EMT NY State Questions

Question 1

1. Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical
   services (EMS)?

A) a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive
emergency care in the prehospital setting

B) a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care
and transportation to the sick and injured

C) a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and
emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care
to sick and injured patients

D) a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing
emergency care to critically injured patients

Answer 1

D) a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing
emergency care to critically injured patients

Question 2

2. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are
   typically regulated by the:

A) state office of EMS.
B) regional trauma center.
C) American Heart Association.
D) National Registry of EMTs

Answer 2

A) state office of EMS.

Question 3

3. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life
   support (ALS) is called a(n):

A) EMT.
B) paramedic.
C) advanced EMT (AEMT).
D) EMR.

Answer 3

B) paramedic.

Question 4

4. EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by
   the:

A) National Registry of EMTs.
B) individual state’s EMS protocols.
C) National Association of EMTs.
D) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Answer 4

D) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

Question 5

5. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

A) assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
B) insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids.
C) administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
D) interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

Answer 5

A) assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

Question 6

6. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment
   skills are functions of the:

A) EMT.
B) paramedic.
C) AEMT.
D) EMR.

Answer 6

B) paramedic.

Question 7

7. The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:

A) demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds.
B) proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
C) a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care.
D) successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR) course.

Answer 7

B) proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.

Question 8

8. If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:

A) wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class.
B) send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval
to take the EMT exam.
C) recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.
D) contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

Answer 8

D) contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

Question 9

9. Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act
   (ADA) of 1990 is correct?

A) The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical
disability.
B) The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those
who are disabled.
C) The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to
the disabled.
D) According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt
from taking the NREMT exam.

Answer 9

C) The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to
the disabled.

Question 10

10. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain
    based on:

A) the patient’s condition.
B) your local EMS protocols.
C) an order from a paramedic.
D) the transport time to the hospital.

Answer 10

B) your local EMS protocols.

Question 11

11. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require
    special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to:

A) perform blood glucose monitoring.
B) apply and interpret a pulse oximeter.
C) use an automatic transport ventilator.
D) give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

Answer 11

A) perform blood glucose monitoring.

Question 12

12. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A) The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
B) EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.
C) The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
D) The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

Answer 12

D) The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

Question 13

13. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?

A) a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device
B) a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia
C) a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
D) a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external
defibrillator (AED)

Answer 13

D) a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external
defibrillator (AED)

Question 14

14. Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT:

A) one- or two-rescuer CPR.
B) splinting of a possible fracture.
C) insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.
D) control of life-threatening bleeding.

Answer 14

C) insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.

Question 15

15. Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of
    prehospital emergency training?

A) oral glucose for hypoglycemia
B) AED
C) intranasal medication administration
D) use of a manually triggered ventilator

Answer 15

B) AED

Question 16

16. EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an
    integral part of the EMS system because:

A) they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.
B) the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be
ensured.
C) the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.
D) they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.

Answer 16

B) the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be
ensured.

Question 17

17. Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher
    (EMD)?

A) relaying relevant information to the EMTs
B) directing the ambulance to the correct address
C) obtaining patient information from the caller
D) providing callers with life-saving instructions

Answer 17

D) providing callers with life-saving instructions

Question 18

18. The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and
    EMT compensation.

A) human resources department
B) office of the medical director
C) EMS administrator or chief
D) local public health department

Answer 18

A) human resources department

Question 19

19. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:

A) shift supervisor.
B) medical director.
C) EMS administrator.
D) field training officer.

Answer 19

B) medical director.

Question 20

20. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an
    EMT’s scope of practice is correct?

A) The EMS medical director can expand the EMT’s scope of practice but cannot limit it
without state approval.
B) The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT’s scope of practice
without state approval.
C) An EMT’s scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the
EMS medical director.
D) An EMT’s scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper
training and state approval.

Answer 20

D) An EMT’s scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper
training and state approval.

Question 21

21. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?

A) radio
B) online
C) off-line
D) direct

Answer 21

C) off-line

Question 22

22. The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

A) provide punitive action to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B) identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
C) ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.
D) focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

Answer 22

B) identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

Question 23

23. Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?

A) An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that
he is not authorized to do so.
B) Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated
and he is permanently disabled.
C) A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization
from medical control first.
D) An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the
pertinent information about the drug.

Answer 23

D) An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the
pertinent information about the drug.

Question 24

24. Continuing education in EMS serves to:

A) prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
B) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
C) enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training.
D) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Answer 24

B) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

Question 25

25. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A) individual EMT. B) State Bureau of EMS. C) EMS training officer. D) EMS medical director.

Answer 25

A) individual EMT.

Question 26

26. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A) community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving B) the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash C) protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D) teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR

Answer 26

A) community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

Question 27

27. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A) EMS research. B) local protocols. C) the lead EMT's decision. D) regional trauma guidelines.

Answer 27

A) EMS research.

Question 28

28. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A) Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B) EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. C) Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D) The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.

Answer 28

C) Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

Question 29

29. If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A) avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B) recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. C) purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D) determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.

Answer 29

B) recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives.

Question 30

30. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B) demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C) ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D) reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

Answer 30

A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

Question 31

31. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A) animals or insects. B) smoke or dust. C) direct contact. D) inanimate objects.

Answer 31

A) animals or insects.

Question 32

32. If a mask cannot be placed on a coughing patient, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend that you maintain a distance of at least ________ feet if possible. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 32

B) 3

Question 33

33. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A) have large rounded lenses. B) are not secured with a strap. C) offer little or no side protection. D) do not have shatterproof lenses.

Answer 33

C) offer little or no side protection.

Question 34

34. While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: A) immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. B) report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C) get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. D) discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.

Answer 34

B) report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

Question 35

35. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: A) careless handling of sharps. B) a lack of proper immunizations. C) excessive blood splashing or splattering. D) a noncompliance with standard precautions.

Answer 35

A) careless handling of sharps.

Question 36

36. Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it: A) determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur. B) determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace. C) defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace. D) defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Answer 36

D) defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Question 37

37. If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: A) quickly wipe down all high contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. B) clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. C) wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. D) thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility.

Answer 37

B) clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.

Question 38

38. Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs? A) age B) race C) gender D) immunity

Answer 38

D) immunity

Question 39

39. A positive TB skin test indicates that: A) you have never been exposed to TB. B) you have been exposed to the disease. C) you are actively infected with the disease. D) the disease is dormant and may become active.

Answer 39

B) you have been exposed to the disease.

Question 40

40. If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: A) report the incident to the infection control officer. B) abandon patient care and seek medical attention. C) transfer care of your patient to another EMS provider. D) vigorously clean the area with soap and water.

Answer 40

C) transfer care of your patient to another EMS provider.

Question 41

41. Physiologic manifestations of stress include: A) flushed skin, decreased muscle control, and vomiting. B) slow heart rate, low blood pressure, and severe headaches. C) perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils. D) increased blood pressure, decreased blood glucose levels, and chest pain.

Answer 41

C) perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.

Question 42

42. You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A) providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B) requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. C) conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D) allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.

Answer 42

B) requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.

Question 43

43. As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: A) may not be obvious or present all the time. B) usually manifest suddenly and without warning. C) cannot be identified and can cause health problems. D) are most effectively treated with medications.

Answer 43

A) may not be obvious or present all the time.

Question 44

44. While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: A) tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on his or her job. B) warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. C) notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. D) tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.

Answer 44

D) tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.

Question 45

45. Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? A) Remain quiet and simply request another partner. B) Report the incident to your EMS medical director. C) Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D) Tell your partner that he must seek professional help.

Answer 45

C) Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.

Question 46

46. You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? A) denial B) anger C) bargaining D) depression

Answer 46

B) anger

Question 47

47. While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as: A) your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B) a show of respect for the person who has died. C) coaching them through the grieving process. D) your partner's caring and supportive attitude.

Answer 47

A) your partner's attempt to diminish their grief.

Question 48

48. You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A) depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. B) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if she experiences cardiopulmonary arrest. C) provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. D) make her comfortable and provide emotional support

Answer 48

D) make her comfortable and provide emotional support.

Question 49

49. Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: A) relieved. B) superior. C) hopeful. D) shamed.

Answer 49

D) shamed.

Question 50

50. When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: A) anger projected toward the EMT or other providers. B) fear of being completely dependent upon other people. C) behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. D) a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment.

Answer 50

C) behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage.

Question 51

51. A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: A) advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. B) discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside. C) let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time. D) express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer

Answer 51

A) advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

Question 52

52. When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should: A) immediately refer them to a counselor. B) tell them that their feelings are understood. C) refrain from using words such as “died” or “dead.” D) acknowledge the death of their child in private.

Answer 52

D) acknowledge the death of their child in private.

Question 53

53. Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) distrust of the EMT. B) mental disorders. C) history of chronic disease. D) fear of medical personnel.

Answer 53

A) distrust of the EMT.

Question 54

54. You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to: A) demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice. B) discourage her from expressing fears until a counselor is available. C) explain to her that “everything will be all right” in order to calm her down. D) restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down.

Answer 54

A) demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice.

Question 55

55. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A) Check for other patients. B) Ensure the vehicle is stable. C) Request another ambulance. D) Contact medical control.

Answer 55

B) Ensure the vehicle is stable.

Question 56

56. The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is: A) identifying the material. B) calling the hazardous materials team. C) evacuating the bystanders. D) ensuring your personal safety.

Answer 56

D) ensuring your personal safety.

Question 57

57. Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) smoke and toxic gases. B) carbon dioxide deficiency. C) high ambient temperatures. D) the risk of building collapse.

Answer 57

B) carbon dioxide deficiency.

Question 58

58. You and your partner are EMTs and have been dispatched to standby at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the fire fighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: A) request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure. B) don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. C) stay where you are until fire fighters remove her from the house. D) immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer.

Answer 58

D) immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer.

Question 59

59. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: A) quickly begin the triage process. B) assist with vehicle stabilization. C) report to the incident commander. D) put on high-visibility safety vests.

Answer 59

D) put on high-visibility safety vests.

Question 60

60. When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: A) latex gloves with thick leather gloves underneath. B) puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. C) fire fighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity. D) thick fire fighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves.

Answer 60

B) puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves.

Question 61

61. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always: A) transport patients to the hospital of their choice. B) provide competent care that meets current standards. C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter. D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.

Answer 61

B) provide competent care that meets current standards.

Question 62

62. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct? A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. B) Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. C) Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D) All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

Answer 62

A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

Question 63

63. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent? A) A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. B) An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. C) An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult. D) A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.

Answer 63

B) An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.

Question 64

64. You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert, but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 9-1-1; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: A) ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. B) err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. C) have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service. D) tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.

Answer 64

A) ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care.

Question 65

65. You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered? A) implied B) informed C) expressed D) minor's

Answer 65

C) expressed

Question 66

66. In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A) possesses a valid driver's license. B) is mentally competent and able to refuse. C) has a poor relationship with his or her parents. D) is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Answer 66

D) is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Question 67

67. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B) Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C) Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D) Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.

Answer 67

A) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

Question 68

68. A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A) document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B) have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C) request that the police place the patient under protective custody. D) assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impaired.

Answer 68

D) assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impaired.

Question 69

69. Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A) A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. B) Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. C) Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. D) Once a patient is in the ambulance, he or she cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

Answer 69

A) A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.

Question 70

70. You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: A) use your authority under the implied consent law. B) try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed. C) ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave. D) tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

Answer 70

B) try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed.

Question 71

71. Which of the following is NOT considered to be protected health information (PHI)? A) patient history B) treatment rendered C) location of the call D) assessment findings

Answer 71

C) location of the call

Question 72

72. In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A) be dated within the previous 24 months. B) clearly state the patient's medical problem. C) be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D) be signed by the local justice of the peace.

Answer 72

B) clearly state the patient's medical problem.

Question 73

73. You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A) absence of a pulse B) profound cyanosis C) dependent lividity D) absent breath sounds

Answer 73

C) dependent lividity

Question 74

74. Putrefaction is defined as: A) decomposition of the body's tissues. B) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. C) blood settling to the lowest point of the body. D) separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

Answer 74

A) decomposition of the body's tissues.

Question 75

75. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? A) driver's license B) insurance card C) Social Security card D) voter registration card

Answer 75

A) driver's license

Question 76

76. The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A) medical director. B) state EMS office. C) EMS supervisor. D) local health district.

Answer 76

A) medical director.

Question 77

77. As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A) another EMT. B) the general public. C) the medical director. D) a paramedic supervisor.

Answer 77

A) another EMT.

Question 78

78. In which of the following situations does the EMT NOT have a legal duty to act? A) a response to the residence of a patient who fell B) a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty C) a response to an injured patient while off duty D) Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency.

Answer 78

B) a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty

Question 79

79. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A) transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B) deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury C) transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D) providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

Answer 79

B) deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Question 80

80. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A) abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B) duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation C) duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation D) breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

Answer 80

C) duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

Question 81

81. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. B) An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. C) A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. D) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse

Answer 81

A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Question 82

82. While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A) ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. B) remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C) stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance. D) continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

Answer 82

D) continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

Question 83

83. An EMT would MOST likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A) refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. B) remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. C) did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. D) terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

Answer 83

C) did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

Question 84

84. Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A) libel. B) assault. C) battery. D) negligence

Answer 84

B) assault.

Question 85

85. Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct? A) It provides the EMT immunity from a lawsuit. B) It guarantees that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. C) The law does not protect EMTs who are off duty. D) It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Answer 85

D) It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Question 86

86. If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: A) it was not performed in the eyes of the law. B) it can be qualified by the EMT in charge. C) it cannot be used in establishing negligence. D) it was performed haphazardly by the EMT.

Answer 86

A) it was not performed in the eyes of the law.

Question 87

87. In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A) that inadequate patient care was administered. B) potential falsification of the patient care form. C) that thorough documentation was not required. D) that the EMT was too busy providing patient care.

Answer 87

A) that inadequate patient care was administered.

Question 88

88. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A) cardiac arrest B) drug overdose C) attempted suicide D) accidental knife wound

Answer 88

C) attempted suicide

Question 89

89. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A) quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B) placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C) making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D) not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Answer 89

D) not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Question 90

90. You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: A) obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. B) quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. C) treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence. D) drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment.

Answer 90

B) quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient.

Question 91

91. Ethnocentrism is defined as: A) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. B) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C) subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that yours are more acceptable. D) considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

Answer 91

D) considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

Question 92

92. You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A) advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. B) acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. C) document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. D) advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents.

Answer 92

C) document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.

Question 93

93. You are interviewing a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to say? A) “It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.” B) “I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you.” C) “This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem.” D) “We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?”

Answer 93

A) “It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.”

Question 94

94. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A) maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B) using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C) positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D) withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

Answer 94

A) maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

Question 95

95. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: A) repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. B) allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C) ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. D) tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.

Answer 95

B) allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.

Question 96

96. In what manner should you act and speak with a patient? A) passive B) authoritative C) loud and official D) calm and confident

Answer 96

D) calm and confident

Question 97

97. When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A) your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B) most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C) hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D) speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you.

Answer 97

B) most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.

Question 98

98. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A) consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B) give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C) reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D) attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.

Answer 98

A) consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

Question 99

99. Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is MOST correct? A) Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. B) Give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. C) Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. D) Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions.

Answer 99

C) Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.

Question 100

100. When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: A) determine the degree of the patient's impairment. B) expect him or her to have difficulty understanding. C) recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. D) possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

Answer 100

A) determine the degree of the patient's impairment.