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EMT205 > EMT205 > Flashcards

EMT205 Flashcards

1
Q

Tetrahydrocannabinols are what class drug?

A

Schedule I

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2
Q

Morphine is what class drug?

A

Schedule II

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3
Q

Agency that regulates biological products?

A

Public Health Service

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4
Q

Agency that suppresses false or misleading advertising?

A

FTC

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5
Q

Science of dispensing drugs called…?

A

Pharmaceutics

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6
Q

Study of how a body handles a drug over a period of time?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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7
Q

NAVEL stands for…?

A

Naloxone, Atropine, Vasopressin, Epinephrine, Lidocaine

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8
Q

What compounds absorbed through skin?

A

Lipid-soluble compounds

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9
Q

Drugs distributed first where…?

A

Organs that have rich blood supply (e.g. heart, liver, kidneys, brain)

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10
Q

2 processes that create drug reservoirs are called what?

A

Plasma protein binding and Tissue binding

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11
Q

Albumin does what to drugs?

A

Traps it in the bloodstream (albumin molecule attaches to drugs, but is too large to pass through cell membrane)

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12
Q

“Free drug” is what?

A

The portion of the drug not bound to albumin, and that is thus biologically active

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13
Q

What happens as free drugs are eliminated?

A

Drug-protein complex dissociates, and releases more drug into the bloodstream to replace free drug

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14
Q

Type of drug with affinity for adipose tissue?

A

Lipid-soluble

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15
Q

Blood-brain barrier allows only what type of drug through cell membrane?

A

Lipid-soluble

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16
Q

Placental barrier allows what type of drug to pass?

A

Certain non-lipid-soluble drugs

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17
Q

Process by which drugs are chemically converted to metabolites is called what?

A

Biotransformation (metabolism)

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18
Q

First-pass metabolism is what?

A

Occurs when orally administered drugs travel to the liver and are partially metabolized before entering circulation—reduces amount of drug that enters circulation

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19
Q

Drugs excreted by which organ systems? (5)

A
  1. Kidneys
  2. Intestines
  3. Lungs
  4. Sweat/salivary glands
  5. Mammary glands
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20
Q

Study of how a drug acts on a living organism is called what?

A

Pharmacodynamics

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21
Q

Reactive cellular sites known as…?

A

Receptors

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22
Q

Therapeutic range for most drugs is what?

A

The concentration that 1. provides for the highest probability of response with 2. the least risk of toxicity

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23
Q

Biological half-life is what?

A

The time it takes to metabolize or eliminate 50% of a drug in the body

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24
Q

A drug is considered the be eliminated from the body after ___?

A

After 5 half-lives have passed (~3% of the drug will be left in the body—test question will ask “under 5%”)

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25
Q

Therapeutic index is what?

A

A measure of the relative safety of a drug

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26
Q

Wide TI indicates what? Narrow TI?

A

Wide TI = drug is fairly safe

Narrow TI = drug is fairly dangerous

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27
Q

Two drugs that will crystallize when mixed together?

A
  1. Calcium chloride

2. Sodium bicarbonate

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28
Q

Category ratings for pregnancy patients?

A

Category A (safest), B, C, D, and X (significant fetal risk)

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29
Q

Important difference in infants vs. adults concerning drug distribution?

A

Infants have more total body water (70-75% compared to 50-60% in adults); means that higher dosages (weight-proportionate) of water soluble drugs may be needed to have effective blood levels in an infant

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30
Q

Protein binding - increased or decreased in infants?

A

Reduced -> greater chance of toxicity in an infant

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31
Q

What unit of measurement is used to measure body organs or blood pressure?

A

Centimeters and millimeters

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32
Q

1 gram = ?

A

= the weight of 1 mL of distilled water at 4 degrees C

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33
Q

Primary unit of the apothecary system?

A

Grain

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34
Q

What medications are available in units of the apothecary system? (2)

A

Aspirin and nitroglycerin

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35
Q

Household system: average coffee cup and average teaspoon?

A

Coffee cup = 5-9 oz

Teaspoon = 4-6 mL

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36
Q

Normal body temperature in degrees C and F?

A 
Celsius = 37
Farenheit = 98.6
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37
Q

Conversion formula: temp C to F?

A

Multiply by 9/5 and add 32

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38
Q

Conversion formula: temp F to C?

A

Subtract 32 and multiply by 5/9

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39
Q

Five patient rights?

A
  1. Right patient
  2. Right dose
  3. Right drug
  4. Right route
  5. Right time
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40
Q

Ok to give a med from unlabeled container or one on which label is not legible?

A

Never

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41
Q

Ok to give a med that was prepared by someone else?

A

Never

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42
Q

How long should you monitor a patient for any adverse effects after giving a medication?

A

At least 5 minutes

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43
Q

What is the removal or destruction of disease-causing organisms or infected material called?

A

Medical asepsis

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44
Q

Chemical used only on nonliving objects that are toxic to living tissue?

A

Disinfectants

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45
Q

Chemical used on living tissue that are more dilute and prevent cell damage?

A

Antiseptic

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46
Q

What is the most frequent method of drug administration?

A

Oral

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47
Q

How to check that gastric tube has been inserted correctly?

A

Inject 30-50 mL of air into the tube and auscultate the epigastric region for sounds of air movement

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48
Q

After giving drug via gastric tube, what should you do?

A

Flush the drug with about 30 mL of water

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49
Q

Tuberculin syringes marked in what increments?

A

0.01 mL increments

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50
Q

Insulin syringes marked how?

A

1 unit increments

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51
Q

SubQ injections usually given with what size needle?

A

23- or 25-gauge needle

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52
Q

IM injections usually given with what size needle?

A

19- or 21-gauge needle

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53
Q

What did the year 2000 signify in needle-stick prevention?

A

Congress passed the Healthcare Worker Needlestick Prevention Act, OSHA in 2001 followed up to recommend needleless or “needle safe” devices

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54
Q

Single-dose glass containers that hold one dose of medication for injection are called what?

A

Ampules

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55
Q

Why is filter needle used with ampules?

A

To prevent shards of glass from entering syringe

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56
Q

Glass containers with rubber stoppers are called what?

A

Multidose vials

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57
Q

Why do we inject a volume of air into vial equivalent to amount of solution to be withdrawn?

A

Prevents a vacuum in the vial

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58
Q

Procedure to protect fingers when withdrawing solution from an ampule?

A

Wrap neck of glass ampule with alcohol swab or gauze dressing

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59
Q

Procedure for cleansing an injection site with alcohol swab?

A

Work outward in concentric circles from the site to prevent recontamination

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60
Q

Amount usually injected for intradermal injection?

A

Less than 0.5 mL

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61
Q

Common sites for intradermal injection? (2)

A

Forearm

Back

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62
Q

What to do with skin for intradermal injection? What angle do you go in? Bevel up or down?

A

Hold skin taut
10-15 degree angle
Bevel up

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63
Q

Amount usually injected for subQ injection?

A

Less than 0.5 mL

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64
Q

How to prepare skin for subQ injection?

A

Elevate slightly by gently pinching site

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65
Q

What angle for subQ injection? Bevel up or down?

A

45-degrees

Bevel up

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66
Q

Why do we aspirate after needle placement on subQ injections?

A

To ensure we are not in a blood vessel

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67
Q

After subQ injection, what can we do to help distribute medication?

A

Massage site with alcohol swab

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68
Q

Maximum volume for IM injection?

A

5 mL

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69
Q

Common muscles used for IM injections? (5)

A
  1. Deltoid (shoulder)
  2. Dorsogluteal site (butt)
    3and4. Vastus lateralis and rectus femoris (thigh)
  3. Ventrogluteal (side of hip)
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70
Q

Where in deltoid for IM injection? Avoid what?

A

Inverted triangle with acromion process as base

Radial nerve

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71
Q

Where in dorsogluteal for IM injections? Do not give here for what age range? Avoid what?

A

Divide buttock into quadrants, site is upper outer quadrant in center
Do not give for under 3 years
Want to avoid sciatic nerve

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72
Q

Where for vastus lateralis and rectus femoris for IM injections?

A

One hand on upper thigh, one just above knee, thumbs in—site is between thumbs
Rectus femoris is on anterior thigh, vastus lateralis is on lateral aspect of thigh

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73
Q

IV—which extremities first?

A

Upper, then if unavailable, go to lower

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74
Q

Which type of needle not advised for prehospital care because stabilizing the needle is difficult?

A

Hollow (butterfly)

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75
Q

What type of needle preferred for prehospital care?

A

Over-the-needle catheter

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76
Q

Incidences of embolism higher at which two IV sites?

A

Jugular veins in neck

Long saphenous veins in the leg

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77
Q

If second puncture necessary after first IV, place where?

A

Proximal to first puncture

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78
Q

How to place patient for external jugular IV placement?

A

Supine, head-down, turn pt’s head to opposite side

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79
Q

What angle for IV needle penetration?

A

15-20 degrees

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80
Q

How to know needle placement correct for IV?

A

Penetrate until flash (blood return in hub encountered), continue to advance approx. 2mm further before placing catheter

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81
Q

Local complications for IV include? (5)

A
  1. Hematoma
  2. Thrombosis
  3. Cellulitis
  4. Phlebitis
  5. Sloughing/necrosis
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82
Q

Collection of blood at site of injection is what?

A

Hematoma

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83
Q

Blood clot formed inside a blood vessel is what?

A

Thrombosis

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84
Q

A potentially serious bacterial infection of connective tissue is called what?

A

Cellulitis

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85
Q

Inflammation of a vein is called what?

A

Phlebitis

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86
Q

What causes phlebitis? (2)

A

Catheter too large for vein, or

Catheter has been left in place longer than 48 hours

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87
Q

Why does sloughing or necrosis occur?

A

Infiltration of some IV medicines (d50, sodium bicarb, promethazine)

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88
Q

Separation of tissue called what?

A

Sloughing

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89
Q

Tissue death called what?

A

Necrosis

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90
Q

What are some systemic complications of IV therapy? (3)

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Pulmonary embolism
  3. Catheter fragment embolism
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91
Q

A bacterial infection in the bloodstream is called what?

A

Sepsis

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92
Q

The sudden blocking of an artery in the lung is called what?

A

Pulmonary embolism

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93
Q

Sudden onset of chest pain, shortness of breath, tachycardia and hypotension can indicate what?

A

PE

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94
Q

How does catheter fragment embolism occur?

A

Reinsertion of a needle through catheter during IV insertion

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95
Q

What to do if you suspect catheter shear?

A

IV stopped, vein should be palpated for catheter tip, venous tourniquet should be placed above tip to prevent further movement

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96
Q

Part of the catheter shears off, allowing embolus to travel in bloodstream–called what?

A

Catheter fragment embolism

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97
Q

How to know you’ve punctured an artery during IV placement?

A

Bright red, pulsating blood in catheter hub

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98
Q

Coolness around the skin, swelling at puncture site, and sluggish or absent flow rate can indicate what?

A

Infiltration of an IV site

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99
Q

How to check for infiltration?

A

Fluid reservoir lowered to dependent position, look for blood in tubing (absence of backflow = infiltration)

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100
Q

How much air is needed for air embolism? For a critically injured pt?

A

100 mL

10 mL can be fatal for critically injured pt

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101
Q

When pushing medications through IV port, how long do you push?

A

1 to 3 minutes, slowly

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102
Q

Drugs administered IO should be followed by what?

A

Saline flush of at least 5 mL

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103
Q

Site of choice for IO is where?

A

Tibia, just below tubercle on anteromedial surface

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104
Q

Alternate site for IO for children? Adults?

A 
Children = femur, above lateral condyles in midline
Adults = sternum, just below sternal notch
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105
Q

Contraindications for IO?

A 
Fx at site or proximal to site
Traumatized extremity
Cellulitis
Burns
Congenital bone disease
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106
Q

When using MDI, how long should pt inhale during administration? How long to hold in lungs? Repeat after how long?

A

Inhales over 5 sec
Hold breath for 5-10 sec
Repeat in 5-10 min

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107
Q

Devices that use the Bernoulli principle to create aerosol mist are called what?

A

Handheld nebulizers

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108
Q

When giving drugs via ET route, how much medication?

A

2 to 2.5 times the IV dose

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109
Q

For ET route, dilute to what?

A

Dilute to 10 mL with normal saline

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110
Q

When giving eye drops, administer where?

A

Conjunctival sac of lower lid

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111
Q

Ear medications: remain in ear up position for how long?

A

10 minutes to allow medication to disperse

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112
Q

Blood samples—ideal time to obtain?

A

Once IV line established

Prior to infusing fluids or drugs

113
Q

Face shields are indicated when administering what type of medication?

A

Endotracheal (ET)

114
Q

Port a Cath is an example of what kind of device?

A

Implantable access

115
Q

Asthma medications are usually administered via what kind of device?

A

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

116
Q

Positioning a child for rectal administration how?

A

Lateral recumbent, legs flexed

117
Q

Pneumothorax is common complication of cannulating which vein?

A

Subclavian

118
Q

Proper position of tourniquet should allow what?

A

Allow arterial flow while occluding venous flow

119
Q

Liquid or solid particles of a substance dispersed in a gas or solution and given as medications are called what?

A

Aerosol medications

120
Q

Antiseptics and disinfectants kill what?

A

Specific groups of microorganisms

121
Q

Microdrip set delivers what?

A

60 drops/mL

122
Q

Emergency medication that can be given via gastric tube?

A

Activated charcoal

123
Q

Sterilization is recommended for what?

A

Instruments or devices that penetrate the skin

124
Q

Most common infection resulting from needlestick injury?

A

Hep C

125
Q

What is the process of aspiration?

A

Pulling back on plunger to ensure that needle has not been placed in a blood vessel

126
Q

Purpose of using cleaning techniques in the field?

A

Focus on destroying pathogens

127
Q

Technique for giving medications in less than 1-3 minutes through IV line is called what?

A

Bolus

128
Q

The use of equipment and fields that are free from all forms and types of life is called what?

A

Sterile technique

129
Q

Sixth patient right of medication administration is what?

A

Right documentation

130
Q

Position that promotes gluteal muscle relaxation?

A

Prone, toes pointing inward

131
Q

IM injection, how to hold skin for injection?

A

Hold taut

132
Q

Parenteral medication = document medication, dosage, time, route and what?

A

Site of injection

133
Q

When reconstituting dry powders for injection, what action should you take?

A

Mix dilutent and powder in the closed vial

134
Q

Buccal medications are administered where?

A

Between cheek and gum

135
Q

Site used for central venous cannulation?

A

Subclavian vein

136
Q

Proper way to address infiltration?

A

Discontinue IV and restart in a different location

137
Q

Source of digoxin?

A

Plant source

138
Q

Atropine comes from what plant?

A

Belladonna plant

139
Q

NAVEL drugs?

A 
Naloxone
Atropine
Vasopressin 
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
140
Q

ET drug concentration?

A

2 to 2.5 times IV dose

141
Q

SubQ intended for what administration?

A

Slow and sustained effect

142
Q

Which route of administration is subject to first pass metabolism?

A

Oral

143
Q

A liquid medication that is combined with an alcohol is called what?

A

Elixir

144
Q

Give an example of a hypotonic solution.

A

D5W

145
Q

Which cells are responsible for activation of the inflammatory response?

A

Mast cells

146
Q

Define chronotropic

A

Drugs that affect heart rate

147
Q

Define dromotropic

A

Drugs that affect conduction velocity through the conducting tissues of the heart

148
Q

Define inotropic

A

Drugs that affect the force of cardiac contraction

149
Q

Type of drug that reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitor

150
Q

Name the different classes of antidysrhythmic drugs (class I-IV)

A

Class I: Sodium channel blockers
Class II: Beta blockers
Class III: Potassium channel blockers
Class IV: Calcium channel blockers

151
Q

What effect do sodium channel blockers have on the heart?

A

They work to slow conduction

152
Q

What effect do beta blockers have on the heart?

A

They reduce adrenergic stimulation of the heart

153
Q

What effect do potassium channel blockers have on the heart?

A

They increase the contractility

154
Q

What effect do calcium channel blockers have on the heart?

A

They block inflow of calcium through cell membranes of cardiac/smooth muscle, and decrease contraction and conduction velocity

155
Q

What is the official name of a drug?

A

Drugs listed in an official publication, followed by either USP or NF

156
Q

pH of the small intestine is greater than pH of stomach—what effect will this have on alkaloid drugs?

A

Alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the small intestine than the stomach

157
Q

What effect will diarrhea have on medication primarily absorbed in the small intestine?

A

The medication will have decreased exposure and therefore decreased absorption

158
Q

Fibers that release acetylcholine?

A

Cholinergic

159
Q

Example of a synthetic catecholamine?

A

Levophed

160
Q

Which medication was given as an example of one that prevents coagulation?

A

Warfarin

161
Q

Primatene Mist—nonselective adrenergic respiratory medication—one undesirable side effect?

A

Muscle tremors

162
Q

Side effect from “six hits” off Ventolin inhaler?

A

Muscle tremors

163
Q

Pt taking Mucomyst likely has what condition?

A

COPD

164
Q

Benzodiazepines include what actions on the body?

A

Muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant

165
Q

Norepinephrine will bind to both adrenergic receptor sites, but has an affinity for which?

A

Alpha

166
Q

Barbiturates categorized based on what?

A

Duration of action

167
Q

Benzodiazepines are listed as which category drug?

A

Schedule IV

168
Q

Benadryl has some anticholinergic properties that may produce which effects?

A

Tachycardia, constipation, inhibition of secretions, and sedation

169
Q

Beta-1 receptors located where?

A

Heart

170
Q

Beta-2 receptors located where?

A

Lungs

171
Q

Drugs cross cell membranes by which process?

A

Diffusion

172
Q

Decreased physiological response to the repeated administration of a drug, necessitating an increase in dosage to maintain therapeutic effect is called ___.

A

Tolerance

173
Q

The tendency for repeated doses of a drug to accumulate in the blood and organs, causing increased and sometimes toxic effects is called ___.

A

Cumulative action

174
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, renin-angiotensin system is suppressed and bp is lowered

175
Q

Ischemia vs infarct

A

Ischemia is a state of insufficient perfusion of oxygenated blood to a body organ or part
Unchecked ischemia can lead to infarct (cell death)

176
Q

How do loop diuretics reduce bp in patients?

A

Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, causing excretion of sodium and water to increase

177
Q

Digoxin - mechanism of action?

A

Digoxin increases calcium concentration to the contractile proteins

178
Q

Parasympathomimetic vs parasympatholytic

A
  • mimetic mimics the actions of the parasympathetic NS

- lytic blocks the actions of the parasympathetic NS

179
Q

Sympathomimetic vs sympatholytic

A
  • mimetic mimics the actions of the sympathetic NS

- lytic blocks the actions of the sympathetic NS

180
Q

What actions do these receptors have? Alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2

A

Alpha 1 = vasoconstriction, increased bp
Alpha 2 = inhibit norepinephrine release, vasoconstriction, increase bp
Beta 1 = increased heart rate and contraction
Beta 2 = smooth muscle relaxation in bronchi

181
Q

The propensity of a drug to bind or attach itself to a given receptor site is known as ___.

A

Affinity

182
Q

Contraindications vs special considerations

A

Contraindications are conditions in which it may be harmful to administer the drug
Special considerations are how the drug may affect special groups (peds, pregnant, geriatric populations)

183
Q

Example of a hypertonic solution

A

D50

184
Q

What is an emulsion?

A

Fat or oil suspended in liquid with an emulsifier

185
Q

What is a suspension?

A

Solid particles suspended in liquid (e.g. activated charcoal)

186
Q

Principle cation in ECF?

A

Sodium

187
Q

Define mitochondria

A

“Powerhouse of cell”

Produce 95% of ATP in the cell

188
Q

Define nucleus

A

Control center of the cell

189
Q

Define cytoplasm

A

Fluid inside cells

190
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

Remove damaged organelles or pathogens inside the cells

191
Q

What does the golgi apparatus do?

A

Packages and stores secretory products

Produces lysosomes

192
Q

What has the greatest potential to cause a positive outcome in hypoglycemia?

A

Dextrose

193
Q

What class of drug is adenosine? Indication?

A

Antidysrhythmic

Treats narrow complex

194
Q

Lidocaine is what class of drug?

A

Sodium channel blocker

195
Q

Concentration for Epi

A

1:1000

196
Q

Albuterol sulfate works on what receptors?

A

Beta 2

197
Q

A drug that combines with receptors and initiates the expected response is called ___?

A

Agonist

198
Q

An agent that inhibits or counteracts effects produced by other drugs is called ___?

A

Antagonist

199
Q

The ability of the drug to initiate biological activity as a result of binding to a receptor site is what?

A

Efficacy

200
Q

The combined effect of two drugs such that the total effect equals the sum of individual effects is called what? 1 + 1 = 2

A

Summation

201
Q

The combined effect of two drugs such that the total effect exceeds the sum of the individual drugs is called what? 1 + 1 = 3

A

Synergism

202
Q

What would prevent an administered medication from having the desired effect to altering the binding site?

A

A non-competitive antagonist

203
Q

What is not typically a consideration regarding proper storage of a medication?

A

Pressure

204
Q

Your pt has WPW syndrome and your partner wants to administer 6 mg of adenosine, you suggest this is incorrect why?

A

Adenosine will block the AV node, allowing pt to go into v-fib

205
Q

What affects the degree to which stress will cause or affect the pt’s response to an illness?

A

Pt’s perception of the stressor

206
Q

What should you NOT expect to respond to a laceration you have sustained on your arm?

A

Eosinophils

207
Q

Solutes moving from area of high concentration to area of low concentration is…?

A

Diffusion

208
Q

Potassium ions enter cardiac cells through which process?

A

Osmosis

209
Q

What systemic complication is associated with peripheral IV therapy?

A

Pulmonary embolism

210
Q

What would NOT be a factor in determining whether a pt will develop coronary artery disease?

A

Regular physical activity

211
Q

Atrophy vs hypertrophy

A

Atrophy is weakening/shrinking through lack of use

Hypertrophy is enlargement of the cell

212
Q

Compared to trade-name drugs, generic drugs:

A

Have the same therapeutic efficacy as the trade-name version

213
Q

Act in 1906 that was enacted to protect the public from mislabeled or adulterated drugs?

A

Pure Food and Drug Act

214
Q

Most absorption of drugs in an enteral route occurs in the ___.

A

Small intestine

215
Q

Parental drugs are administered:

A

By injection

216
Q

Lipid-soluble drugs tend to be stored in:

A

Fats

217
Q

Primary organs of drug excretion are:

A

Kidneys

218
Q

Removal or destruction of disease-causing organisms or infected material is known as:

A

Medical asepsis

219
Q

Organ not used for drug excretion?

A

Liver

220
Q

Which does not affect the drug absorption?

A

Temp of medication

221
Q

Children are highly sensitive to drugs why?

A

Immature renal and hepatic systems

222
Q

What two drugs crystallize?

A

Sodium bicarb and calcium chloride

223
Q

A wide TI range indicates what?

A

Drug is fairly safe

224
Q

Fibers that release acetylcholine?

A

Cholinergic

225
Q

Drugs that mimic the action of the parasympathetic system?

A

Parasympathomimetics

226
Q

Example of a synthetic catecholamine?

A

Levophed

227
Q

Toradol is an example of what type of drug?

A

NSAID

228
Q

Pavulon and Norcuron produce transient but total paralysis how?

A

By binding to the nicotinic receptor for ACh at the neuromuscular junction

229
Q

Xanthines act how?

A

Promote diuresis

230
Q

Benadryl has some anticholinergic properties that may produce ___?

A

Tachycardia, constipation, inhibition of secretions, sedation

231
Q

Zantac, Tagamet, and Pepci all work because of antagonistic action at which receptor site?

A

H-2

232
Q

Abuse of laxatives may result in..?

A

Electrolyte imbalance

233
Q

Primary hormone that regulates glucose metabolism?

A

Insulin

234
Q

Retrovir used to treat what?

A

HIV

235
Q

Hormone that stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose?

A

Glucagon

236
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart results in?

A

Slowed rate

237
Q

Lithium used to treat?

A

Manic disorders

238
Q

Albuterol stimulates beta receptors, and results in what effects?

A

Stimulation of the heart (increased rate) and bronchial dilation

239
Q

Emetics do what?

A

Induce vomiting to rid body of the drug

240
Q

Immunosuppresant drugs work by?

A

Suppressing the activity of lymphocytes

241
Q

Site most commonly used to start a peripheral IV?

A

Upper extremity

242
Q

Proper application of a tourniquet should do what?

A

Occlude the vein but not the artery

243
Q

Large lumen needles have ___?

A

Small numbers (12 gauge)

244
Q

Which of the following is a site used for central venous cannulation?

A

Subclavian

245
Q

As the levels of an unbound drug decrease:

A

More drug is released from plasma protein binding

246
Q

When administering a water-soluble drug to a newborn, you can anticipate that:

A

Greater amounts of the drug may be necessary because of the proportionally higher volume of total body water in newborns

247
Q

Two anatomical systems of the nervous system:

A

Central and peripheral nervous system

248
Q

Neurotransmitter at the junction of the sympathetic postganglionic fiber and the effector cell is:

A

Norepinephrine

249
Q

In parasympathetic nervous action, the binding of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors produces:

A

An excitatory response in the effector organ

250
Q

Patient responses to atropine include:

A

Increased heart rate and dilated pupils

251
Q

Benzodiazepines have the following actions:

A

Muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant

252
Q

Barbiturates are divided into four categories based on their:

A

Duration of action

253
Q

Elavil is an example of a what?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

254
Q

MAO inhibitors — examples?

A

Marplan, Nardil, and Parnate

255
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents:

A

Cause complete paralysis

256
Q

Electrolyte deficiency commonly associated with Lasix administration?

A

Potassium

257
Q

Unit of measure most commonly used to measure body organs is the:

A

Centimeter

258
Q

Microdrip administration set delivers:

A

60 drops/mL

259
Q

Class I antidysrhymics are:

A

Sodium channel blockers

260
Q

Class III produce what effect?

A

Increased contractility

261
Q

Diuretics are commonly used with other antihypertensive medications to control bp effectively, resulting in a:

A

Loss of excess salt and water from the body by renal excretion

262
Q

What classification of medication dissolves clots after their formation?

A

Fibrinolytics

263
Q

Byproducts of parasympathetic stimulation?

A

Digestive (“rest and digest”)

264
Q

What drug has THC in it?

A

Marijuana

265
Q

THC is what schedule drug?

A

Schedule I

266
Q

Morphine is what class?

A

Schedule II

267
Q

Activated charcoal is what form? (2)

A

Fine powder or suspension

268
Q

Digoxin = wide or narrow TI?

A

Narrow, dangerous

269
Q

Example of hypotonic solution?

A

D5W

270
Q

Hypertonic solution does what to RBC’s?

A

Shrinks (crenates) them

271
Q

What are proteins that kill microorganisms?

A

Antibodies

272
Q

What is hypercalcemia?

A

Elevated levels of calcium

273
Q

Principle regulator of water retention and distribution?

A

ADH (vasopressin)

274
Q

Your pt has normal heart rate, what medication would you give to lower blood pressure with minimal impact on the heart?

A

ACE inhibitor

275
Q

What is a pH of 7.3?

A

Acidic

276
Q

What is the renal response to metabolic acidosis?

A

Retention of sodium bicarb

277
Q

What moves sodium out of the cell?

A

Sodium potassium pump

278
Q

What is the most common reason for IV?

A

Fluid replacement

279
Q

Where are alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors located?

A

Alpha 1 = postsynaptic position, on effector organ

Alpha 2 = both pre and postsynaptic nerves

EMT205 (1 decks)

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