Emt Midterm Flashcards
After placing an AED, attaching the pads and pressing analyze the AED will indicate two options. List them
Shock and no shock
Artificial ventilation and cpr are performed for the purpose of keeping_____ circulating in order to prevent the death of the brain and other body cells
Oxygenated blood
What is the correct procedure for treating FABO with an unconscious patient?
Cpr
Chest compressions for adults are performed with
Heel of hand lower half of breast bone
According to the AHA BLS HCP, where to you assess a child’s pulse
Carotid artery
You have an alert and oriented pregnant adult patient with a FBAO. Where will you attempt thrusts to relieve the obstruction while the patient is still conscious?
Chest thrust
SENARIO (8-10)
An EMT is performing single rescuer cpr on an 8-month old female who was found in cardiopulmonary arrest. after 4 mins of cpr, the infant is apneic with a strong pulse
….
.at what rate will you ventilate this patient for rescue breathing
one breath every 3 seconds / 20 breaths /m
.what was the ratio of compressions to ventilations used while performing single rescue cpr?
30:2
.where did you assess the pulse for this patient?
brachial pulse
after each chest compression, the compressor should allow for _____
chest recoil
pulse oximetry is a diagnostic tool used to monitor____.
O2 saturation
a capnometer measures the presence and amount of_____ in a patients exhaled air
CO2
EMT wannabe is treating a 24 year old female in respiratory arrest. what is the standard flow rate used with the bvm attached to an O2 reservoir
15 L/min (Lpm)
what determines if the LPM flow rate is adequate when using a reservoir bagged device (bvm or nrbfm)?
reservoir stays infalted
list the lpm ranges + O2% for the following adjuncts:
- nc
- simple face mask
- nrbfm
- n/c_ 1-6 L/min @ 24-44%
- simple face mask_6-10 L/min @ 28-60%
- nrbfm_ 10-15 L/min @ 90%
what design feature differentiates a nrbfm from a partial rebreather face mask?
the one-way valve
in an un-witness cardiac arrest, the AED is utilized when?
ASAP
why is the mask of the bvm transparent?
you can monitor for vomit
what is the size of the universal connection that is an industry standard for airway adjunct?
15-22min
to ensure adequate chest rise + prevent gastric distention with a bvm requires _____ and _____?
mask seal, properly opened airway (HTCL or JT)
what airway adjust is contraindicated in the presence of facial trauma?
NPA
which airway adjunct is indicated when ventilating with a bvm?
opa, npa
in a witness cardiac arrest, the AED id utilized when?
ASAP
you are treating an adult cardiac arrest patient. The AED analyzes, indicates shock; after clearing and shocking once with the AED, what is the EMT’s next action?
CPR
an AED is programmed to identify ONLY v-fib or v-tach; if ‘NO SHOCK’ is indicated, it is incumbent for the emt to_____
CPR
the term ‘secure the airway’ refers to what?
open airway/ clear airway
the medical technology, the term_____refers to a condition that, if present, dictates that a certain procedure or action should be taken by the EMT
indication
_______ are heard normally over the entire chest wall and are produced by air moving through the small airway and tissues
vesicular breath sounds
in addition to BSI, what is essential to minimize risk of cross contamination
hand washing
significant _____ ______ causes elevation of the diaphragm and reduction in lung volume
gastric distention
to osculate lung sounds, make sure you utilize the ____ of the stethoscope
diaphragm
to facilitate the proper insertion of the combitube, the patients head is placed in the _____position
neutral
to inflate the cuffs on the combitube, use the supplied syringes to insert_____of air into the pharyngeal cuff and ____ of air into the distal cuff(esophageal)
100 cc (mL) 15 cc(mL)
prior to insertion of the combitube, the cuff must be checked and the distal end of the tube_____
lubricated
tracheal placement of the combitube requires ventilation through which tube?
tube 2
other than age and height, list 4 of the remaining contraindications to the use of either the combi or kind tube:
gag, airway obstructions, stoma, esophagus disease
when removing the combitube which cuff is deflated first
tube 1
where are the breath sounds auscultated to verify placement of the combitube?
mid clavicular/mid axilary
list the 2 types of suction catheters
hard/soft
suctioning should be limited to____ seconds in the adullt patient, and ____ seconds in the pediatric patient
15,10
because of their relatively small size ‘D’ and ‘E’ cylinders are commonly referred to as ________cylingers
protible
O2 cylinders are considered full at ___to___psi and empty at____psi
2000-2200, 200
since O2 is stared under pressure it is necessary to reduce the pressure to a managable workable level using a _______
regulator
once the O2 pressure from the cylinder has been reduced, a ____ then controls and measure L/min
flow meter
what prevents ‘E’ and ‘D’ O2 cylinders from being filled with anything but O2?
pin index system
short term use of O2 without humidification is acceptable if the duration is____
less than 1 hour
how would you provide supplemental O2 to a patient with a c/c of chest discomfort without SOB
nasal cannula @ 2 L/min
a patient is placed on 4 NRBFM @ its lowest flow setting, using a ‘D’ cylinder @ 1700 psi. How long will the cylinder last?
10L/min *(1700-200) x 16/ 10 = 24 min
high-flow O2 is defined as:
15L via NR
list the 6 elements of scene assessment:
scene safety, BSI, general impression, MOI/NOI, hazards,als and additional resources
list the 4 elements of the primary (initial) assessment in order of completeness:
general impression, avpu, abcd, transport decision, and chief complaint
match the elements to the appropriate components of the secondary assessment (choices and be used more then once)
- significant MOI- rapid assessment
- No significant MOI-chief comp/ focused assessment
- responsive medical-focused assessment based on history
- unresponsive medical-rapid assessment
a______is preformed after completing all critical interventions it is situational and time dependent
secondary assessment
which patient assessment component is a means of determining changes in the pts condition, including vital signs
reassessment
SAMPLE
signs/symptoms allergies medications past pertinent medical history last oral intake events leading up
AVPU
alert
verbal
pain
unresponsive
DCAP-BTLS
deformity contusions abrasions penetration/potrusion - burns tenderness lacerations swelling
list the 6 baseline vital signs that should be documented for all patients
-bp-pulse rate-respiration rate-glucose-spO2-pupil dialation-pain scale-skin color-temp
OPQRSR
onset provocation quality region/radiation severity timing
3 parameters when assessing pulse:
rate, rhythm,strength
3 parameters when assessing respirations:
rate, rhythm,strenght
an unstable pt should be reassessed every__minutes; while a stable pt should be reassessed every—minutes
5,15
scene times for major trauma pt should be less than___ mins when pratical
10 mins
according to 64j what 3 things must the first EMT issue upon determine that a trauma pt meets the requirements of adult trauma scorecard methodology
active airway assistance, bp<90(no radial), penetration wound to head or torso, 15% BSA of 2nd or 3rd degree burns, gas<12
what single airway criteria will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as a trauma alert?
active airway
an adult trauma pt with a systolic bp less than ___ mm/Hg, they are classified as trauma alert
90 (check radial)
a patient is placed on a N/C @40%, using an ‘E’ cylinder @ 2200psi. how long will the cylinder last
*(2200-200)x 28/5=112min
what type of burn injury will result I an adult pt being classified as trauma alert?
2nd/3rd > 15%bsa
what criteria for penetrating injury will result in an adult pt being classified as a trauma alert?
torso or head
list one of the 3 single bmk criteria, which will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as trauma alert
4 or less
if the adult trauma lacks a _____ with a sustained hr greater than ____bpm- they are classified as trauma alert
radial pulse(<90mm/Hg) 120
criteria for amputation injury that results in adult pt being classified as trauma alert
proximal to wrist/ankle
senario
mva, ejection(motorcycle)trauma alert? no
senario
62, fell 15ft, alert x oriented, only symptom is pain LUQ, trauma? yes
what is this pts gcs score?
- open eye only to deep pain
- incomprehensible words
- flexes arms upon stimulation
2+2+3=7
gcs score ?
- opened eyes upon you arrival
- oreinted and obeyed simple commands
4+5+6=15
when documenting a (v)_____is something that, given a particular illness/injury would be expected but isn’t.
pertinent negative
list 3 components of a good pcr
completeness of information, accuracy and neatness
if a mistake is made on a pcr, correct by____ and ____
crossing out with a single line, initialing
if something is forgotten and needs to be written in an incorrect area label it a ___ ____
late entry
indicate proper placement of 4-lead electrodes
green- RL
white-RU
black-LU
red-LL
under routine circumstances the ___portion of the scoop stretcher should be secured first after placement under the pt
head
what is the appropriate stretcher for the following:
65 yrld male with acute CHF and SOB on the second floor of a town house
stair chair
35 yrld male complaining of abdominal discomfort, weight of 800lbs on ground floor apartment
fat blanket/ bariatric blanket
87 Harold female with unstable bilateral hip pain after falling out of her bed in her single wide trailer
scoop stretcher
