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EMT MIDTERM > Emt Midterm > Flashcards

Emt Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

After placing an AED, attaching the pads and pressing analyze the AED will indicate two options. List them

A

Shock and no shock

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2
Q

Artificial ventilation and cpr are performed for the purpose of keeping_____ circulating in order to prevent the death of the brain and other body cells

A

Oxygenated blood

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3
Q

What is the correct procedure for treating FABO with an unconscious patient?

A

Cpr

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4
Q

Chest compressions for adults are performed with

A

Heel of hand lower half of breast bone

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5
Q

According to the AHA BLS HCP, where to you assess a child’s pulse

A

Carotid artery

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6
Q

You have an alert and oriented pregnant adult patient with a FBAO. Where will you attempt thrusts to relieve the obstruction while the patient is still conscious?

A

Chest thrust

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7
Q

SENARIO (8-10)
An EMT is performing single rescuer cpr on an 8-month old female who was found in cardiopulmonary arrest. after 4 mins of cpr, the infant is apneic with a strong pulse

A

….

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8
Q

.at what rate will you ventilate this patient for rescue breathing

A

one breath every 3 seconds / 20 breaths /m

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9
Q

.what was the ratio of compressions to ventilations used while performing single rescue cpr?

A

30:2

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10
Q

.where did you assess the pulse for this patient?

A

brachial pulse

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11
Q

after each chest compression, the compressor should allow for _____

A

chest recoil

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12
Q

pulse oximetry is a diagnostic tool used to monitor____.

A

O2 saturation

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13
Q

a capnometer measures the presence and amount of_____ in a patients exhaled air

A

CO2

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14
Q

EMT wannabe is treating a 24 year old female in respiratory arrest. what is the standard flow rate used with the bvm attached to an O2 reservoir

A

15 L/min (Lpm)

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15
Q

what determines if the LPM flow rate is adequate when using a reservoir bagged device (bvm or nrbfm)?

A

reservoir stays infalted

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16
Q

list the lpm ranges + O2% for the following adjuncts:

  • nc
  • simple face mask
  • nrbfm
A
  • n/c_ 1-6 L/min @ 24-44%
  • simple face mask_6-10 L/min @ 28-60%
  • nrbfm_ 10-15 L/min @ 90%
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17
Q

what design feature differentiates a nrbfm from a partial rebreather face mask?

A

the one-way valve

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18
Q

in an un-witness cardiac arrest, the AED is utilized when?

A

ASAP

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19
Q

why is the mask of the bvm transparent?

A

you can monitor for vomit

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20
Q

what is the size of the universal connection that is an industry standard for airway adjunct?

A

15-22min

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21
Q

to ensure adequate chest rise + prevent gastric distention with a bvm requires _____ and _____?

A

mask seal, properly opened airway (HTCL or JT)

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22
Q

what airway adjust is contraindicated in the presence of facial trauma?

A

NPA

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23
Q

which airway adjunct is indicated when ventilating with a bvm?

A

opa, npa

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24
Q

in a witness cardiac arrest, the AED id utilized when?

A

ASAP

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25
Q

you are treating an adult cardiac arrest patient. The AED analyzes, indicates shock; after clearing and shocking once with the AED, what is the EMT’s next action?

A

CPR

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26
Q

an AED is programmed to identify ONLY v-fib or v-tach; if ‘NO SHOCK’ is indicated, it is incumbent for the emt to_____

A

CPR

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27
Q

the term ‘secure the airway’ refers to what?

A

open airway/ clear airway

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28
Q

the medical technology, the term_____refers to a condition that, if present, dictates that a certain procedure or action should be taken by the EMT

A

indication

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29
Q

_______ are heard normally over the entire chest wall and are produced by air moving through the small airway and tissues

A

vesicular breath sounds

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30
Q

in addition to BSI, what is essential to minimize risk of cross contamination

A

hand washing

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31
Q

significant _____ ______ causes elevation of the diaphragm and reduction in lung volume

A

gastric distention

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32
Q

to osculate lung sounds, make sure you utilize the ____ of the stethoscope

A

diaphragm

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33
Q

to facilitate the proper insertion of the combitube, the patients head is placed in the _____position

A

neutral

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34
Q

to inflate the cuffs on the combitube, use the supplied syringes to insert_____of air into the pharyngeal cuff and ____ of air into the distal cuff(esophageal)

A 
100 cc (mL)
15 cc(mL)
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35
Q

prior to insertion of the combitube, the cuff must be checked and the distal end of the tube_____

A

lubricated

36
Q

tracheal placement of the combitube requires ventilation through which tube?

A

tube 2

37
Q

other than age and height, list 4 of the remaining contraindications to the use of either the combi or kind tube:

A

gag, airway obstructions, stoma, esophagus disease

38
Q

when removing the combitube which cuff is deflated first

A

tube 1

39
Q

where are the breath sounds auscultated to verify placement of the combitube?

A

mid clavicular/mid axilary

40
Q

list the 2 types of suction catheters

A

hard/soft

41
Q

suctioning should be limited to____ seconds in the adullt patient, and ____ seconds in the pediatric patient

A

15,10

42
Q

because of their relatively small size ‘D’ and ‘E’ cylinders are commonly referred to as ________cylingers

A

protible

43
Q

O2 cylinders are considered full at ___to___psi and empty at____psi

A

2000-2200, 200

44
Q

since O2 is stared under pressure it is necessary to reduce the pressure to a managable workable level using a _______

A

regulator

45
Q

once the O2 pressure from the cylinder has been reduced, a ____ then controls and measure L/min

A

flow meter

46
Q

what prevents ‘E’ and ‘D’ O2 cylinders from being filled with anything but O2?

A

pin index system

47
Q

short term use of O2 without humidification is acceptable if the duration is____

A

less than 1 hour

48
Q

how would you provide supplemental O2 to a patient with a c/c of chest discomfort without SOB

A

nasal cannula @ 2 L/min

49
Q

a patient is placed on 4 NRBFM @ its lowest flow setting, using a ‘D’ cylinder @ 1700 psi. How long will the cylinder last?

A

10L/min *(1700-200) x 16/ 10 = 24 min

50
Q

high-flow O2 is defined as:

A

15L via NR

51
Q

list the 6 elements of scene assessment:

A

scene safety, BSI, general impression, MOI/NOI, hazards,als and additional resources

52
Q

list the 4 elements of the primary (initial) assessment in order of completeness:

A

general impression, avpu, abcd, transport decision, and chief complaint

53
Q

match the elements to the appropriate components of the secondary assessment (choices and be used more then once)

A
  • significant MOI- rapid assessment
  • No significant MOI-chief comp/ focused assessment
  • responsive medical-focused assessment based on history
  • unresponsive medical-rapid assessment
54
Q

a______is preformed after completing all critical interventions it is situational and time dependent

A

secondary assessment

55
Q

which patient assessment component is a means of determining changes in the pts condition, including vital signs

A

reassessment

56
Q

SAMPLE

A 
signs/symptoms
allergies
medications
past pertinent medical history
last oral intake
events leading up
57
Q

AVPU

A

alert
verbal
pain
unresponsive

58
Q

DCAP-BTLS

A 
deformity
contusions
abrasions
penetration/potrusion
-
burns
tenderness
lacerations 
swelling
59
Q

list the 6 baseline vital signs that should be documented for all patients

A

-bp-pulse rate-respiration rate-glucose-spO2-pupil dialation-pain scale-skin color-temp

60
Q

OPQRSR

A 
onset
provocation
quality
region/radiation
severity
timing
61
Q

3 parameters when assessing pulse:

A

rate, rhythm,strength

62
Q

3 parameters when assessing respirations:

A

rate, rhythm,strenght

63
Q

an unstable pt should be reassessed every__minutes; while a stable pt should be reassessed every—minutes

A

5,15

64
Q

scene times for major trauma pt should be less than___ mins when pratical

A

10 mins

65
Q

according to 64j what 3 things must the first EMT issue upon determine that a trauma pt meets the requirements of adult trauma scorecard methodology

A

active airway assistance, bp<90(no radial), penetration wound to head or torso, 15% BSA of 2nd or 3rd degree burns, gas<12

66
Q

what single airway criteria will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as a trauma alert?

A

active airway

67
Q

an adult trauma pt with a systolic bp less than ___ mm/Hg, they are classified as trauma alert

A

90 (check radial)

68
Q

a patient is placed on a N/C @40%, using an ‘E’ cylinder @ 2200psi. how long will the cylinder last

A

*(2200-200)x 28/5=112min

69
Q

what type of burn injury will result I an adult pt being classified as trauma alert?

A

2nd/3rd > 15%bsa

70
Q

what criteria for penetrating injury will result in an adult pt being classified as a trauma alert?

A

torso or head

71
Q

list one of the 3 single bmk criteria, which will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as trauma alert

A

4 or less

72
Q

if the adult trauma lacks a _____ with a sustained hr greater than ____bpm- they are classified as trauma alert

A 
radial pulse(<90mm/Hg)
120
73
Q

criteria for amputation injury that results in adult pt being classified as trauma alert

A

proximal to wrist/ankle

74
Q

senario

A

mva, ejection(motorcycle)trauma alert? no

75
Q

senario

A

62, fell 15ft, alert x oriented, only symptom is pain LUQ, trauma? yes

76
Q

what is this pts gcs score?

  • open eye only to deep pain
  • incomprehensible words
  • flexes arms upon stimulation
A

2+2+3=7

77
Q

gcs score ?

  • opened eyes upon you arrival
  • oreinted and obeyed simple commands
A

4+5+6=15

78
Q

when documenting a (v)_____is something that, given a particular illness/injury would be expected but isn’t.

A

pertinent negative

79
Q

list 3 components of a good pcr

A

completeness of information, accuracy and neatness

80
Q

if a mistake is made on a pcr, correct by____ and ____

A

crossing out with a single line, initialing

81
Q

if something is forgotten and needs to be written in an incorrect area label it a ___ ____

A

late entry

82
Q

indicate proper placement of 4-lead electrodes

A

green- RL
white-RU
black-LU
red-LL

83
Q

under routine circumstances the ___portion of the scoop stretcher should be secured first after placement under the pt

A

head

84
Q

what is the appropriate stretcher for the following:

65 yrld male with acute CHF and SOB on the second floor of a town house

A

stair chair

85
Q

35 yrld male complaining of abdominal discomfort, weight of 800lbs on ground floor apartment

A

fat blanket/ bariatric blanket

86
Q

87 Harold female with unstable bilateral hip pain after falling out of her bed in her single wide trailer

A

scoop stretcher

EMT MIDTERM (1 decks)

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