
Adolescent
During what stage do people reach reproductive maturity?
Adolescence
A first menstruation in girls is known as ___.
Menarche
Leading cause of death in adolescents?
Motor vehicle crashes
The period spanning from 20 to 40 years old is known as ___.
Early adulthood
The period spanning from 41 to 60 years old is known as ___.
Middle adulthood
At what ages do women go through menopause?
45 to 55
The age at which late adulthood is reached is ___.
61 years
The theoretical maximum life span for human beings is ___.
120 years
According to the terminal drop theory, what factor indicates the length of a person’s life?
IQ
What is an antepartum risk factor that may affect the need for neotnatal resuscitation?
Mother younger than 16 or older than 35
When using a bulb syringe to suction an infant just delivered, what would you suction first?
Mouth
A fissure in the roof of the mouth that runs along its midline is:
Cleft palate
Which type of seizure is not usually seen in the neonatal age group?
Febrile
Hypothermia has what effect on a newborn?
Bradycardia
Correct positioning of a newborn includes:
Placing the head in the neutral position
Options for tactile stimulation of an infant include:
Flicking the soles of the feet
After assisting with delivery, you dry, suction, and stimulate the newborn. He is still not breathing. You should:
Begin positive-pressure ventilation
A neonate’s heart rate is 50 after 1 minute of positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions. You should initiate:
Epinephrine
The preferred technique for neonatal CPR is:
The use of two thumbs, with the hands encircling the chest
At the 1-minute evaluation, a neonate’s APGAR score is 5, indicating:
The administration of oxygen and stimulation are needed
If BVM ventilations are ineffective in a newborn and tracheal intubation has failed, you should consider:
LMA insertion
Which of the following is the initial step in neonatal resuscitation?
Prevent heat loss
The presence of meconium in amniotic fluid indicates:
Fetal distress
You intubate a neonate who has meconium-stained amniotic fluid and perform suction through the tube. Thick meconium is noted in the tube. You should:
Intubate and suction again
You are treating an apneic neonate with a heart rate of 110. Her mother is an opium addict. If apnea persists, you should administer:
D5 drip
The ventilation to compression ratio for a newborn is:
1:3
While suctioning a neonate, you should watch for:
Bradycardia
Which of the following is considered normal after the delivery of a newborn?
Acrocyanosis
You have just delivered a newborn at 38 weeks of gestational age. As you assess this patient, you discover a scaphoid abdomen and unusual sounds in the left lower chest. The neonate is exhibiting mild respiratory distress. Based on this presentation, you suspect:
Diaphragmatic hernia
The initial intervention in a neonate with bradycardia is to:
Position the head and neck
The single most common cause of respiratory distress and cyanosis in a newborn is:
Prematurity
The correct dose of fluids for treating hypovolemia in a neonate is:
10 mL/kg over 5 min, then reassess
Seizures present in the newborn that involve eye deviation, paddling movements of the legs, and sucking are called:
Subtle
Fever of 101 F in a newborn:
Requires evaluation by a physician
Status epilepticus in a newborn is generally treated with:
Benzodiazepines
Feverish infants generally do not exhibit:
Visible sweat on their bodies
A blood glucose level in an infant of 35 mg/dL indicates:
Low blood glucose
Symptoms that are associated with hypoglycemia in the newborn include:
Twitching and a high-pitched cry
Newly fertilized ovum is called what?
Zygote
Trophoblast cells continue to develop after fertilization and become ___.
The placenta
Blastocyst cells continue to develop after fertilization and become ___.
The embryo
After fertilization, cells differentiate into inner layer (___) and outer layer (___).
Inner = blastocyst Outer = trophoblast
Five functions of the placenta?
Transfer of gases (O2 and CO2) Transport of nutrients Excretion of wastes Hormone production Formation of a barrier (from harmful substances in maternal circulation)
The umbilical cord connects what two structures?
The umbilicus and the placenta
Fetal circulation is comprised of what?
Two umbilical arteries
One umbilical vein
Umbilical arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Deoxygenated
Umbilical vein carries oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Oxygenated
What two structures allow blood to bypass the embryo’s lungs?
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus
The ductus venosus allows what?
Blood to empty directly into the inferior vena cava
Amniotic fluid at 15 weeks? Birth?
15 weeks = 175-225 mL
Birth = 1L
The developing embryo during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy is called an ____.
Embryo
After 8 weeks and until birth, the developing embryo is called ___.
Fetus
The period during which the fetus grows and develops within the uterus is known as ___.
Gestation
The calculated delivery date is also known as ___.
the estimated date of confinement
GTPAL stands for?
Gravida Term Preterm Abortions Living
The number of times a woman has been pregnant is called ___.
Gravida
The number of term deliveries is known as ___.
Term
The number of preterm deliveries is known as ___.
Preterm
The number of spontaneous or induced abortions is known as ___.
Abortions
The number of infants born after 20 weeks’ gestation is known as ____.
Para
What is multipara? Nullipara?
Multipara = a woman who has had two or more deliveries Nullipara = a woman who has never delivered a child
The maternal period after delivery is known as ____.
Postpartum
A woman who is pregnant for the first time is called ___.
Primigravida
The maternal period before delivery is known as ___.
Antepartum
Softening and bluish discoloration of the cervix is known as ___.
Chadwick’s sign
Morning sickness usually occurs when?
Between the sixth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy
Cardiac output generally increases by ___ by the 34th week of pregnancy.
30%
Pulse rate may increase ___ late in the third trimester.
15-20 beats/min above baseline
Total blood volume increases by ___ during pregnancy.
30%
Fetal heart sounds can be auscultated beginning at ___.
12 weeks’ gestation
Normal fetal heart rate?
120 to 160 beats/min
Leading cause of maternal injury?
Vehicular crashes
Oxygen demands are ___ than in the nonpregnant patient.
10-20% greater
Best position to transport a pregnant patient?
Left lateral recumbent
Position of chest compressions on a pregnant patient?
Higher on the sternum
A condition sometimes called “severe morning sickness,” characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte disturbance is ___.
Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
HG symptoms begin when?
2-5 weeks gestation
Rh sensitization can occur between the mother and baby when?
When the mother has Rh-negative blood and the baby has Rh-positive blood
A new blood pressure reading of 140/90 or higher that occurs during pregnancy is known as ___.
Gestational hyptertension
Gestational hypertension with proteinuria is called ___.
Preeclampsia
Risk factors for preeclampsia?
Advanced maternal age Chronic hypertension Chronic renal disease Vascular diseases Multiple gestation
The occurrence of seizures in a patient with other signs of preeclampsia is known as ___.
Eclampsia
Diabetes caused by pregnancy is called ___.
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)
GDM can result in what?
Very large babies
What is TORCH?
Acronym to help remember infections that may occur during pregnancy
TORCH stands for?
Toxoplasmosis Other infections Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus
Can TORCH infections be passed to the womb?
Yes
The nontherapeutic termination of pregnancy from any cause before 20 weeks’ gestation is called ___.
Spontaneous abortion
Bleeding: a soaked sanitary pad indicates how much blood loss?
20-30 mL
A fertilized ovum implanting anywhere other than the uterus is known as ___.
Ectopic pregnancy
The leading cause of first trimester death is ___.
Ectopic pregnancy
When do most ruptures from ectopic pregnancy occur?
2-12 weeks’ gestation
What are the triad of symptoms for ectopic pregnancy?
1—Abdominal pain
2—Vaginal bleeding
3—Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation)
The partial or full detachment of a normally implanted placenta at more than 20 weeks’ gestation is called ___.
Abruptio placentae
Placental implantation in the lower uterine segment partially or completely covering the cervical opening is called ___.
Placenta previa
Difference in presentation between abruptio and previa?
Abruptio = painful bleeding Previa = painless bleeding
Spontaneous or traumatic rupture of the uterine wall is known as ___.
Uterine rupture
Sudden abdominal pain described as steady or “tearing,” active labor, early signs of shock can indicate?
Uterine rupture
What is parturition?
The process by which the infant is born
When does the first stage of labor begin and end?
Begins with contractions
Ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm
When does the second stage of labor begin and end?
Begins with full dilation of cervix
Ends with the delivery of the infant
When does the third stage of labor begin and end?
Begins with delivery of the infant
Ends when the placenta is expelled
Contraction length and spacing that indicates imminent delivery?
Contractions lasting 45-60 seconds
1-2 minute intervals
What other signs indicate imminent delivery?
Mother has urge to bear down/defecate
Large bloody show
Crowning
Mother believes delivery is imminent
When to assess APGAR score?
1 minute and 5 minutes
Apgar score of 10 indicates? 7-9? 4-6? 0-3?
10 = best possible condition 7-9 = infant is slightly depressed (near normal) 4-6 = infant is moderately depressed 0-3 = infant is severely depressed
At 1 minute, apgar score of less than 6 means?
Infant likely requires resuscitation
Apgar stands for?
Appearance Pulse Grimace Activity Respirations
Postpartum hemorrhage is characterized by what?
More than 500 mL loss of blood after delivery
Postpartum hemorrhage can be delayed up to ___.
24 hours
What is uterine atony?
Lack of uterine tone
How do we encourage uterine contraction to minimize risk of postpartum hemorrhage?
Massage the uterus
Encourage infant to breastfeed
Administer oxytocin
A condition in which the newborn’s head is too large or the mother’s birth canal too small to allow for normal delivery is called ___.
Cephalopelvic disproportion
A presentation in which the head is delivered last is called ___.
Breech presentation
Buttock presentation is known as ___ or ___.
Frank breech or complete breech
Limb presentation is known as ___.
Incomplete breech
A presentation in which the fetal shoulders are wedged against the maternal symphysis pubis and blocks shoulder delivery is called ___.
Shoulder dystocia
Shoulder dystocia sign?
Turtle sign (when head presents but is then pulled back into vagina)
Presentation that occurs when the cord slips down into or out of the vagina is ___.
Cord presentation
A premature infant is an infant born before ___ weeks’ gestation.
37
A rapid spontaneous delivery with less than 3 hours from onset to labor to birth is called ___.
Precipitous delivery
An infrequent complication of childbirth where the uterus turns “inside out” is called ___.
Uterine inversion
Fraternal twins result from…
Fertilization of two ova by two sperm
Each fraternal twin has a separate placenta
Identical twins result from…
The fertilization of a single ovum
May have separate placentae or share one
What is chorioamnionitis?
Infection of fetal membranes
The average term newborn weighs ___.
7.5 lb
Defects that occur during fetal development are called ___.
Congenital anomalies
A bony or membranous occlusion that blocks the passageway between the nose and the pharynx is called ___.
Choanal atresia
A congenital disorder that is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea is called ___.
Tracheoesophageal fistula
What is esophageal atresia?
The incomplete formation of the esohagus
