EMT Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Depository of calcium unto smooth walls of muscle making it harder for smooth muscle to dilate and shrink. Function of aging.

A

Arteriosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Plaque in smooth muscle. Due to diet and being sedentary.

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vital capacity

A

Maximum of air you can exhale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the leading cause of trauma and death and disability in the elderly?

A

Falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Syncope in an elderly patient is ____ until proven otherwise

A

Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An individual feels profoundly short of breath laying down and better sitting up

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation: Pulsating mass and sharp pain to the back

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hip replacements in the elderly may lead to ____

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proper treatment for foreign objects in the eye

A
  1. Do not remove objects embedded or impaled in the eye
  2. Moist sterile dressing
  3. Immobilize the object in place
  4. Covered the injured and uninjured eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hemorrhage into the anterior chamber of the eye due to blunt trauma.

A

Hyphema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Blunt trauma to eye where entire eye is filled with blood

A

Scleral hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Black eye

A

Periorbital ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for an extruded globe?

A

DO NOT insert eye into orbit

Use moist saline dressing with protective cup (both eyes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment to chemical burns in eye?

A

Irrigate with saline for 20 minutes

Use dry dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment to thermal burns to the eye?

A

Cover both eyes with moist, saline dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When you shine a light in one eye, the other eye should have the same reaction. This is called?

A

Consensual response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of brain injury?

A

Mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Entities within the mediastinum?

A

Heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are you worried about with closed chest injuries?

A

Worried about the underlying structures

Fractures, penetrations, lacerations and ruptures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

With shock, hypotension is a (later/earlier) sign

A

Later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When pain increases when you take a breath?

A

Pleuritic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Blunt force rib fractures are very common in what population?

A

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Two or more ribs are broken in two or more places. Results in paradoxical movement

A

Flail chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Accumulation of air in the pleural space. Signs involve unilateral breath sounds.

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment of a pneumothorax?

A

02 and transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Penetration of chest wall so air is entering the chest cavity?
There may be bubbling at the site

A

Sucking chest wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment of a sucking chest wound?

A

Occlusive dressing (plastic wrap, petroleum gauze and tape on three sides)
02
Positioning (position of comfort, but if blood pressure is dropping the patient should be lateral recumbent on the affected side-so the good lung is not being compressed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Position of a patient with a sucking chest wound with dropping BP?

A

The patient should be lateral recumbent on the affected side-so the good lung is not being compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ongoing of air into hemithorax (lungs)-more air leaking in than out
Complete collapse of lung
Increased pressure in hemithorax

A

Tension pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unilateral breath sounds
Mediastinal shift leads to: tracheal deviation, JVD and narrowing pulse pressure
Hyperresonance

A

Tension pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment of tension pneumothorax?

A

O2
Position on affected side
“Burp” occlusive dressing
ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Blood in pleural space

A

Hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Blood and air in pleural space

A

Hemopneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Shock

Hyporesonance

A

Hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Penetrating trauma to the chest with short eta will or will not be resuscitated?

A

Will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

____ and ____ involve pressure. Releasing the pressure will lead to heart pumping again. This is why injuries involving penetrating trauma to the chest will be resuscitated.

A

Tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Blood or fluid collect in pericardial sac

A

Pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Beck’s Triad is associated with

A

Pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Beck’s Triad

A

JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, muffled heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment of pericardial tamponade

A

02, positioning, ALS, rapid transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Circumferential chest injury or sudden severe compression of the chest. Sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure

A

Traumatic asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

JVD, cyanosis of head and neck, scleral hemorrhage

A

Traumatic asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Treatment for traumatic asphyxia

A

Supportive, rapid transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the only type of blunt force trauma to the chest that will be actively resuscitated? Why?

A

Cordis commotio

It is an electrical problem, not a trauma problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A myocardial contusion presents similarly to a ___

A

heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rupture of hollow organs leads to:

A
Leakage or bleeding
Peritoneal pain (intestine, bladder)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most life threatening abdominal injury? What is the second?

A

1) Liver injury (upper right)

2) Spleen (upper left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Solid organs

A

Kidneys, liver, spleen, pancreas, ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Kehr’s

A

Referred pain to left shoulder due to spleen injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment of penetrating abdominal injury

A

Inspect for entrance/exit wounds
Dry, sterile dressing (occlusive above umbilicus)
Stabilize impaled objects in space
Treat for shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Internal organs protrude through wound

A

Abdominal evisceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Treatment for abdominal evisceration

A

Do not re-insert
Sterile, saline moistened dressing
Bandage in place-side-so the good lung is not being compressed, occulsive dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Edema, ecchymosis to right flank
Upper abdomen, lower rib, lumbar back
Hematuria

A

Liver injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hematuria

A

Blood in urine

55
Q

When are bladder injuries at the greatest risk>

A

When full?

56
Q

Approaching a hazardous material incident

A

Uphill
Upwind
100’ away

57
Q

NFPA 704=

A

National Fire Protection Association

58
Q

NFPA Colors: Red, Blue, Yellow, While

A

Red=Fire
Blue=Health
Yellow=Reactivity
White=Special (oxidizer, corrosive, water reactive)

59
Q

Teams in a HazMat management situation

A

Entry (2 or more people)
Back up
Decontamination (in warm zone)
Rehab

60
Q

SLUDGEM

A
Types of chemical (nerve) agents
Salivation
Lacrimation (tears)
Urination
Defecation 
Gastric Upset
Emesis (vomiting)
Myosis (pinpoint pupils)
61
Q

Vector=

A

Vehicle (for disease or biological agent)

62
Q

SALT

A

Sort
Assess
Life Saving Interventions
Transport

63
Q

What is the national protocol for the response to a Multiple Causality Incident

A

National Incident Management System

64
Q

METHANE

A
Major Incident
Exact Location
Type of Incident
Hazards
Access
Number of Patients
Emergency Services Needed
65
Q

What is the only type of treatment acceptable during tagging in a MCI?

A

Airway maneuvers and tourniquets

66
Q

Approach helicopters from _ to_ o’clock

Landing sites should be ___’ x_____’

A

9, 3

100, 100

67
Q

P wave

A

Atrial depolarization
Atrial contraction
SA node firing

68
Q

QRS

A

Ventricular contraction

Ventricular depolarization

69
Q

T wave

A

Ventricles resetting

Ventricular re-polarization

70
Q

Blood vessels that sprout to help with narrowing of the artery as a supplement

A

Collateral circulation

71
Q

Coronary arteries fill during (systole/diastole)

A

Diastole

It is a passive process

72
Q

Reduction of O2 to the heart that causes it to change its metabolism

A

Ischemia

73
Q

Cardiac Output=

A

Stroke volume (SV) x Heart Rate (HR)

74
Q

Stoke Volume

A

Amount of blood you push out with each squeeze

75
Q

Cardiac Output

A

Blood coming out of the heart per minute

76
Q

Tissue that dies as a result of poor oxygenation

A

Infarction

77
Q

Chest pain associated with angina is:

A

Pressure
Radiating (may or may not)
Rarely > 15 minutes
Non-reproducible

78
Q

Myocardial Infarction

A

Heart attack; obstruction of blood flow through coronary arteries

79
Q

Myocardial infarction usually occurs in the ___

A

Left ventricle

80
Q

Chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction is:

A

Pressure
Radiating (may or may not)
>20 minutes
Non-reproducible

81
Q

In diabetics, what is considered to be a sign of a silent myocardial infarction?

A

New onset weakness plus normal (?) glucose level

82
Q

Why do diabetics experience silent myocardial infractions?

A

Neuropathy-nerve damage

83
Q

What is a sign of a myocardial infarction in an elderly patient? Why do elderly patients not always experience the classic chest pain when it comes to myocardial infractions?

A

Dyspnea upon exertion
Syncope
Neuropathways do not conduct as well

84
Q

Cardiogenic shock vitals signs due to left ventricular failure

A

Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Orthopnea (uncomfortable if lay flat)
Hypotension

85
Q

Cardiogenic shock vitals due to conductivity issues

A

Bradycardia
Tachypnea, clear
Normotensive (b/c LV is still pumping fine)

86
Q

S/S associated with cardiogenic shock due to LV failure

A
Rales
Pink frothy sputum
JVD
CHF
Anxiety, restlessness, pale, cool clammy
87
Q

S/S associated with cardiogenic shock due to conductivity issues

A

Syncope

Anxiety, restless, pale cool, clammy

88
Q

Treatment of Angina/AMI

A

Position of comfort
O2 if dyspneic/02 saturation <94%
Baby aspirin/maybe nitro (if prescribed)
ALS

89
Q

S/S of CHF

A
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Hypertension
Agitation, anxiety
SOB
Maybe/maybe not chest pain (fullness)
90
Q

What is the difference between left ventricular MI and left sided failure CHF?

A

Vital signs
CHF-blood pressure is high
LV MI-blood pressure is low

91
Q

1 cause of righted sided failure is ___

A

left sided failure

92
Q

S/S of left sided failure CHF

A
Orthopnea
Rales, pink frothy sputum
JVD and/or peripheral edema
Anxiety, restless
Pale, cool, clammy
93
Q

S/S of right sided failure CHF

A

JVD
Peripheral edema
Anxiety, restless

94
Q

CHF Treatment

A

Position of comfort-upright
Apply high flow O2
If chest pain-baby aspirin, nitro if appropriate
ALS

95
Q

Five rights of medications

A

Right medication, patient, dose, time, route

96
Q

S/S of a thoracic aortic aneurysm-chest pain

A

Sudden tearing chest pain

Radiating into back

97
Q

S/S of a thoracic aortic aneurysm-vital signs

A

Unequal radial pulses (hallmark sign is radial pulse in left arm is noticeably weaker than the right radial pulse)
Disparate BP’s
Hypovolemia

98
Q

Hypertensive crisis

A

Sudden rapid severe increase in your blood pressure
SBP>160
DBP>94

99
Q

S/s of a hypertensive crisis

A

Headache, nosebleed, chest pain, bounding pulse, stroke, seizures, encephalopathy, end organ damage (kidneys)

100
Q

Orthostatic vital signs

A

Major change in vital signs sitting to standing

101
Q

Shockable rhythms for AED

A

Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia

102
Q

Mandated reporting of abuse/neglect of what populations?

A

Elder and child

103
Q

MOLST

A

Medical Order for Life Sustaining Treatment

104
Q

Manner in which an EMT must act or behave.

A

Standard of Care

105
Q

The standard of care is determined by:

A
EMS Standard curriculum
Law-statues, ordinances, administrative guidelines, case law, state wide protocols 
The situation
Professional or institutional standards
Imposed by local custom
106
Q

Scope of practice

A

Rules, regulations and duties that legally define the role of a practitioner

107
Q

Some rules and regulations that guide an EMT’s scope of practice

A

National Scope of Practice Model (Federal government)
State law
Medical director

108
Q

Standard of Care

A

The conduct of a reasonably prudent person with similar training and experience in similar circumstances

109
Q

Negligence

A

Duty to act
Breach of duty
Injury
Causation

110
Q

Termination of patient care without their consent

Termination of car without provisions for continued care

A

Abandonment

111
Q

What position is best for shock?

A

Trebdelenberg position-shock position-elevate legs above head

112
Q

How many bones in the body?

A

206

113
Q
Amount of vertebrae"
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccyx
A
C=C1-C7
T=T1-T12
L=L1-L5
S=S1-S5
Co=4 fused tailbone
114
Q

Flexion

A

To bend

115
Q

Extension

A

Antagonistic motion to flexion

116
Q

Away from midline

A

Abduction

117
Q

Toward the midline

A

Adduction

118
Q

2 or more bones articulate

A

Joint

119
Q

Muscle to bone

A

Tendon

120
Q

Attach bone to bone

A

Ligaments

121
Q

Movement of CO2 and O2 across cell membranes

A

Respiration

122
Q

Where does the lower airway start?

A

Larynx-superior part being the epiglottis

123
Q

____ respiration requires 02

A

Aerobic

124
Q

Normal Respiratory Rates: Adults, children, infants

A

12-20
15-30
25-50

125
Q

What is a pulse?

A

Forceful pumping of blood out of the heart

126
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Amount of force exerted against walls of arteries
Systole: Cardiac muscle contracts
Diastole: Cardiac muscles relaxes

127
Q

Normal heart rates: Adults, children, infants

A

60-100
80-100
100-140

128
Q

Cell metabolism

A

Glu+02->energy+CO2+H2O

129
Q

Anaerobic respiration output:

A

Lactic acid

130
Q

Fixed location

Transmitter and receiver

A

Base station

131
Q

Who has jurisdiction over radio operations

A

FCC

132
Q

Responsible for:
Disaster network (learning hospital capabilities and communication)
Medical control
Hospital notification/consultation

A

CMED

133
Q

The “Patch” includes:

A
Confirm on line
Unit ID and ETA
Age and Gender
Chief compliant
HPI
PMH, meds, allergies
PE with VS
Treatment rendered
134
Q

SBAR

A
Medical control consult:
Situation (Unit ID, ETA, chief compliant)
Background (HPI, PMH, meds)
Assessment (PE, VS)
Recommendation (Treatment requested)