EMT FINAL EXAM Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? Select one: A. Chest compressions B. Automated defibrillation C. Cardiac monitoring D. Abdominal thrusts
A
C. Cardiac Monitoring
2
Q
Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?
Select one:
A. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.
B. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory–Weiss syndrome.
C. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe.
D. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
A
D. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
3
Q
If you could only take two pieces of equipment with you to a patient's side, in addition to the jump kit, you should choose the: Select one: A. BVM and portable oxygen. B. AED and portable suction unit. C. oral airways and sterile dressings. D. cervical collar and long backboard.
A
B. AED and portable suction unit.
4
Q
The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one:
A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
B. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.
C. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.
D. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.
A
A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
5
Q
Peritonitis usually occurs when: Select one:
A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.
B. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed.
C. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma.
D. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.
A
A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.
6
Q
When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: Select one:
A. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
B. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement.
C. translate the patient’s words or statements using proper medical terminology.
D. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses.
A
A
7
Q
Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause: Select one: A. ventricular tachycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. pulseless electrical activity. D. profound bradycardia.
A
B. ventricular fibrillation.
8
Q
Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent?
Select one:
A. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care.
B. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult. C. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.
D. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
A
D. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
9
Q
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
Select one:
A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B. apply a pulse oximeter and assess her vital signs.
C. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
D. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
A
D
10
Q
Most medical models base a pregnant woman’s due date:
Select one:
A. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle.
B. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle.
C. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle.
D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.
A
D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.
11
Q
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
Select one:
A. assess for breathing and a pulse.
B. manually open the airway.
C. apply the AED and deliver a shock, if needed. D. immediately begin chest compressions.
A
A. Assess for BREATHING and a PULSE
12
Q
You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure that the patient’s systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg as aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure.
B. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.
C. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort.
D. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient’s chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin.
A
B. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.
13
Q
The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it:
Select one:
A. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.
B. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation.
C. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated.
D. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart.
A
B
14
Q
The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: Select one: A. fundus. B. womb. C. cervix. D. birth canal.
A
D. birth canal.
15
Q
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. distention. B. diffuse bruising. C. nausea or vomiting. D. referred pain.
A
A. distention
16
Q
When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.
B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
C. approximately how much water the patient drank that day.
D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.
A
B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
17
Q
You are triaging patients at the scene of a multiple-vehicle crash when you encounter a young male who is unresponsive and is not breathing. After you open his airway, he begins to breathe at a rapid rate. According to the START triage system, you should:
Select one:
A. tag him as immediate (red), place him in the recovery position, and move to the next patient.
B. move him to the treatment area so he can receive a more comprehensive assessment of his status. C. move to the other patients, but reassess him in 5 minutes to determine if he is still breathing.
D. assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and perform a rapid scan of his entire body.
A
A. tag him as immediate (red), place him in the recovery position, and move to the next patient.
18
Q
A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries is the LEAST likely? Select one: A. Multiple rib fractures B. Pulmonary contusion C. Head injury D. Cardiac contusion
A
C. Head injury
19
Q
Hemoptysis is defined as: Select one: A. vomiting blood. B. abnormal blood clotting. C. blood in the pleural space. D. coughing up blood.
A
D. coughing up blood.
20
Q
An effective team leader should: Select one: A. perform all difficult interventions. B. help the team accomplish goals. C. refrain from any direct patient care. D. command his or her team.
A
B. help the team accomplish goals.
21
Q
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: Select one: A. sprain. B. dislocation. C. fracture. D. strain.
A
B. dislocation.
22
Q
Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct?
Select one:
A. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.
B. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful.
C. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids.
D. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.
A
D. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.
23
Q
Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: Select one: A. dysuria and constipation. B. dyspnea and bradycardia. C. marked hypoglycemia. D. headache and edema.
A
D. headache and edema.
24
Q
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:
Select one:
A. may present without significant abdominal pain.
B. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
C. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain.
D. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.
A
B
25
Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move?
Select one:
A. Using a long-axis body drag during the move
B. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her
C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object
B
26
When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie:
Select one:
A. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints.
B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
C. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints.
D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.
B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
27
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
Select one:
A. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.
B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
C. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity.
D. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.
B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
28
You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert, but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 9-1-1; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should:
Select one:
A. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care.
B. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service. C. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. D. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.
A
29
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: Select one:
A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs.
B. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung.
D. pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi.
B. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
30
A 67-year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should:
Select one:
A. perform CPR for 1 to 2 minutes and then analyze her rhythm with an AED.
B. alert the receiving hospital and perform CPR for the duration of the transport.
C. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible.
D. defibrillate with the AED while continuing transport to the hospital.
C. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible.
31
When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased
perfusion.
B. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.
C. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults.
D. the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion.
A. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased
perfusion.
32
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should:
Select one:
A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
B. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina.
C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
D. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches.
A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
33
```
Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:
Select one:
A. ileus.
B. an ulcer.
C. appendicitis.
D. cholecystitis.
```
B. an ulcer.
34
```
Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. acetone breath odor.
B. cool, clammy skin.
C. rapid, thready pulse.
D. warm, dry skin.
```
B. cool, clammy skin.
35
A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to:
Select one:
A. reassess his breathing and blood pressure in 15 minutes.
B. record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly.
C. notify medical control of the patient's response to your treatment.
D. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling.
B. record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly.
36
Following delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine fundus and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred because:
Select one:
A. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus.
B. these actions simulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction.
C. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate.
D. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus.
B
37
If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: Select one:
A. report the incident to the infection control officer.
B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider.
C. vigorously clean the area with soap and water.
D. abandon patient care and seek medical attention.
B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider.
38
You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to:
Select one:
A. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.
B. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse.
C. assess the rate and quality of his breathing.
D. log roll him as a unit to a supine position.
D. log roll him as a unit to a supine position.
39
```
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Select one:
A. Total lack of appetite
B. Low blood glucose level
C. Weight gain and edema
D. Weight loss and polyuria
```
D. Weight loss and polyuria
40
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
A. spleen.
B. kidney.
C. stomach.
D. liver.
D. liver.
41
Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: Select one:
A. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration.
B. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.
C. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration.
D. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.
D. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.
42
```
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
Select one:
A. withdrawing.
B. referring.
C. flexing.
D. guarding.
```
D. guarding.
43
Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?
Select one:
A. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines
B. Providing safe entry and access to patients
C. Providing emergency care during extrication
D. Initial triage and patient prioritization
B. Providing safe entry and access to patients
44
Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is correct? Select one:
A. V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow.
B. V-fib is a state of rapid ventricular contraction.
C. Most patients in V-fib have a weak carotid pulse.
D. Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed V-fib
A. V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow.
45
You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should:
Select one:
A. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.
B. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.
C. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.
D. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport.
D
46
Placenta previa is defined as:
Select one:
A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.
B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall.
C. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
D. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.
C. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
47
You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the MOST appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance?
Select one:
A. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.
B. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.
C. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.
D. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench.
A
48
```
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
Select one:
A. repeating the primary assessment.
B. taking another set of vital signs.
C. reassessing the nature of illness.
D. reviewing all treatment performed.
```
A. repeating the primary assessment.
49
In contrast to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia:
Select one:
A. is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance.
B. can only be corrected in the hospital setting.
C. commonly results in excess water retention.
D. is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given.
B. can only be corrected in the hospital setting.
50
A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions.
B. place him supine but allow him to keep his knees bent.
C. keep him on his side but gently straighten his legs.
D. transport him in the position in which you found him.
D. transport him in the position in which you found him.
51
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:
Select one:
A. begin assisting the patient's ventilations.
B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. perform oropharyngeal suctioning.
D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
C
52
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
Select one:
A. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.
B. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression.
C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages of the grieving process.
C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
53
```
Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. abdominal cramps.
B. drying of the eyes.
C. flushing of the skin.
D. persistent dry cough.
```
B
54
```
What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?
Select one:
A. 8,000 mL
B. 5,600 mL
C. 7,400 mL
D. 6,000 mL
```
B
55
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
Select one:
A. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
B. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.
C. the muscles of the back experience increased strain. D. the hands can be held further apart from the body.
A. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
56
It is MOST important to determine a patient's weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because:
Select one:
A. this will allow you to determine if the exposure is lethal.
B. activated charcoal is given based on a patient's weight.
C. you may need additional lifting and moving assistance.
D. naloxone is contraindicated if the patient is very obese.
B. activated charcoal is given based on a patient's weight.
57
A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) and he tells you that he does. You should:
Select one:
A. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
B. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once.
C. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. D. recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension.
A. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
58
You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect:
Select one:
A. right-sided heart failure.
B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. acute pulmonary edema.
D. acute pulmonary embolism.
D
59
With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: Select one:
A. the blood vessels become stiff.
B. the blood thickens as a person ages. C. diastolic blood pressure decreases. D. the arteries dilate significantly.
A
60
```
When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)?
Select one:
A. Digoxin
B. Nexium
C. Lasix
D. Isordil
```
B. Nexium
61
Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:
Select one:
A. until he or she loses consciousness.
B. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.
C. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process.
D. in sets of five followed by reassessment.
A. until he or she loses consciousness.
62
```
Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
Select one:
A. Aspirin
B. Oral glucose
C. Ibuprofen
D. Albuterol
```
C. Ibuprofen
63
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:
Select one:
A. begin resuscitation at once.
B. contact medical control first. C. determine the patient's illness. D. notify the coroner immediately.
A. begin resuscitation at once.
64
```
You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:
Select one:
A. a ruptured cerebral artery.
B. a complex partial seizure.
C. acute hypoglycemia.
D. an occluded cerebral artery.
```
A. a ruptured cerebral artery.
65
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:
Select one:
A. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.
B. examine the patient from head to toe.
C. focus on his or her chief complaint.
D. prepare the patient for transport first.
C. focus on his or her chief complaint.
66
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
Select one:
A. Intranasal medication administration
B. Use of a manually triggered ventilator
C. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia
D. Automated external defibrillation (AED)
D. Automated external defibrillation (AED)
67
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:
Select one:
A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
B. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta.
D. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage.
A
68
```
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
Select one:
A. Femur fracture
B. Shoulder fracture
C. Lumbar spine fracture
D. Pelvic fracture
```
B. Shoulder fracture
69
Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
Select one:
A. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
C. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
A
70
```
A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?
Select one:
A. Deep and rapid breathing
B. Hypotension and tachycardia
C. Rapid and weak pulse
D. Restlessness and irritability
```
A
71
```
As many as 40% of patients with Down syndrome have:
Select one:
A. intracranial bleeding.
B. a heart condition.
C. diabetes mellitus.
D. unilateral paralysis.
```
B. a heart condition.
72
Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
Select one:
A. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
B. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.
C. their intercostal muscles are not functional.
D. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
A. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
73
The secondary assessment of a medical patient: Select one:
A. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
B. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
C. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.
D. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
A. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
74
A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him?
Select one:
A. “Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?”
B. “Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?”
C. “Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?”
D. “Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?”
C. “Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?”
75
```
If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should:
Select one:
A. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
B. flick the soles of his or her feet.
C. resuction the mouth only.
D. begin chest compressions.
```
A. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
76
Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do?
Select one:
A. Report the incident to your EMS medical director.
B. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help.
C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.
D. Remain quiet and simply request another partner.
C
77
Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: Select one:
A. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.
B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly.
C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis.
D. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord.
A
78
```
An absence seizure is also referred to as a:
Select one:
A. generalized motor seizure.
B. petit mal seizure.
C. grand mal seizure.
D. total body seizure.
```
B. petit mal seizure.
79
Which of the following statements regarding a “dirty bomb” is correct?
Select one:
A. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.
B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
C. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile. D. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits.
B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
80
Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: Select one:
A. provide emotional support to the mother.
B. report the case to the medical examiner.
C. begin full resuscitation and transport.
D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.
A
81
```
External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by:
Select one:
A. applying a tourniquet.
B. applying chemical ice packs.
C. elevating the extremity.
D. applying direct pressure.
```
Applying direct pressure
82
Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is correct?
Select one:
A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired.
B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name.
C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed.
D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.
D
83
Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include:
Select one:
A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia.
B. uterine rupture with severe bleeding.
C. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea.
D. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.
D
84
```
The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:
Select one:
A. dysuria.
B. vomiting.
C. high fever.
D. diarrhea.
```
D
85
```
Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?
Select one:
A. Unequal breath sounds
B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium
C. Use of the accessory muscles
D. Jugular venous distention
```
D
86
```
In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion.
Select one:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
```
C. 2
87
```
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
Select one:
A. cough.
B. vomit.
C. are bleeding.
D. have a fever.
```
A
88
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
Select one:
A. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
B. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.
C. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.
D. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day.
A
89
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: Select one:
A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands.
C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.
D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.
A
90
To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
Select one:
A. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
D. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
91
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she:
Select one:
A. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity.
B. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down.
C. may lose sensation below the level of the injury.
D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.
C
92
In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: Select one:
A. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.
B. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. C. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.
D. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.
A. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.
93
```
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
Select one:
A. Aspirated fluid
B. Vomitus
C. Blood clots
D. The tongue
```
D
94
```
The onset of labor begins with:
Select one:
A. thinning of the uterus.
B. increased fetal movement.
C. contractions of the uterus.
D. full dilation of the cervix.
```
C
95
Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? Select one:
A. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness.
B. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness.
C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia.
D. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process.
D
96
A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. You should:
Select one:
A. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
B. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
C. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport without delay.
D. splint each of his deformed femurs with air splints, elevate his lower extremities, and transport.
B
97
```
A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: Select one:
A. have delivered a baby before.
B. are pregnant for the first time.
C. have gestational diabetes.
D. are younger than 30 years of age.
```
A
98
A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to:
Select one:
A. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin and stabilize it with sterile dressings.
C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely.
D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.
D
99
```
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
Select one:
A. a matter of public record.
B. considered confidential.
C. typewritten or printed.
D. reflective of your opinion.
```
B
100
Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when:
Select one:
A. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta.
B. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus.
C. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.
D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.
C
101
The mesentery is:
Select one:
A. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
B. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
C. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
D. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
C
102
Relative to an adult's airway anatomy, the child's:
Select one:
A. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.
B. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.
C. mouth and nose are proportionately larger.
D. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible.
B
103
```
An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: Select one:
A. an aneurysm.
B. atherosclerosis.
C. a thrombus.
D. an embolism.
```
A
104
The components of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) are:
Select one:
A. activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.
B. mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure.
C. appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation.
D. skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness.
C
105
```
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. premature delivery.
B. respiratory depression.
C. profound tachycardia.
D. low birth weight.
```
C
106
Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should:
Select one:
A. obtain a manual blood pressure.
B. prepare for immediate transport.
C. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes. D. conclude that she has hypertension.
A
107
```
The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is:
Select one:
A. retractions.
B. nasal flaring.
C. pallor.
D. bradycardia.
```
D
108
An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:
Select one:
A. contact poison control immediately.
B. administer the appropriate antidote.
C. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.
D. recognize that a poisoning occurred.
D
109
```
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: Select one:
A. veins are under a lower pressure.
B. veins carry deoxygenated blood.
C. veins hold smaller blood volume.
D. blood typically oozes from a vein.
```
A
110
```
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
Select one:
A. intra-abdominal bleeding.
B. rupture of a hollow organ.
C. a ruptured spleen.
D. a severe liver laceration.
```
A
111
A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should:
Select one:
A. avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe.
B. begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg.
C. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration.
D. ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient.
C
112
```
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. noted deformity to the skull.
B. ecchymosis around the eyes.
C. superficial scalp lacerations.
D. mastoid process bruising.
```
C
113
```
Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
Select one:
A. Pallor
B. Dizziness
C. Wheezing
D. Hypotension
```
C
114
```
According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total BSA.
Select one:
A. 1%
B. 6%
C. 2%
D. 4%
```
A
115
During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred:
Select one:
A. by inhaling toxic gases.
B. when the patient was hurled against a stationary object.
C. as a result of flying debris.
D. as a direct result of the pressure wave.
B
116
A 30-year-old female was robbed and assaulted as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should:
Select one:
A. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.
B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds.
C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D. begin immediate ventilatory assistance.
A
117
```
Enlargement of the liver is called:
Select one:
A. nephritis.
B. hepatomegaly.
C. hydrocephalus.
D. pneumonitis.
```
B
118
When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:
Select one:
A. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications.
B. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced.
C. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them.
D. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.
D
119
How does respiration differ from ventilation?
Select one:
A. Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs.
B. Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
C. Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax.
D. Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed.
B
120
```
End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with:
Select one:
A. high blood pressure.
B. headache.
C. respiratory distress.
D. abdominal pain.
```
C
121
Your BEST protection against legal liability when a patient with decision-making capacity refuses EMS care and transport is to:
Select one:
A. ensure that the family is aware of the risks.
B. advise medical control of the situation.
C. thoroughly document the entire event.
D. err on the side of caution and transport.
C
122
If a person is partially immune to a particular disease, he or she: Select one:
A. may develop illness from germs that lie dormant from the initial infection.
B. is not protected from a new infection if exposed to another individual.
C. must be revaccinated at least every 18 months to avoid infection.
D. will not experience future illness, even if his or her immune system is stressed.
A
123
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct?
Select one:
A. The liver is well protected and is rarely injured during a traumatic event.
B. Hollow abdominal organs are vascular and bleed profusely when injured.
C. The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
D. Most of the vital abdominal organs lie within the retroperitoneal space.
C
124
Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because:
Select one:
A. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes.
B. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy.
C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department.
D. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours.
B
125
Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one:
A. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.
B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.
C. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick.
B
126
In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one:
A. is not a communicable disease.
B. is a far more transmittable disease. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. typically does not cause yellow skin.
A
127
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that:
Select one:
A. blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.
B. your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade.
C. at least half of one lung has completely collapsed.
D. air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
D
128
You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
Select one:
A. place her on her left side.
B. transport her immediately. C. apply high-flow oxygen.
D. assess her for crowning.
D
129
An infant is considered to be premature if it: Select one:
A. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.
B. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb.
C. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
D. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb.
C
130
You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should:
Select one:
A. remain in a safe place and request law enforcement.
B. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. C. ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife.
D. go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient.
A
131
```
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: Select one:
A. a bloated feeling.
B. easier breathing.
C. mid-back pain.
D. an urge to push.
```
B
132
The umbilical cord:
Select one:
A. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.
B. separates from the placenta shortly after birth.
C. carries blood away from the baby via the artery.
D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
D
133
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
Select one:
A. gross distention.
B. dark-purple marks. C. red areas of skin. D. localized pain.
C
134
A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should:
Select one:
A. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze.
B. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. C. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator.
D. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline.
B
135
```
Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?
Select one:
A. Drug addiction
B. Schizophrenia
C. Alzheimer disease
D. Head trauma
```
B
136
Ketone production is the result of:
Select one:
A. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.
B. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL.
C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. D. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low.
C
137
```
Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. race and gender.
B. appearance.
C. pulse strength.
D. level of distress.
```
C
138
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
Select one:
A. indicates a state of decompensated shock.
B. is most commonly caused by severe pain.
C. should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
D. is always accompanied by hypotension.
C
139
Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:
Select one:
A. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2.
B. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.
C. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply.
D. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
D
140
```
Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?
Select one:
A. Inhalation
B. Oral
C. Rectal
D. Sublingual
```
B
141
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
Select one:
A. patient's mental status.
B. presence of a medical identification tag.
C. rate of the patient's pulse.
D. rate and depth of breathing.
D
142
Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one:
A. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
B. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury.
C. important medical history not previously given.
D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.
A
143
Abruptio placenta occurs when:
Select one:
A. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.
B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus.
D. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
D
144
```
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:
Select one:
A. septic shock.
B. decompensated shock.
C. pump failure.
D. a local infection.
```
A
145
The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are:
Select one:
A. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral.
B. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx.
C. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx.
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.
D
146
Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?
Select one:
A. Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.
B. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. C. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle. D. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels.
B
147
Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct?
Select one:
A. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval.
B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director.
D. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.
B
148
A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should:
Select one:
A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once.
B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask, apply a rigid cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly.
C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.
D. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.
D
149
After a baby is born, it is important to:
Select one:
A. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing.
B. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed. C. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.
D. position it so that its head is higher than its body.
B
150
The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:
Select one:
A. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.
B. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.
C. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.
D. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.
D
