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EMT225 > EMT225 > Flashcards

EMT225 Flashcards

1
Q

The ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus, and foramen ovale are structures unique to:

A

Fetal circulation

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2
Q

A normal reaction to a finger gently stroking the sole of a newborn’s foot is:

A

Toes spread outward and upward

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3
Q

At birth, the only hard bones in the infant’s body are in the:

A

Fingers

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4
Q

An infant usually begins to track objects and recognize familiar faces by:

A

2 months

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5
Q

Capillary beds become better developed during the toddler/preschool years, resulting in:

A

Better thermoregulation

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6
Q

A parent who lets her son ride his bike without a helmet and wherever he likes would expect what traits in her child?

A

Self-centeredness

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7
Q

Firstborn children tend to:

A

Be treated more strictly than younger siblings

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8
Q

Preschool children who watch violent TV programs are prone to:

A

Model the behavior

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9
Q

Children begin to develop a self-concept and self-esteem during:

A

School-age years

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10
Q

During the school-age years, the control of a child’s behavior begins to become centered around:

A

Internal control and justification of choices

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11
Q

A person’s physical peak is achieved during:

A

Early adulthood

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12
Q

“Terminal drop” refers to the hypothesis that in later years:

A

A decline in intelligence is caused by a perception of impending death

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13
Q

A newly fertilized ovum is called a:

A

Zygote

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14
Q

Oxygenated blood is delivered to the fetus via:

A

One umbilical vein

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15
Q

During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, the developing ovum is known as a(n):

A

Embryo

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16
Q

The term for a first-time pregnant patient is:

A

Primigravida

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17
Q

A pregnant patient can’t remember how many weeks she is into her pregnancy. On exam, you feel the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus, leading you to conclude that she has been pregnant for:

A

20 weeks

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18
Q

The best position in which to transport a pregnant patient with no traumatic injuries is:

A

Left lateral recumbent

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19
Q

The leading cause of maternal injury is:

A

Motor vehicle crashes

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20
Q

If a pregnant woman loses 30% of her blood volume, you would expect the mother:

A

May show minimal changes, but the fetus will be distressed

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21
Q

The best position in which to transport a pregnant trauma patient with possible spinal injury is with cervical spine immobilization and a long backboard:

A

Tilted to the left

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22
Q

Your pt is a 17 y/o at 36 weeks’ gestation. She complains of a headache, dizziness, states her doctor is upset with her for gaining too much weight. Her hands are puffy and her rings are cutting into her flesh. Vitals are BP 174/104, P 84, R 20. You suspect she has:

A

Preeclampsia

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23
Q

The classic presentation of preeclampsia are what? (3)

A

Hypertension
Excessive weight gain
Proteinuria

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24
Q

The patients most likely to experience this condition are:

A

First-time mothers

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25
Q

If this patient developed seizures or coma, the condition would be called:

A

Eclampsia

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26
Q

If the patient begins to seize, medical direction may order administration of:

A

Magnesium sulfate

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27
Q

Termination of a pregnancy by any cause prior to 20 weeks’ gestation is termed:

A

Abortion

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28
Q

The most common cause of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is:

A

Abortion

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29
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is most likely related to:

A

Placenta previa

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30
Q

Stage II labor ends when the:

A

Baby is delivered

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31
Q

The term for infants in the first few hours of life is:

A

Newborn

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32
Q

A child younger than 28 days is:

A

Neonate

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33
Q

A child 28 days to 1 year of age is:

A

Infant

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34
Q

A full-term newborn normally weighs:

A

7 to 8 pounds

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35
Q

Fetal circulation typically closes when?

A

Within the first year of life

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36
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close? Anterior fontanelle?

A 
Posterior = 3 months
Anterior = up to 18 months
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37
Q

A reflex where the toes spread outward and upward when the examiner strokes the sole of the foot is ___.

A

Babinski reflex

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38
Q

A reflex where the infant stretches the arms and legs, spreads the fingers, and hugs self in response to a loud noise is ___.

A

Moro reflex

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39
Q

The reflex of an infant to grasp an object put in the infant’s palm is ___.

A

Palmar grasp

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40
Q

The infant’s turning of it’s head toward stimulation, and puckering of the mouth in response to stimulation near the lips is ___.

A

Rooting reflex

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41
Q

Sunken fontanelles may indicate ___.

A

Dehydration

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42
Q

The immunity babies have at birth that is inherited from the mother is called ___.

A

Passive immunity (natural immunity)

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43
Q

Passive immunity lasts how long after birth?

A

6 months

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44
Q

The most critical stage of crisis in the development of a child occurs when? What is it?

A

Infancy (up to 1.5 years old)

It is the trust vs mistrust stage

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45
Q

A person’s style of behavior is known as ___.

A

Temperament

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46
Q

What are the 3 general types of temperament?

A

Easy children
Difficult children
Slow-to-warm-up children

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47
Q

A child’s temperament and the responses this temperament elicits from adults is known as ___.

A

Reciprocal socialization

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48
Q

Separation anxiety occurs around what age of development?

A

9 months

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49
Q

A child of 1 to 3 years is known as ___.

A

Toddler

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50
Q

A child of 3 to 5 years of age is known as ___.

A

Preschooler

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51
Q

By age 2, the brain weight is about ___ that of the adult brain.

A

90%

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52
Q

By what age have children developed unique personality traits and moods, as well as likes/dislikes?

A

2

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53
Q

The use of abdominal muscles to breathe continues until about ___.

A

Age 7

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54
Q

The Babinski reflex in an older child or adult can indicate ___.

A

Damage to the spinal cord

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55
Q

Children 6 to 12 years are considered ___.

A

School age

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56
Q

About 95% of the skull’s growth is complete by ___.

A

Age 10

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57
Q

The stage at which the reproductive system becomes active is known as ___.

A

Puberty

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58
Q

Age of puberty for boys? Girls?

A 
Boys = 13 to 15
Girls = 8 to 13
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59
Q

An individual 13 to 19 years old is a(n):

A

Adolescent

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60
Q

During what stage do people reach reproductive maturity?

A

Adolescence

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61
Q

A first menstruation in girls is known as ___.

A

Menarche

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62
Q

Leading cause of death in adolescents?

A

Motor vehicle crashes

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63
Q

The period spanning from 20 to 40 years old is known as ___.

A

Early adulthood

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64
Q

The period spanning from 41 to 60 years old is known as ___.

A

Middle adulthood

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65
Q

At what ages do women go through menopause?

A

45 to 55

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66
Q

The age at which late adulthood is reached is ___.

A

61 years

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67
Q

The theoretical maximum life span for human beings is ___.

A

120 years

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68
Q

According to the terminal drop theory, what factor indicates the length of a person’s life?

A

IQ

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69
Q

What is an antepartum risk factor that may affect the need for neotnatal resuscitation?

A

Mother younger than 16 or older than 35

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70
Q

When using a bulb syringe to suction an infant just delivered, what would you suction first?

A

Mouth

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71
Q

A fissure in the roof of the mouth that runs along its midline is:

A

Cleft palate

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72
Q

Which type of seizure is not usually seen in the neonatal age group?

A

Febrile

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73
Q

Hypothermia has what effect on a newborn?

A

Bradycardia

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74
Q

Correct positioning of a newborn includes:

A

Placing the head in the neutral position

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75
Q

Options for tactile stimulation of an infant include:

A

Flicking the soles of the feet

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76
Q

After assisting with delivery, you dry, suction, and stimulate the newborn. He is still not breathing. You should:

A

Begin positive-pressure ventilation

77
Q

A neonate’s heart rate is 50 after 1 minute of positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions. You should initiate:

A

Epinephrine

78
Q

The preferred technique for neonatal CPR is:

A

The use of two thumbs, with the hands encircling the chest

79
Q

At the 1-minute evaluation, a neonate’s APGAR score is 5, indicating:

A

The administration of oxygen and stimulation are needed

80
Q

If BVM ventilations are ineffective in a newborn and tracheal intubation has failed, you should consider:

A

LMA insertion

81
Q

Which of the following is the initial step in neonatal resuscitation?

A

Prevent heat loss

82
Q

The presence of meconium in amniotic fluid indicates:

A

Fetal distress

83
Q

You intubate a neonate who has meconium-stained amniotic fluid and perform suction through the tube. Thick meconium is noted in the tube. You should:

A

Intubate and suction again

84
Q

You are treating an apneic neonate with a heart rate of 110. Her mother is an opium addict. If apnea persists, you should administer:

A

D5 drip

85
Q

The ventilation to compression ratio for a newborn is:

A

1:3

86
Q

While suctioning a neonate, you should watch for:

A

Bradycardia

87
Q

Which of the following is considered normal after the delivery of a newborn?

A

Acrocyanosis

88
Q

You have just delivered a newborn at 38 weeks of gestational age. As you assess this patient, you discover a scaphoid abdomen and unusual sounds in the left lower chest. The neonate is exhibiting mild respiratory distress. Based on this presentation, you suspect:

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

89
Q

The initial intervention in a neonate with bradycardia is to:

A

Position the head and neck

90
Q

The single most common cause of respiratory distress and cyanosis in a newborn is:

A

Prematurity

91
Q

The correct dose of fluids for treating hypovolemia in a neonate is:

A

10 mL/kg over 5 min, then reassess

92
Q

Seizures present in the newborn that involve eye deviation, paddling movements of the legs, and sucking are called:

A

Subtle

93
Q

Fever of 101 F in a newborn:

A

Requires evaluation by a physician

94
Q

Status epilepticus in a newborn is generally treated with:

A

Benzodiazepines

95
Q

Feverish infants generally do not exhibit:

A

Visible sweat on their bodies

96
Q

A blood glucose level in an infant of 35 mg/dL indicates:

A

Low blood glucose

97
Q

Symptoms that are associated with hypoglycemia in the newborn include:

A

Twitching and a high-pitched cry

98
Q

Newly fertilized ovum is called what?

A

Zygote

99
Q

Trophoblast cells continue to develop after fertilization and become ___.

A

The placenta

100
Q

Blastocyst cells continue to develop after fertilization and become ___.

A

The embryo

101
Q

After fertilization, cells differentiate into inner layer (___) and outer layer (___).

A 
Inner = blastocyst
Outer = trophoblast
102
Q

Five functions of the placenta?

A 
Transfer of gases (O2 and CO2)
Transport of nutrients
Excretion of wastes
Hormone production
Formation of a barrier (from harmful substances in maternal circulation)
103
Q

The umbilical cord connects what two structures?

A

The umbilicus and the placenta

104
Q

Fetal circulation is comprised of what?

A

Two umbilical arteries

One umbilical vein

105
Q

Umbilical arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Deoxygenated

106
Q

Umbilical vein carries oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Oxygenated

107
Q

What two structures allow blood to bypass the embryo’s lungs?

A

Foramen ovale

Ductus arteriosus

108
Q

The ductus venosus allows what?

A

Blood to empty directly into the inferior vena cava

109
Q

Amniotic fluid at 15 weeks? Birth?

A

15 weeks = 175-225 mL

Birth = 1L

110
Q

The developing embryo during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy is called an ____.

A

Embryo

111
Q

After 8 weeks and until birth, the developing embryo is called ___.

A

Fetus

112
Q

The period during which the fetus grows and develops within the uterus is known as ___.

A

Gestation

113
Q

The calculated delivery date is also known as ___.

A

the estimated date of confinement

114
Q

GTPAL stands for?

A 
Gravida
Term
Preterm
Abortions
Living
115
Q

The number of times a woman has been pregnant is called ___.

A

Gravida

116
Q

The number of term deliveries is known as ___.

A

Term

117
Q

The number of preterm deliveries is known as ___.

A

Preterm

118
Q

The number of spontaneous or induced abortions is known as ___.

A

Abortions

119
Q

The number of infants born after 20 weeks’ gestation is known as ____.

A

Para

120
Q

What is multipara? Nullipara?

A 
Multipara = a woman who has had two or more deliveries
Nullipara = a woman who has never delivered a child
121
Q

The maternal period after delivery is known as ____.

A

Postpartum

122
Q

A woman who is pregnant for the first time is called ___.

A

Primigravida

123
Q

The maternal period before delivery is known as ___.

A

Antepartum

124
Q

Softening and bluish discoloration of the cervix is known as ___.

A

Chadwick’s sign

125
Q

Morning sickness usually occurs when?

A

Between the sixth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy

126
Q

Cardiac output generally increases by ___ by the 34th week of pregnancy.

A

30%

127
Q

Pulse rate may increase ___ late in the third trimester.

A

15-20 beats/min above baseline

128
Q

Total blood volume increases by ___ during pregnancy.

A

30%

129
Q

Fetal heart sounds can be auscultated beginning at ___.

A

12 weeks’ gestation

130
Q

Normal fetal heart rate?

A

120 to 160 beats/min

131
Q

Leading cause of maternal injury?

A

Vehicular crashes

132
Q

Oxygen demands are ___ than in the nonpregnant patient.

A

10-20% greater

133
Q

Best position to transport a pregnant patient?

A

Left lateral recumbent

134
Q

Position of chest compressions on a pregnant patient?

A

Higher on the sternum

135
Q

A condition sometimes called “severe morning sickness,” characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte disturbance is ___.

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

136
Q

HG symptoms begin when?

A

2-5 weeks gestation

137
Q

Rh sensitization can occur between the mother and baby when?

A

When the mother has Rh-negative blood and the baby has Rh-positive blood

138
Q

A new blood pressure reading of 140/90 or higher that occurs during pregnancy is known as ___.

A

Gestational hyptertension

139
Q

Gestational hypertension with proteinuria is called ___.

A

Preeclampsia

140
Q

Risk factors for preeclampsia?

A 
Advanced maternal age
Chronic hypertension
Chronic renal disease
Vascular diseases
Multiple gestation
141
Q

The occurrence of seizures in a patient with other signs of preeclampsia is known as ___.

A

Eclampsia

142
Q

Diabetes caused by pregnancy is called ___.

A

Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)

143
Q

GDM can result in what?

A

Very large babies

144
Q

What is TORCH?

A

Acronym to help remember infections that may occur during pregnancy

145
Q

TORCH stands for?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other infections
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus 
Herpes simplex virus
146
Q

Can TORCH infections be passed to the womb?

A

Yes

147
Q

The nontherapeutic termination of pregnancy from any cause before 20 weeks’ gestation is called ___.

A

Spontaneous abortion

148
Q

Bleeding: a soaked sanitary pad indicates how much blood loss?

A

20-30 mL

149
Q

A fertilized ovum implanting anywhere other than the uterus is known as ___.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

150
Q

The leading cause of first trimester death is ___.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

151
Q

When do most ruptures from ectopic pregnancy occur?

A

2-12 weeks’ gestation

152
Q

What are the triad of symptoms for ectopic pregnancy?

A

1—Abdominal pain
2—Vaginal bleeding
3—Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation)

153
Q

The partial or full detachment of a normally implanted placenta at more than 20 weeks’ gestation is called ___.

A

Abruptio placentae

154
Q

Placental implantation in the lower uterine segment partially or completely covering the cervical opening is called ___.

A

Placenta previa

155
Q

Difference in presentation between abruptio and previa?

A 
Abruptio  = painful bleeding
Previa = painless bleeding
156
Q

Spontaneous or traumatic rupture of the uterine wall is known as ___.

A

Uterine rupture

157
Q

Sudden abdominal pain described as steady or “tearing,” active labor, early signs of shock can indicate?

A

Uterine rupture

158
Q

What is parturition?

A

The process by which the infant is born

159
Q

When does the first stage of labor begin and end?

A

Begins with contractions

Ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm

160
Q

When does the second stage of labor begin and end?

A

Begins with full dilation of cervix

Ends with the delivery of the infant

161
Q

When does the third stage of labor begin and end?

A

Begins with delivery of the infant

Ends when the placenta is expelled

162
Q

Contraction length and spacing that indicates imminent delivery?

A

Contractions lasting 45-60 seconds

1-2 minute intervals

163
Q

What other signs indicate imminent delivery?

A

Mother has urge to bear down/defecate
Large bloody show
Crowning
Mother believes delivery is imminent

164
Q

When to assess APGAR score?

A

1 minute and 5 minutes

165
Q

Apgar score of 10 indicates? 7-9? 4-6? 0-3?

A 
10 = best possible condition
7-9 = infant is slightly depressed (near normal)
4-6 = infant is moderately depressed
0-3 = infant is severely depressed
166
Q

At 1 minute, apgar score of less than 6 means?

A

Infant likely requires resuscitation

167
Q

Apgar stands for?

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respirations
168
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage is characterized by what?

A

More than 500 mL loss of blood after delivery

169
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage can be delayed up to ___.

A

24 hours

170
Q

What is uterine atony?

A

Lack of uterine tone

171
Q

How do we encourage uterine contraction to minimize risk of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Massage the uterus
Encourage infant to breastfeed
Administer oxytocin

172
Q

A condition in which the newborn’s head is too large or the mother’s birth canal too small to allow for normal delivery is called ___.

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion

173
Q

A presentation in which the head is delivered last is called ___.

A

Breech presentation

174
Q

Buttock presentation is known as ___ or ___.

A

Frank breech or complete breech

175
Q

Limb presentation is known as ___.

A

Incomplete breech

176
Q

A presentation in which the fetal shoulders are wedged against the maternal symphysis pubis and blocks shoulder delivery is called ___.

A

Shoulder dystocia

177
Q

Shoulder dystocia sign?

A

Turtle sign (when head presents but is then pulled back into vagina)

178
Q

Presentation that occurs when the cord slips down into or out of the vagina is ___.

A

Cord presentation

179
Q

A premature infant is an infant born before ___ weeks’ gestation.

A

37

180
Q

A rapid spontaneous delivery with less than 3 hours from onset to labor to birth is called ___.

A

Precipitous delivery

181
Q

An infrequent complication of childbirth where the uterus turns “inside out” is called ___.

A

Uterine inversion

182
Q

Fraternal twins result from…

A

Fertilization of two ova by two sperm

Each fraternal twin has a separate placenta

183
Q

Identical twins result from…

A

The fertilization of a single ovum

May have separate placentae or share one

184
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

Infection of fetal membranes

185
Q

The average term newborn weighs ___.

A

7.5 lb

186
Q

Defects that occur during fetal development are called ___.

A

Congenital anomalies

187
Q

A bony or membranous occlusion that blocks the passageway between the nose and the pharynx is called ___.

A

Choanal atresia

188
Q

A congenital disorder that is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea is called ___.

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

189
Q

What is esophageal atresia?

A

The incomplete formation of the esohagus

EMT225 (1 decks)

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