Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT TEST 1 > EMT TEST 1 > Flashcards

EMT TEST 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

A. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.

B. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.

C. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.

D. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.

A

A. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it:

A. produces actions other than the desired ones.

B. may cause harm or have no positive effect.

C. is used to treat a specific medical condition.

D. is used to treat a multitude of conditions.

A

B. may cause harm or have no positive effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug?

A. ibuprofen

B. furosemide

C. Tylenol

D. nitroglycerin

A

C. Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are brand (trade) names for the generic medication:

A. acetaminophen.

B. nitrostat.

C. ibuprofen.

D. aspiri

A

C. ibuprofen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?

A. sublingually

B. orally

C. inhaled

D. injected

A

A. sublingually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What medication form does oral glucose come in?

A. liquid

B. fine powder

C. Gel

D. suspension

A

C. Gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?

A. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.

C. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine.

D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

A

B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:

A. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

B. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

C. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

D. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

A

B. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient’s legs, but this action has no effect. You should:

A. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding.

B. ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure.

D. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.

A

D. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:

A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

B. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

C. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.

D. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.

A

A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct?

A. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.

B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device.

C. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.

D. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

A

A. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:

A. pulmonary ventilation.

B. cellular metabolism.

C. external respiration.

D. alveolar ventilation.

A

C. external respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:

A. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body’s ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.

B. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body.

C. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.

D. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.

A

C. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:

A. is moved through the lungs in a single minute.

B. is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure.

C. remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation.

D. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.

A

D. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).

A. 1,000

B. 500

C. 2,000

D. 1,500

A

C. 2,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?

A. a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations

B. a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

C. a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

D. a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume

A

C. a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:

A. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

B. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

C. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

D. corner of the mouth to the superior ea

A

B. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:

A. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

B. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.

C. place him in a supine position and open his airway.

D. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him.

A

A. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?

A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.

B. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.

A

C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:

A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

C. assist the patient’s ventilations with a bag-mask device.

D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A

B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

A. restlessness

B. cyanosis

C. tachycardia

D. anxiety

A

B. cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Without adequate oxygen, the body’s cells:

A. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

B. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids.

C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

D. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood.

A

A. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT:

A. applying pressure to the cricoid cartilage.

B. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

C. ensuring the appropriate airway position.

D. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate

A

B. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

B. agonal respirations.

C. eupneic respirations.

D. ataxic respirations.

A

A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?

A. bronchioles

B. lungs

C. larynx

D. esophagus

A

D. esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient’s oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:

A. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.

B. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction.

C. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.

D. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

A

C. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?

A. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

B. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.

C. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases.

D. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.

A

B. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

A. nasal cannula.

B. bag-mask device.

C. nonrebreathing mask.

D. mouth-to-mask device.

A

C. nonrebreathing mask.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

A. adequate amounts of surfactant.

B. pulmonary capillary constriction.

C. surfactant-destroying organisms.

D. water or blood within the alveoli.

A

A. adequate amounts of surfactant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

B. vertical-position flowmeter

C. ball-and-float flowmeter

D. pressure-compensated flowmeter

A

A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called:

A. metabolism.

B. oxygenation.

C. ventilation.

D. respiration.

A

A. metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

A. heart

B. kidneys

C. muscle

D. liver

A

C. muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should:

A. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

C. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing.

D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:

A. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment.

B. assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

C. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

D. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases.

A

C. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:

A. bronchioles.

B. epiglottis.

C. alveoli.

D. trachea.

A

B. epiglottis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume?

A. shallow breathing

B. irregular breathing

C. agonal respirations

D. deep respirations

A

D. deep respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:

A. alveolar sacs.

B. pulmonary capillaries.

C. bronchioles.

D. apex of the lung.

A

A. alveolar sacs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion.

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 3

A

A. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock?

A. bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation

B. viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

C. widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection

D. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

A

D. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Capillary sphincters are:

A. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system.

B. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

C. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion.

D. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs.

A

B. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

A. hypotension

B. dizziness

C. pallor

D. wheezing

A

D. wheezing

42
Q

When perfusion to the core of the body decreases:

A. decreased cardiac contractility occurs.

B. blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract.

C. the voluntary nervous system releases hormones.

D. blood is shunted away from the skin

A

D. blood is shunted away from the skin

43
Q

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:

A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.

B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

C. apply direct pressure to the wound.

D. immediately evaluate his airway.

A

C. apply direct pressure to the wound

44
Q

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes:

A. neurogenic shock.

B. neurologic shock.

C. vasovagal shock.

D. psychogenic shock.

A

D. psychogenic shock.

45
Q

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. rapid, shallow breathing.

B. cool and clammy skin.

C. restlessness or anxiety.

D. absent peripheral pulses.

A

D. absent peripheral pulses.

46
Q

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?

A. a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations

B. a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

C. a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

D. a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia

A

C. a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

47
Q

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:

A. pyruvic acid.

B. lactic acid.

C. carbon monoxide.

D. carbon dioxide.

A

D. carbon dioxide.

48
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct?

A. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.

C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.

D. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.

A

A. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

49
Q

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that:

A. the patient’s respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.

C. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

A

D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

50
Q

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include:

A. restlessness.

B. vasodilation.

C. tachycardia.

D. tachypnea

A

C. tachycardia.

51
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

A. liver laceration

B. severe vomiting

C. excessive sweating

D. repeated diarrhea

A

A. liver laceration

52
Q

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. increased afterload.

B. increased preload.

C. poor contractility.

D. heart attack.

A

B. increased preload

53
Q

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient’s wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient’s present condition is:

A. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

B. acute myocardial infarction.

C. severe septic hypoperfusion.

D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion.

A

D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion.

54
Q

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer 100% oxygen and give him epinephrine via subcutaneous injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:

A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route.

B. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

C. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.

D. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.

A

D. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.

55
Q

All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

A. anaphylaxis.

B. heart attack.

C. severe infection.

D. tachycardia

A

D. tachycardia

56
Q

Shock is the result of:

A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

B. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

C. the body’s maintenance of homeostasis.

D. temporary dysfunction of a major organ.

A

B. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

57
Q

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:

A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

B. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.

C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous.

D. repeat your secondary assessment.

A

A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

58
Q

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days’ duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should:

A. allow him to drink plain water.

B. perform a head-to-toe exam.

C. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes.

D. prepare for immediate transport.

A

D. prepare for immediate transport.

59
Q

Patients develop septic shock secondary to:

A. poor vessel function and severe volume loss.

B. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate.

C. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions.

D. weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.

A

A. poor vessel function and severe volume loss.

60
Q

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:

A. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head.

C. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs.

D. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities.

A

D. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities.

61
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:

A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.

C. provide emotional support regarding her sister.

D. determine if she was injured when she fainted

A

D. determine if she was injured when she fainted

62
Q

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to:

A. follow standard precautions.

B. form a general impression.

C. ask bystanders what happened.

D. call for an ALS ambulance.

A

A. follow standard precautions.

63
Q

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should:

A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

B. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease.

C. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

D. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.

A

A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

64
Q

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient’s chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have?

A. history taking

B. primary assessment

C. general impression

D. secondary assessment

A

A. history taking

65
Q

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:

A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

C. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.

D. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.

A

B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

66
Q

The diastolic pressure represents the:

A. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.

B. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle.

C. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

D. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

A

D. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

67
Q

The goal of the primary assessment is to:

A. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

B. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.

C. determine if the patient’s problem is medical or trauma.

D. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.

A

A. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

68
Q

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:

A. become larger.

B. dilate.

C. become smaller.

D. not react.

A

C. become smaller.

69
Q

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:

A. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

B. apply a cardiac monitor and observe her cardiac rhythm.

C. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

A

D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

70
Q

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should:

A. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.

B. perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport.

C. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.

D. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.

A

B. perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport.

71
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?

A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.

B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.

C. The exact location of a patient’s injuries can be determined by the MOI.

D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.

A

B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.

72
Q

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:

A. pulse pressure.

B. systolic pressure.

C. blood pressure.

D. diastolic pressure.

A

B. systolic pressure

73
Q

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?

A. head tilt-chin lift

B. head tilt-neck lift

C. tongue-jaw lift

D. jaw-thrust maneuver

A

D. jaw-thrust maneuver

74
Q

When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:

A. mottling.

B. pallor.

C. cyanosis.

D. flushing.

A

C. cyanosis.

75
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?

A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

B. A secondary assessment should be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

C. During the secondary assessment, the EMT’s primary focus should be on taking the patient’s vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.

D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient’s condition.

A

A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

76
Q

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:

A. forehead and face.

B. lips.

C. dorsum of the hand.

D. back of the neck.

A

B. lips.

77
Q

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient’s chief complaint?

A. “Are you having trouble breathing?”

B. “What seems to be the matter?”

C. “Do you have a history of diabetes?”

D. “When did the chest pain begin?”

A

B. “What seems to be the matter?”

78
Q

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:

A. in a supine position.

B. in a recumbent position.

C. sitting up at a 45° angle.

D. in a full Fowler’s position.

A

C. sitting up at a 45° angle.

79
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?

A. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.

B. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.

D. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

A

B. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

80
Q

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:

A. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

B. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

C. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.

D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.

A

A. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

81
Q

On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device?

A. a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest

B. a 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C. an 8-year-old female with respiratory failure

D. a 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma

A

A. a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest

82
Q

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?

A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.

B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.

A

C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

83
Q

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient’s airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:

A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

B. mouth-to-mouth technique.

C. one-person bag-mask device.

D. manually triggered ventilation device.

A

A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

84
Q

The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx.

A. cricoid

B. thyroid

C. pyriform

D. laryngeal

A

A. cricoid

85
Q

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

A. 1,500 psi.

B. 500 psi.

C. 200 psi.

D. 1,000 psi.

A

B. 500 psi.

86
Q

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?

A. slight decrease in respiratory rate

B. shallow breathing

C. respirations of 20 breaths/min

D. increased tidal volume

A

B. shallow breathing

87
Q

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?

A. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.

B. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

C. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body.

D. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

A

D. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

88
Q

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient’s lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:

A. hyperextend the patient’s head and reattempt ventilations.

B. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately.

C. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.

D. suction the patient’s airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

A

C. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.

89
Q

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:

A. 300 mm Hg.

B. 400 mm Hg.

C. 200 mm Hg.

D. 100 mm Hg.

A

A. 300 mm Hg.

90
Q

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?

A. adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

B. decreased compliance when squeezing the bag

C. 20 breaths/min being delivered to the adult

D. an adult’s heart rate that is consistently increasing

A

A. adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

91
Q

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:

A. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood.

B. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

C. low venous oxygen levels.

D. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels.

A

B. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

92
Q

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

B. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.

C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.

D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

A

A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

93
Q

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?

A. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

B. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.

D. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.

A

A. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

94
Q

CPAP is indicated for patients who:

A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.

B. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately.

C. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

D. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation.

A

A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.

95
Q

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected:

A. upper airway swelling.

B. cervical spine injuries.

C. copious oral secretions.

D. mandibular fractures.

A

B. cervical spine injuries.

96
Q

The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by:

A. high blood oxygen levels.

B. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

C. low blood oxygen levels.

D. low blood carbon dioxide levels.

A

C. low blood oxygen levels.

97
Q

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

A. oxygenation.

B. respiration.

C. ventilation.

D. diffusion.

A

C. ventilation.

98
Q

The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to:

A. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use.

B. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.

C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder.

D. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.

A

D. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.

99
Q

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:

A. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.

B. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter.

C. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions.

D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated.

A

A. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.

100
Q

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.

A. 14%

B. 44%

C. 34%

D. 24%

A

B. 44%

EMT TEST 1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions